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Pharm Comp Retention IPT

1.

Brand Name: Claritin

Generic Name: loratadine

2.

Brand Name: Benadryl

Generic Name: diphenhydramine

3.

Brand Name: Zyrtec

Generic Name: cetirizine

4.

Brand Name: Dramamine

Generic Name: dimenhydrinate

5.

convulsion

refers to abnormal motor movements

6.

stage IV anesthesia

medullary depression begins

7.

stage I anesthesia

euphoria and amnesia

8.

American College of Clinical Pharmacy (ACCP)

provides resources for clinical pharmacists

9.

American Council on Pharmaceutical Education (ACPE)

national accrediting agency for pharmacy education programs

10.

American Pharmacists Association (APhA)

the largest of all the pharmacy organizations

11.

American Associations of College of Pharmacy (AACP)

represents all 87 pharmacy schools in the United States

12.

Brand Name: Gastrisin

Generic Name: sulfisoxazole

13.

Brand Name: Fuzeon

Generic Name: enfuvirtide

14.

Brand Name: Omnipen

Generic Name: ampicillin

15.

Brand Name: Trimox

Generic Name: amoxicillin

16.

Brand Name: Adulfidine

Generic Name: sulfasalazine

17.

Brand Name: Mycostatin

Generic Name: Nystatin

18.

Enfuvirtide is classified as which of the following HIV anitviral agents?

fusion inhibitor (FI)

19.

Which of the following drugs is NOT used for Parkinson's Disease?

fluoxetine (Prozac)

20.

Specialties in the profession of pharmacy include

drug information

21.

The amount of medical knowledge gained is said to double every

5 years

22.

A certified pharmacy technician (CPhT) may

monitor inventory and repackage medication under pharmacist supervision

23.

Which of the following classes of drugs cannot help in achieving the treatment goals for angina pectoris?

diuretics

24.

Good sources for continuing education in the field of pharmacy include

workshops and seminars offered by pharmacy organizations

25.

Chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body are referred to as

opioids

26.

The largest national pharmacy organization is the

American Pharmacists Association (APhA)

27.

Which of the following classes of drugs is used to prevent formation of thrombi?

anticoagulants

28.

An example of loop diuretics is

furosemide

29.

Hypnotic drugs are used to treat

sleep disorders

30.

Which of the following is NOT an antihistamine?

hydrocodone (Histussin)

31.

Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

regular

32.

Which organization sets the standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products?

United States Pharmacopeia (USP)

33.

Glucophage is the trade name for

metformin

34.

Which of the following statements about insulin is true?

Insulin is a hormone

35.

Many clerical tasks in pharmacies are now performed by

pharmacy technicians

36.

Which of the following is an example of an "amide" local anesthetic?

lidocaine

37.

An agent used to treat fungal diseases is

amphotericin B

38.

Which of the following is an RNA virus?

retrovirus

39.

Augmentin is the trade name of

amoxicillin/ clavulanate postassium

40.

The percentage of women enrolled in pharmacy schools in the U.S. colleges of pharmacy in 1993 was

63 percent

41.

The core requirements for a 2-year Associate degree for pharmacy technicians include

terminology

42.

Captopril, an antihypertensive, is classified as which of the following?

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

43.

Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

pregnancy

44.

Histamine blockers that affect type 2 receptors are used for

peptic ulcers

45.

An example of a class III antiarrhythmic drug that interferes with potassium outflow is

amiodarone

46.

The initial stimulus for coughing probably arises in the

bronchial mucosa

47.

The pharmacy technician certification must be renewed every

2 years

48.

Which of the following drugs is classified as an antidepressant, and is also used for smoking cessation?

bupropion

49.

The trade name of sertraline is

Zoloft

50.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of most antihistamines?

sedation

51.

The generic name of Prozac is

fluoxetine

52.

Vancomycin is usually given

intravenously

53.

Which of the following is the trade name of amlodipine?

Norvasc

54.

The generic name of Tagamet is

cimetidine

55.

Which of the following is capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but does not necessarily kill bacteria?

bacteriostat

56.

The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipoproteins and lipids in the blood is called

hyperlipidemia

57.

Which of the following are the most potent and effective anti-inflammatory agents?

corticosteroids

58.

Which of the following drugs is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?

sulfisoxazole

59.

Diltiazem, an antianginal drug, is classified as which of the following?

calcium channel blocker

60.

The quality and control unti responsible for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality is sometimes referred to as

Assay and Control

61.

Of the number of required continuing education hours for the CPhT, how many hours must be related to pharmacy law?

1 hour

62.

The generic name of Tofranil is

imipramine

63.

Which of the following is an example of centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants?

baclofen

64.

Which of the following is NOT used to treat asthma?

lansoprazole (Prevacid)

65.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

federal agency that provides facilities and services for the investigation, identification, prevention, and control of disease

66.

Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

creates standards for child-resistant packaging

67.

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

prohibits the interstate distribution or sale of adulterated and misbranded food and drugs

68.

Supplemental Health and Educational Act of 1994

placed the burden of proof squarely on FDA in regard to the safeness of dietary supplements

69.

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

controls the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances

70.

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

offers tax breaks for companies to undertake the development and manufacture of drugs for uncommon diseases.

71.

administrative law

the rules and regulations established by agencies of the federal government.

72.

criminal law

governs the relationship of the individual to society as a whole.

73.

statutes

results from action by the legislature

74.

slander

defamatory spoken words

75.

negligence

failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another.

76.

What control drug schedule is morphine?

Schedule II controlled substance

77.

Which schedule is the opiate morphine, which may result in severe psychological and physical dependence when abused?

Schedule II

78.

Who creates the standards for child-resistant packaging, as required by the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)?

Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

79.

The maximum amount of items that may be ordered on DEA Form 222 is

10

80.

Orphan drugs are used for all of the following disorders or conditions, EXCEPT

peptic ulcer

81.

The "Administrative Simplification" provision of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) consists of

Electronic Health Transaction Standards and Privacy and Confidentiality Standards

82.

An example of an intentional tort is

battery

83.

The study of values or principles governing personal relationships is called

ethics

84.

What regulatory agency is responsible for the approval of drugs, over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription labeling, and standards for drug manufacturing?

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

85.

Which of the following amendments or acts required manufacturers to register and list their products?

Medical Device Amendment

86.

The branch of the government that is responsible for creating laws is the

legislative branch

87.

Which act prohibits the reimportation of a drug into the United States by anyone but the manufacturer?

Prescription Drug Marketing Act

88.

The Model State Pharmacy Practice Act (MSPPA), which can provide a greater degree of uniformity between states in regards to the practice of pharmacy, was developed by the

National Associations of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)

89.

A pharmacist must be registered with the DEA if he

owns a pharmacy as a sole proprietor

90.

Pharmacies should make a complete and accurate record of all stocks of controlled substances on hand every

2 years

91.

When a controlled substance is stolen or lost from a pharmacy, the nearest DEA office must be notified using which of the following DEA forms?

106

92.

inventory turnover rate

mathematical calculation of the number of times the average inventory is replaced over a period of time (usually annually)

93.

inventory control

controlling the amount of product on hand to maximize the return of investment

94.

point-of-sale (POS) master

inventory control system that allows inventory to be tracked as it is used

95.

perpetual inventory system

inventory control system that allows for monthly review of drug use

96.

want book

list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be ordered

97.

Repackaged pharmaceuticals that are expired should be

placed in a separate area until they can be properly disposed of

98.

When specific stock reorder points are reached, they trigger the

computer to automatically reorder

99.

The formula of adding the beginning inventory for a period to the ending inventory for a period and dividing by two is for calculating

average inventory

100.

It is important to stock items according to their

specific storage requirements

101.

Inventory of controlled substances must be taken every

two years

102.

What is NOT true concerning the use of a point-of-sale (POS) master?

It can be used to check for therapeutic duplications in a drug regimen.

103.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of formulary systems?

pediatric formulary

104.

If controlled substances have been ordered, they should be received into the pharmacy by a

pharmacist

105.

The stock of medications a pharmacy keeps immediately on hand is called a(n)

inventory

106.

Most drug products are received in the pharmacy in

bulk "stock" bottles

107.

A Class III recall is for products that may

violate FDA labeling or manufacturing

108.

Which of the following are used to most easily determine each received item and its associated information?

bar codes

109.

What is true concerning unit-of-use packaging?

It will allow pharmacists to prepare medications before they are needed

110.

An example of a want book would be a

spiral-bound notebook in which order stickers may be placed

111.

The purpose of drug formularies is to

increase selection of items that may be prescribed

112.

A list of articles in stock, with the description and quantity of each, is referred to as a(n)

inventory

113.

Which of the following is the most suitable, flexible, and open-ended system on the market that can be installed in all of the computers in the main pharmacy?

point-of-sale master

114.

Most automated dispensing systems comply with both the

HIPAA and Joint Commission

115.

Bar coding saves

lives, time and dollars

116.

Inventory control is closely associated with the function of

purchasing

117.

The perpetual inventory is a written record of the amount of controlled substances for which of the following drug schedules?

II

118.

A list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be reordered is called a

want book

119.

Which drug recall level may cause serious harm or death?

Class I

120.

What is false about inventory and control systems in pharmacy today?

Manual systems usually keep a perpetual inventory

121.

The real advantage of computerized inventory control systems is

time saving

122.

Which of the following is the simplest and most widely used method of inventory control?

want book system

123.

Which of the following is not a type of inventory management system?

automated dispensing system

124.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of automated dispensing systems?

cheaper

125.

Expired compounded pharmaceuticals must be

disposed of

126.

What is the purpose of formularies?

to eliminate duplication

127.

The medication master file contains all of the information needed for

inventory, pricing, and ordering

128.

A pharmacy has purchased 550 products over a period of 3 months. If their average inventory was 235 products in a 3-month period, their inventory turnover rate for this period is

2.34

129.

Which class of drug recalls is considered most dangerous, and may cause serious health problems or death?

Class I

130.

Regarding inventory, an estimated count must be done for which drug schedules?

III to V

131.

For the period of January through June, a pharmacy had a beginning inventory of 312 products and an ending inventory of 336 products. Which of the following is the average inventory for this 6-month period?

324

132.

pipette

long, thin, calibrated hollow tube that is made of glass and is used for measuring liquids

133.

conical graduate

device used for measuring liquids that has a wide top and tapers from top to bottom

134.

compounding slab

plate made of ground glass with a hard, flat, and nonabsorbent surface for mixing compounds

135.

cylindrical graduate

device used for measuring liquids that has a narrow diameter

136.

pestle

solid device that is used to crush or grind material in a mortar

137.

gel

suspensions made of either small inorganic particles or large organic molecules interpenetrated by a liquid

138.

pastes

oil-in-water or water-in-oil emulsion characterized by a high content of solids

139.

cream

water-based emulsion in which drugs in powder or crystal form are usually mixed in for topical use

140.

suspension

liquid dosage form that contains solid drug particles floating in a liquid medium

141.

solvent

liquid substance in which another substance is being dissolved

142.

The type of mortar and pestle that has the advantage of being nonporous and nonstaining is

glass

143.

When mixing two or more powders, you should

pulverize them separately to the same particle size

144.

Which device is used to shrink bands onto vials?

heat gun

145.

When compounding solutions, the drug should be dissolved in the

solvent in which it is more soluble

146.

When measuring out a liquid, it is good practice to

select a container that will be half full when measuring, measure a volume that is at least 20% of the capacity of the graduate, and view the measurement by looking at eye level to the surface

147.

Class A balances have a sensitivity requirement of

6 mg

148.

Which piece of equipment is designed for mixing and melting substances?

beaker

149.

Which balance is NOT appropriate for prescription compounding?

counterbalance

150.

When compounding a solution, which form of the drug should be used?

salt form

151.

Unlike compounded solutions, suspensions

have problematic physical stability once compounded

152.

The smallest size graduate available is

5 mL

153.

The minimum amount you should measure with a 100 mL graduated cylinder is

5 mL

154.

When measuring out a liquid in a graduate, the upper surface of the liquid is called

quarter-moon-shaped body and meniscus

155.

Which type of base is a water-miscible base often used in vaginal and rectal suppositories?

glycerinated gelatin

156.

An example of a drug that is applied topically but is intended for systemic absorption into the body is

nitroglycerin

157.

Mortars and pestles are usually made of all the following, EXCEPT

ceramic

158.

Which piece of equipment is used to remove seals placed onto vials?

crimper

159.

The maximum amount that can be weighed out with a Class A balance is

120 g

160.

The largest capsule size that should be given orally to patients is

number 000

161.

A two-pan device that may be used for weighing small amounts of drugs (not more than 120 grams) is called a(n)

class A prescription balance

162.

Balance weights should only be handled with

forceps

163.

Sterility of compounded products can be achieved through the following methods, EXCEPT

freezing

164.

The first step in adding a salt to a syrup is to add

salt to a few milliliters of water

165.

When reconstituting dry powders of parenteral drugs, it is important to know the

correct diluent

166.

Tablet molds are commonly made of

metal

167.

Manufacturing of prescription products for resale to pharmacies is regulated by the

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

168.

Why are balance weights usually made of a metal such as brass?

Metal is corrosion resistant.

169.

Spatulas are usually made of

plastic, stainless steel, and hard rubber

170.

Which type of base is used most commonly for rectal suppositories?

cocoa butter

171.

Ointments are considered

oil based in nature and semisolid dosage form

172.

Ceclor is what generation of Cephalosporins?

Second generation

173.

The Trade name for Ceftriaxone Sodium is what?

Rocephin

174.

Cefdinir is what generation of Cephalosporins?

Third Generation

175.

Name a first generation Cephalosporin?

cefadroxil, cefazolin sodium, cephalexin (Generic) Duricel, Ultracef, Ancef, Kefzol, Cefanex, Keflex (Trade)

176.

True or False: Maxipime can be given PO

False: Only IM, IV

177.

What are the three types of Tetracyclines?

Short-acting, intermediate-acting, and long acting

178.

What is the generic name for Sumycin?

tetracycline hydrochoride

179.

What is the maximum dose of Declomycin that a patient may have (in milligrams) and which type does it belong to?

2400 mg, intermediate-acting

180.

triglycerides

a simple fat compound consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol

181.

nutrition

The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and use for proper body functioning and maintenance of health

182.

cholesterol

A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues; a member of a group of lipids called "sterols."

183.

protein

the only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen

184.

cyanocobalamin

A water-soluble vitamin that is the common pharmaceutical form of vitamin B12

185.

vitamin

an organic substance necessary for life although it does not independently provide energy

186.

phospholipid

a phosphorous-containing liquid

187.

mineral

an inorganic substance occurring naturally in the earth's crust

188.

iron

a common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

189.

carbohydrate

the nutrient providing the main source of energy in the average diet

190.

electrolyte

compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water

191.

vitamin B3

also called niacin

192.

vitamin B6

also called pyridoxine

193.

vitamin D

also called calciferol

194.

vitamin B1

also called thiamin

195.

Vitamin B12

also called cyanocobalamin

196.

vitamin A

also called retinol

197.

vitamin B9

also called folacin

198.

vitamin E

also called tocopherol

199.

vitamin K1

also called phylloquionone

200.

Amino acids that must be derived from dietary sources and cannot be synthesized by the body are called

essential amino acids

201.

Copper accumulation in the liver may cause

Wilson's disease

202.

Which vitamin is important for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus?

Vitamin D

203.

Factors that may result in a drug interaction include the following, EXCEPT

pharmacy intervention

204.

Which vitamin is given to patients with hemorrhage disorders?

Vitamin K

205.

Vitamin B1 is also called

thiamin

206.

Which of the following drugs may cause peripheral neuritis in some patients?

isoniazid

207.

Which of the following statements about calcium is false?

It is required for the elimination of urine

208.

Protein is needed for the formation of

enzymes, antibodies and hormones

209.

Which vitamins are least likely to cause adverse effects when taken in overdose?

Vitamin B complex

210.

LDL (low-density lipoproteins) levels can be decreased by

exercise and decreased dietary intake of cholesterol

211.

Which of the following nutrients provides the most energy for the body?

fats

212.

Which nutrient provides the most concentrated source of calories (9 kcal per gram)?

lipids

213.

Which of the following drugs may be given concurrently with grapefruit?

acetaminophen

214.

Concurrent use of alcoholic beverages and sedatives may result in

excessive CNS depression

215.

It is recommended to limit fat intake to what percentage of total calories consumed?

30 percent

216.

Proteins are complex nitrogenous compounds that are composed of large combinations of

amino acids

217.

Any patient taking a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor (an antidepressant) should avoid all of the following foods or beverages, EXCEPT

diet Coke

218.

Current dietary goals in the United States recommend that carbohydrates constitute what percentage of total calories consumed?

55 to 60 percent

219.

The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from the body to the liver for metabolism, considered the 'good cholesterol," is

HDL (high-density lipoproteins

220.

Excessive consumption of carbohydrates may lead to

obesity

221.

Carbidopa is often prescribed in combination with levodopa in patients with Parkinson's Disease. The addition of carbidopa decreases the amount of levodopa needed to have an effect, but it does not have a beneficial effect in these patients if given alone. This is an example of

Potentiation

222.

The Food Guide Pyramid is scheduled to undergo changes by the USDA due to

epidemic numbers of overweight people in the United States

223.

Vegetables such as broccoli and cabbage may inactivate

warfarin

224.

Synergism refers to the effect of two or more drugs causing

a stronger effect

225.

A chronic disease that develops over years as a result of a deficiency in total caloric intake is called

marasmus

226.

Chronic use of alcoholic beverages may interact with the drug phenytoin by

increasing liver enzyme activity

227.

Which vitamin in certain green leafy vegetables interacts with warfarin?

Vitamin K

228.

Garlic is an herb used for lowering cholesterol and modestly lowering blood pressure. Which types of drugs would you caution patients about taking concurrently with garlic?

antihypertensives

229.

Iodine is an essential micronutrient for which of the following hormones?

thyroxine

230.

Which of the following increases the drug metabolizing enzymes of the liver?

smoking

231.

How many amino acids have been identified as vital for proper growth, development, and maintenance of health?

22

232.

Which nonprescription drug interacts with warfarin?

aspirin (Bayer)

233.

Carbohydrates that are not immediately used by the body are stored as

glycogen

234.

The recommended daily requirement of protein is

0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight

235.

Which vitamin is converted from cholesterol in the skin by ultraviolet light?

Vitamin D

236.

Hypermagnesemia is usually caused by

renal insufficiency

237.

What patient variables may predispose a patient to drug interactions?

age

238.

Good cholesterol is known as

HDL

239.

The antibiotic ciprofloxacin may have decreased absorption when taken with

magnesium- and aluminum-containing antacids

240.

In the future, the number of acute beds relative to beds in long-term care will

decrease

241.

Long-term care facilities require pharmacy services to be available

24 hours a day

242.

What functions do pharmacists provide for long-term care?

distribution and consultation

243.

The role of pharmacists in long-term care has been shown to

decrease overall medication costs

244.

The growth of home health care depends on

physician acceptance, increase in the number of elderly patients, and improvement of technology

245.

Several types of home health care services that are available include the following, EXCEPT

interventional radiology

246.

The largest payer of home health care services is

Medicare

247.

High-tech home health care requires close collaboration between the pharmacy and

physicians, registered nurses, and medical supply companies

248.

Drugs added to IV solutions suffer degradation from the effects of

storage conditions

249.

The equipment typically found in a home infusion pharmacy includes a(n)

laminar airflow hoods

250.

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) consists of

amino acids and dextrose

251.

Which of the following is correct about total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

A safe and effective mixing order is required

252.

For short-term enteral nutrition therapy, which type of feeding tube is used?

nasogastric tube

253.

Ambulatory care centers now provide

endoscopy

254.

In ambulatory pharmacy services, clinical services should be available

80 to 90% of the time

255.

One of the fastest growing areas of pharmacy is

mail-order pharmacies

256.

The latest and most penetrating type of radiation is

gamma

257.

Which compound is used in about 80% of radioactive drugs?

technetium-99m

258.

Which is true about radiopharmaceuticals?

They require a receipt of a valid prescription or drug order

259.

In hospice care, physicians must certify that the life expectancy of the patient is within

6 months

260.

How are radiopharmaceuticals usually transported throughout an institution?

lead-lined containers

261.

Special badges that monitor radiation level exposure (worn by workers in nuclear pharmacies) are required to be monitored

monthly

262.

A modified unit-dose system features a single medication in each blister on cards that can hold between

30 and 90 blisters

263.

Which of the following is not a type of home health care service?

radiopharmaceutical compounding

264.

Which of the following statements about radioactive components is true?

They have short half lives.

265.

Which of the following is NOT considered a type of radiation?

delta

266.

An Internet pharmacy charges a patient a co-pay amount via the patient's

credit card

267.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of mail-order pharmacy?

accessibility in emergencies

268.

Nasogastric feeding tubes carry nutrients into the

stomach

269.

The major source of payment for home care is

Medicare

270.

A group of medications that is provided to a hospice patient by the hospice pharmacy to provide a "start" in treatment for the majority of urgent problems is a(n)

starter kit or comfort pack

271.

Medications that are required on a continous basis for the treatment of chronic conditions are called

maintenance drugs

272.

Vials containing the particular radiopharmaceutical compounds, usually in freeze-dried form are

reagent kits

273.

An intravenous feeding that supplies all the nutrients necessary for life is

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)

274.

What part of the radiopharmaceutical process involves performing the appropriate chemical, physical, and biological tests to ensure the suitability of the products to be used in humans?

Quality assurance

275.

Pharmacists perform two types of functions for long-term care. What are they?

Distribution and consultant

276.

What are the four types of Lipid Lowering Drugs?

Bile Acid Sequestrants, Fibric Acid Sequestrants, Niacin, and Statins

277.

What is one Trade Name for Lovastatin?

Mevacor

278.

Furosemide is what kind of diuretic?

Loop diuretic

279.

Should a patient be taking a Potassium Supplement if they are on Edecrin?

Yes

280.

Name a Potassium Sparing Diuretic?

Aldactone

281.

Hygroton is what type of diuretic?

Thiazide Diuretic

282.

The patient is hyperkalemic. What is the name of one diuretic that the physician could consider?

spironolactone

283.

Hospital pharmacies leadership position is usually titled

Pharmacy Director

284.

The medication order in a hospital must contain

patient's known drug allergies

285.

The medication dispensing system that is considered the safest and most effective is the

unit-dose drug distribution system

286.

In the hospital setting, all medications are ordered by the physician through

medication orders

287.

The disadvantages of the floor stock system include

potential for medication errors

288.

Common features of the unit dose system of drug distribution include the following, EXCEPT

bulk bottles can be used for more than one patient

289.

Which type of drug product is not required to be sterile prior to administration?

sublingual tablets

290.

A system of purchasing in which the hospital establishes a relationship with a single wholesaler in order to obtain more competitive pricing is

prime vendor purchasing

291.

The target for inventory turnover rate is

10 to 12 times per year

292.

The automated processing of medication orders also results in

generation of patient profiles, medication labels being produced, and medication administration records being produced

293.

With a 24-hour medication cart exchange system, the final check is usually done by a

pharmacist

294.

Roles for pharmacy technicians in the hospital include

setting up unit doses

295.

Policies and Procedure Manuals should be revised at least

yearly

296.

The organization that requires policies and procedures to guide the pharmacy department in providing safe, effective, and cost-effective drug therapy is the

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)

297.

The agency that inspects and approves hospitals to provide care for Medicaid patients is

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)

298.

The practice of hospital pharmacy begins with the

medication order

299.

The sterile product is usually associated with drugs that are administered by

injection or via the ophthalmic route

300.

The primary disadvantage of wholesaler purchasing is

higher costs of pharmaceuticals

301.

Which of the following statements is false about automation?

It issues recertification

302.

Which of the following devices is able to fill each patient medication tray in the cart?

robotics

303.

Failure to understand how the billing process works will cause errors in all of the following, EXCEPT

inventory

304.

Which of the following is a quasi-legal organization that has defined a standard of practice for pharmacy departments with certain policies and procedures having a defined content?

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

305.

Which of the following groups of health care professionals are not employees of a hospital?

physicians

306.

When multiple hospitals negotiate volume purchases together, this is called

group purchasing

307.

In the hospital pharmacy who determines which medications will be purchased and maintained in stock?

Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee

308.

What eliminates the "middle man" and handling fees but requires a significant commitment of time, larger inventories, and more storage space?

Direct purchasing

309.

Which organization inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services?

CMS

310.

The leadership position in hospital pharmacies is usually titled

Director of pharmacy

311.

oral PRN medication order

Tylenol 650 mg PO Q8H as needed

312.

scheduled oral medication order

Levaquin 500 mg PO Q24H

313.

scheduled IV medication order

Enalapril 5 mg IV Q6H

314.

Medications given under the direction of a research protocol are called

investigational medication order

315.

person who dispenses and counsels patients

pharmacist

316.

Person who assists the pharmacist by filling prescriptions and performing other nonjudgmental tasks

pharmacy technician

317.

A group that requires specialized education and intellectual knowledge

profession

318.

The art and science of dispensing and preparing medications and providing drug-related information to the public

pharmacy

319.

A group with the responsibility for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality

assay and control

320.

United States Pharmacopeia

USP

321.

National Pharmacy Technician Association

NPTA

322.

Pharmacy Technician Certification Board

PTCB

323.

Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam

PTCE

324.

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

ASHP

325.

American Association of Pharmacy Technicians

AAPT

326.

American Pharmacists Association

APhA

327.

The PTCB exam is a standardized national exam for certification to become a

pharmacy technician

328.

What is a nonprofit organization that sets standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products?

United States Pharmacopeia

329.

A profession is characterized by

provision of a unique service to society, a code of ethics, and a specialized body of knowledge based on advanced education, which continues to expand throughout a person's career

330.

According to the AACP, a Pharm D degree requires how many years of undergraduate study followed by 4 years of graduate study?

2 years

331.

The role of the pharmacy technician has been expanding in recent years, and the number of pharmacy technicians has

increased

332.

The skills of the pharmacy technician measured by the PTCB exam are

assisting the pharmacist in serving patients, maintaining medication and inventory control systemss, and participating in the administration and management of the pharmacy

333.

What is the continuing education requirements?

20 hours of pharmacy-related continuing education and one hour must be in pharmacy law

334.

The association that established a Code of Ethics for Pharmacy Technicians was

AAPT

335.

the branch of philosophy that deals with the distinction between right and wrong and with the moral consequences of human actions

ethics

336.

a principle or rule that is advisable or obligatory to observe

law

337.

fraudulent labeling or marking

misbranding

338.

a drug that is developed for small populations of people in need of the drug

orphan drug

339.

rules and regulations resulting from court decisions

judicial law

340.

a violation of the law

crime

341.

a serious crime, such as murder, kidnapping, assault, or rape, that is punishable by imprisonment for more than one year

felony

342.

a less serious crime, punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than 1 year

misdemeanor

343.

a discipline dealing with the ethical and moral implications of formulary biological research and applications

bioethics

344.

a database of officially recognized drug names

national formulary

345.

a uniquie and permanent product code assigned to each new drug as it becomes available in the marketplace; it identifies the manufacturer or distributor, the drug formulation, and the size and type of its packaging

NDC

346.

Created the National Drug Code

Drug Listing Act of 1972

347.

Established five classes of narcotics

Controlled Substance Act of 1970

348.

This act created FDA

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

349.

Created prescription requirements

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

350.

Reflects an essential change of direction for drug abuse control

Anabolic Steroids Control Act of 1990

351.

Requires that legend drugs must be in child-resistant containers

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

352.

Requires pharmacists to offer to counsel patients

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

353.

Requires that drug products, both prescription and nonprescription, must be effective and safe

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

354.

Pertains to a patient's right to privacy

HIPAA-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

355.

Pertains to safety in the workplace

OSHA-Occupational Safety and Health Administration

356.

The laws relevant to the practice of pharmacy may come from different sources. An example is

FDA

357.

Civil law governs pharmacists who do not act in a professional manner with their customers, including areas such as

libel, slander, violation of privacy, and unintentional bodily injury

358.

Ethics are based on

morals

359.

The FDA regulates all drugs with the exception of

illegal drugs

360.

Regulatory agencies are government-based departments that create specific rules about what is and is not ______ within a specific field or area of expertise?

legal

361.

Violations against the government or the state are governed by

criminal law

362.

What is considered the most serious type of crime against the government?

Treason

363.

The failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another is

negligence

364.

Pharmacy laws of different states are different, but they are based on the same

principles, objectives, and goals of pharmaceutical practice

365.

What agents have a high potential for abuse, but they are currently accepted for medical use in the United States?

Schedule II

366.

What agents have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotic drugs?

Schedule V

367.

narcotic alkaloids found in opium

opiates

368.

drugs that block neuromuscular transmission at the neuromuscular junction; they cause paralysis of specific skeletal muscles

neuromuscular blocking agents

369.

a temporary, abnormal electrical brain condition that results in abnorma neuronal activity; it can affect mental ability and cause convulsions

seizure

370.

a handheld pressurized device used to deliver medications for inhalation

metered-dosee inhaler

371.

a drug that induces sleep; often used to treat insomnia and in surgical anesthesia

hypnotic

372.

a trance-like state that resembles sleep that is induced by the suggestions of one person upon another who accepts them as effective

hypnosis

373.

a positively charged atom

cation

374.

also known as "spasmolytics," these agents alleviate musculoskeletal pain and spasms to reduce spasticity

centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants

375.

an intense, involuntary muscle contraction or spasm, as is commonly seen during a seizure condition

convulsion

376.

the most potent and consistently effective anti-inflammatory agents that are currently available for relief of respiratory conditions

corticosteroids

377.

chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body; commonly used for pain relief

opioids

378.

a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that usually impairs motor skills, speech, and other functions

Parkinson's Disease

379.

the use of a sedative agent to reduce excitement, nervousness, or irritation; commonly prior to a medical procedure

sedation

380.

substances that suppress the central nervous system, and induce calmness, relaxation, drowsiness, or sleep

sedatives

381.

Condition that describes chest pain, lack of blood and oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually because of vessel obstruction or spasm

angina pectoris

382.

Therapeutic agents that slow or stop the growth of microorganisms

antibiotics

383.

Drugs that counteract the action of histamine

antihistamines

384.

A physiological state consisting of fear, apprehension, or worry

anxiety

385.

Agents that relax the smooth muscle of the bronchial tubes

bronchodilators

386.

Capable of killing bacteria. This term is typically used in reference to antiseptics, disinfections, or antibiotics

bactericidal

387.

Various conditions of abnormal electrical heart activity; the heart may beat too fast, too slow, or irregularly

arrhythmias

388.

A drug that reduces coughing, also called a "cough suppressant"

antitussive

389.

Capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria

bacteriostatic

390.

A device used to deliver medication in the form of micronized powder into the lungs

dry powder inhaler

391.

chemical messengers that move through the blood or through cells that carry signals

hormones

392.

The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipids or lipoproteins in the blood

hyperlipidemia

393.

High blood pressure

hypertension

394.

Narcotic analgesics are

referred to as opioids

395.

Hypertension

is treated by using diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, as well as other drugs.

396.

Heart arrhythmias occur because of

improper impulse generation and improper conduction

397.

Invading microorganisms include

viruses, bacteria and fungi

398.

Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

pregnancy

399.

Semisynthetic antibiotics structurally and pharmacologically related to penicillins are

cephalosporins

400.

Fluoroquinolones are related to

nalidixic acid

401.

DNA viruses include

herpes simplex 1 and 2, varicella-zoster, and influenza A

402.

commonly used devices for inhalation include

metered-dose inhaler, dry powder, and nebulizers

403.

Carbamazepine is the generic name for

Tegretol

404.

An alkali metal element that helps regulate neuromuscular excitability and muscle contraction

potassium

405.

The only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen

protein

406.

A fat-soluble vitamin essential for skeletal growth, maintenance of normal mucosal epithelium, reproduction, and visual acuity

retinol

407.

Any of several organic acids produced by the hydrolysis of neutral fats

fatty acids

408.

Fats

lipids

409.

A disease caused by extreme lack of protein

kwashiorkor

410.

A common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

iron

411.

An essential micronutrient of the thyroid hormone

iodine

412.

A water-soluble vitamin essential for cell growth and the reproduction of red blood cells

folic acid

413.

Any substance that becomes part of a food product

food additive

414.

A substance that prevents tooth decay and protects against osteoporosis and gum disease

fluoride

415.

A nonmetallic chemical element occurring extensively in nature as a component of phosphate rock

phosphorus

416.

A phosporus-containing lipid

phospholipid

417.

The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and used for proper body functioning and maintenance of health

nutrition

418.

A chemical substance found in food that is necessary for good health

nutrient

419.

A part of two enzymes that regulate energy metabolism

niacin

420.

Inorganic substances occurring naturally in the earth's crust, having a characteristic chemical composition

minerals

421.

A water-soluble, injectable form of the product of vitamin K3

menadione

422.

Severe wasting caused by lack of protein and all nutrients or faulty absorption

marasmus

423.

A silver-white mineral element; the second most abundant cation of the intracellular fluids in the body and is essential for many enzyme activities

magnesium

424.

A system of nourishing through breathing

pharma food

425.

Substances composed of lipids or fatty acids and occurring in various forms

fats

426.

Compounds that dissociate into ions when dissolved in water

electrolytes

427.

A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin

ascorbic acid

428.

A water-soluble B complex vitamin that acts as a coenzyme in fatty acid production and in the oxidation of fatty acids and carbohydrates

biotin

429.

A metallic element that is a component of several important enzymes in the body and is essential to good health

copper

430.

A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues

cholesterol

431.

An anion of chlorine

chloride

432.

An alkaline earth metal element

calcium

433.

A fat-soluble vitamin chemically related to the steroids and essential for the normal formation of bones and teeth

calciferol

434.

Natural fats consist of what percentage of triglycerides or triacylglycerols?

95%

435.

A fat-soluble vitamin essential for normal reproduction, muscle development, resistance of erythrocytes to hemolysis, and various other biochemical functions.

Tocopherol

436.

A water-soluble, crystalline compound of the B complex, essential for normal metabolism and health of the cardiovascular and nervous systems is

vitamin B1 or thiamin

437.

Simple fat compounds consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol is

triglycerides

438.

A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin is

vitamin C

439.

Vitamin K is also called

quinones

440.

Life expectancy in the United States is

increasing

441.

Good fats are known as

HDL

442.

Zinc deficiency is characterized by

abnormal fatigue, decreased alertness, and a decrease in taste and odor sensitivity

443.

Enteral tube feedings are containdicated in patients with the following:

diffused peritonits, severe diarrhea, and intractable vomiting

444.

A system of enzymes that contributes to drug interactions

cytochrome P-450

445.

The cooperative effect of two or more drugs given together to produce a stronger effect than that of either drug given alone

synergism

446.

When two drugs act to decrease the effects of each other

antagonism

447.

An interference of a drug with the effect of another drug, nutrient, or laboratory test

drug interaction

448.

One drug prolongs the effects of another drug

potentiation

449.

Surgical patients commonly receive more than

10 drugs

450.

When two drugs with similar actions are taken, the effect of the drugs will

double

451.

What agents are most often abused?

Opioids, barbiturates, and analgesics

452.

Smoking increases the activity of drug-metabolizing enzymes in the

liver

453.

The pharmacist has a valuable opportunity to make a significant contribution to further enhance the

efficacy of drug therapy and safety of drug therapy

454.

The process of entering a physician's order into a computer

transcription

455.

Zeros that follow decimal points

trailing zeros

456.

Charts used to measure a patient's pain intensity level

pain scales

457.

The failure to do something that a reasonable person might do, or doing something that a reasonable person might not do

negligence

458.

Negligence performed by a professional, such as a pharmacist, or a pharmacist-supervised technician

malpractice

459.

Zeros that precede decimal points

leading zeros

460.

A localized mass of blood outside of the blood vessels that appears to be discolored

hematoma

461.

Having to do with the examination and treatment of patients

clinical

462.

Agents that give immunity to diseases or living organisms

biologics

463.

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, approximately how many Americans die each year as a result of medical errors?

98,000

464.

Deaths in U.S. hospitals due to medical errors are more than deaths from motor vehicle accidents, breast cancer and AIDS? What does this number exceed?

44,000

465.

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, which medications have the "highest alert" concerning medication errors?

Insulin and heparin, narcotics and opiates, and potassium chloride injections

466.

Fatigue has many effects that can allow medication errors to occur. They include:

slowed reaction times, reduced accuracy, and inability to recognize changes in the patient

467.

The term "every other day" is abbreviated:

QOD

468.

The term "right eye" is abbreviated:

OD

469.

Penalties concerning negligence or malpractice may include:

restriction on practice and fines, suspension of ability to practice and jail sentences, and revocation of ability to practice

470.

A pharmacist who fails to perform a prospective drug regimen review, gives incorrect advice, or doesn't warn a patient about potential adverse effects is guilty of

malpractice

471.

The Joint Commission requires organizations to prove that their personnel are:

competent

472.

An organization that surveys and accredits health care organizations

The Joint Commission

473.

An order for a medication given under direction of research protocols that also require strict documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration

investigational medication order

474.

The director of the pharmacy or buyer directly contacts and negotiates pricing with pharmaceutical manufactures

independent purchasing

475.

The provision of pharmaceutical services within an institutional or hospital setting

hospital pharmacy

476.

Many hospitals working together to negotiate with pharmaceutical manufacturers to get better prices and benefits based upon the ability to promise high committed volumes

group purchasing

477.

A system of drug distribution in which drugs are issue in bulk form and stored in medication rooms on patient care units

floor stock system

478.

The automatic control or operation of equipment, processes, or systems, and often involves robotic machinery controlled by computers

automation

479.

An organization that inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid

480.

An inventory control system in which stock arrives just before it is needed

just-in-time system

481.

The written order for particular medications and services to be provided to a patient within an institutional setting

medication order

482.

An order for a medication to be given in response to a medical emergency

emergency medication order

483.

An organization that oversees hospitals, including the pharmacy department

department of health

484.

An order for medication to be given in rapid response to a specified medical condition

demand/stat medication order

485.

An order for medication that requires monitored documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration

controlled substance medication order

486.

A computerized system in which the physician inputs the dedication order directly for electronic receipt in the pharmacy

computerized physician order entry system

487.

A system of drug distribution in which a nurse supplies the pharmacy with a transcribed medication order for a particular patient and the pharmacy prepares a 3-day supply of the medication

patient prescription system

488.

A system for distributing medication in which the pharmacy prepares single doses of medications for a patient a 24-hour period

unit-dose drug distribution system

489.

A substance that contains no living microorganisms

sterile product

490.

An agency that registers pharmacists and pharmacy technicians

state board of pharmacy

491.

An order for medication that is to be given on a continuous schedule

scheduled medication order

492.

An order for medication given via an infection; these medications are to be prepared in a controlled environment

scheduled intravenous/ total parenteral nutrition solution order

493.

Statement of a series of steps to implement the policies of the department or organization

procedure

494.

An order for medication to be given in response to a specific defined parameter or condition

PRN medication order

495.

A formal document specifying guidelines for operations of an institution

policies and procedures manual

496.

Statement of the definite course or method of action selected to support goals of the overall organization

policy

497.

Policies and procedures to show proper handling of controlled substances

Drug Enforcement Administration

498.

Policies and procedures showing implementation of its guidelines and standards of practice

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

499.

Investigation of drug policies and procedures in hospital pharmacies and drug recall policies and procedures

Food and Drug Administration

500.

Policies and procedures that ensure the health and safety of people in the workplace

Occupational Safety and Health Administration