front 1 Brand Name: Claritin | back 1 Generic Name: loratadine |
front 2 Brand Name: Benadryl | back 2 Generic Name: diphenhydramine |
front 3 Brand Name: Zyrtec | back 3 Generic Name: cetirizine |
front 4 Brand Name: Dramamine | back 4 Generic Name: dimenhydrinate |
front 5 convulsion | back 5 refers to abnormal motor movements |
front 6 stage IV anesthesia | back 6 medullary depression begins |
front 7 stage I anesthesia | back 7 euphoria and amnesia |
front 8 American College of Clinical Pharmacy (ACCP) | back 8 provides resources for clinical pharmacists |
front 9 American Council on Pharmaceutical Education (ACPE) | back 9 national accrediting agency for pharmacy education programs |
front 10 American Pharmacists Association (APhA) | back 10 the largest of all the pharmacy organizations |
front 11 American Associations of College of Pharmacy (AACP) | back 11 represents all 87 pharmacy schools in the United States |
front 12 Brand Name: Gastrisin | back 12 Generic Name: sulfisoxazole |
front 13 Brand Name: Fuzeon | back 13 Generic Name: enfuvirtide |
front 14 Brand Name: Omnipen | back 14 Generic Name: ampicillin |
front 15 Brand Name: Trimox | back 15 Generic Name: amoxicillin |
front 16 Brand Name: Adulfidine | back 16 Generic Name: sulfasalazine |
front 17 Brand Name: Mycostatin | back 17 Generic Name: Nystatin |
front 18 Enfuvirtide is classified as which of the following HIV anitviral agents? | back 18 fusion inhibitor (FI) |
front 19 Which of the following drugs is NOT used for Parkinson's Disease? | back 19 fluoxetine (Prozac) |
front 20 Specialties in the profession of pharmacy include | back 20 drug information |
front 21 The amount of medical knowledge gained is said to double every | back 21 5 years |
front 22 A certified pharmacy technician (CPhT) may | back 22 monitor inventory and repackage medication under pharmacist supervision |
front 23 Which of the following classes of drugs cannot help in achieving the treatment goals for angina pectoris? | back 23 diuretics |
front 24 Good sources for continuing education in the field of pharmacy include | back 24 workshops and seminars offered by pharmacy organizations |
front 25 Chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body are referred to as | back 25 opioids |
front 26 The largest national pharmacy organization is the | back 26 American Pharmacists Association (APhA) |
front 27 Which of the following classes of drugs is used to prevent formation of thrombi? | back 27 anticoagulants |
front 28 An example of loop diuretics is | back 28 furosemide |
front 29 Hypnotic drugs are used to treat | back 29 sleep disorders |
front 30 Which of the following is NOT an antihistamine? | back 30 hydrocodone (Histussin) |
front 31 Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously? | back 31 regular |
front 32 Which organization sets the standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products? | back 32 United States Pharmacopeia (USP) |
front 33 Glucophage is the trade name for | back 33 metformin |
front 34 Which of the following statements about insulin is true? | back 34 Insulin is a hormone |
front 35 Many clerical tasks in pharmacies are now performed by | back 35 pharmacy technicians |
front 36 Which of the following is an example of an "amide" local anesthetic? | back 36 lidocaine |
front 37 An agent used to treat fungal diseases is | back 37 amphotericin B |
front 38 Which of the following is an RNA virus? | back 38 retrovirus |
front 39 Augmentin is the trade name of | back 39 amoxicillin/ clavulanate postassium |
front 40 The percentage of women enrolled in pharmacy schools in the U.S. colleges of pharmacy in 1993 was | back 40 63 percent |
front 41 The core requirements for a 2-year Associate degree for pharmacy technicians include | back 41 terminology |
front 42 Captopril, an antihypertensive, is classified as which of the following? | back 42 angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors |
front 43 Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent | back 43 pregnancy |
front 44 Histamine blockers that affect type 2 receptors are used for | back 44 peptic ulcers |
front 45 An example of a class III antiarrhythmic drug that interferes with potassium outflow is | back 45 amiodarone |
front 46 The initial stimulus for coughing probably arises in the | back 46 bronchial mucosa |
front 47 The pharmacy technician certification must be renewed every | back 47 2 years |
front 48 Which of the following drugs is classified as an antidepressant, and is also used for smoking cessation? | back 48 bupropion |
front 49 The trade name of sertraline is | back 49 Zoloft |
front 50 Which of the following is a disadvantage of most antihistamines? | back 50 sedation |
front 51 The generic name of Prozac is | back 51 fluoxetine |
front 52 Vancomycin is usually given | back 52 intravenously |
front 53 Which of the following is the trade name of amlodipine? | back 53 Norvasc |
front 54 The generic name of Tagamet is | back 54 cimetidine |
front 55 Which of the following is capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but does not necessarily kill bacteria? | back 55 bacteriostat |
front 56 The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipoproteins and lipids in the blood is called | back 56 hyperlipidemia |
front 57 Which of the following are the most potent and effective anti-inflammatory agents? | back 57 corticosteroids |
front 58 Which of the following drugs is NOT a proton pump inhibitor? | back 58 sulfisoxazole |
front 59 Diltiazem, an antianginal drug, is classified as which of the following? | back 59 calcium channel blocker |
front 60 The quality and control unti responsible for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality is sometimes referred to as | back 60 Assay and Control |
front 61 Of the number of required continuing education hours for the CPhT, how many hours must be related to pharmacy law? | back 61 1 hour |
front 62 The generic name of Tofranil is | back 62 imipramine |
front 63 Which of the following is an example of centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants? | back 63 baclofen |
front 64 Which of the following is NOT used to treat asthma? | back 64 lansoprazole (Prevacid) |
front 65 Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) | back 65 federal agency that provides facilities and services for the investigation, identification, prevention, and control of disease |
front 66 Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) | back 66 creates standards for child-resistant packaging |
front 67 Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 | back 67 prohibits the interstate distribution or sale of adulterated and misbranded food and drugs |
front 68 Supplemental Health and Educational Act of 1994 | back 68 placed the burden of proof squarely on FDA in regard to the safeness of dietary supplements |
front 69 Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 | back 69 controls the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances |
front 70 Orphan Drug Act of 1983 | back 70 offers tax breaks for companies to undertake the development and manufacture of drugs for uncommon diseases. |
front 71 administrative law | back 71 the rules and regulations established by agencies of the federal government. |
front 72 criminal law | back 72 governs the relationship of the individual to society as a whole. |
front 73 statutes | back 73 results from action by the legislature |
front 74 slander | back 74 defamatory spoken words |
front 75 negligence | back 75 failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another. |
front 76 What control drug schedule is morphine? | back 76 Schedule II controlled substance |
front 77 Which schedule is the opiate morphine, which may result in severe psychological and physical dependence when abused? | back 77 Schedule II |
front 78 Who creates the standards for child-resistant packaging, as required by the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)? | back 78 Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) |
front 79 The maximum amount of items that may be ordered on DEA Form 222 is | back 79 10 |
front 80 Orphan drugs are used for all of the following disorders or conditions, EXCEPT | back 80 peptic ulcer |
front 81 The "Administrative Simplification" provision of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) consists of | back 81 Electronic Health Transaction Standards and Privacy and Confidentiality Standards |
front 82 An example of an intentional tort is | back 82 battery |
front 83 The study of values or principles governing personal relationships is called | back 83 ethics |
front 84 What regulatory agency is responsible for the approval of drugs, over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription labeling, and standards for drug manufacturing? | back 84 Food and Drug Administration (FDA) |
front 85 Which of the following amendments or acts required manufacturers to register and list their products? | back 85 Medical Device Amendment |
front 86 The branch of the government that is responsible for creating laws is the | back 86 legislative branch |
front 87 Which act prohibits the reimportation of a drug into the United States by anyone but the manufacturer? | back 87 Prescription Drug Marketing Act |
front 88 The Model State Pharmacy Practice Act (MSPPA), which can provide a greater degree of uniformity between states in regards to the practice of pharmacy, was developed by the | back 88 National Associations of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) |
front 89 A pharmacist must be registered with the DEA if he | back 89 owns a pharmacy as a sole proprietor |
front 90 Pharmacies should make a complete and accurate record of all stocks of controlled substances on hand every | back 90 2 years |
front 91 When a controlled substance is stolen or lost from a pharmacy, the nearest DEA office must be notified using which of the following DEA forms? | back 91 106 |
front 92 inventory turnover rate | back 92 mathematical calculation of the number of times the average inventory is replaced over a period of time (usually annually) |
front 93 inventory control | back 93 controlling the amount of product on hand to maximize the return of investment |
front 94 point-of-sale (POS) master | back 94 inventory control system that allows inventory to be tracked as it is used |
front 95 perpetual inventory system | back 95 inventory control system that allows for monthly review of drug use |
front 96 want book | back 96 list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be ordered |
front 97 Repackaged pharmaceuticals that are expired should be | back 97 placed in a separate area until they can be properly disposed of |
front 98 When specific stock reorder points are reached, they trigger the | back 98 computer to automatically reorder |
front 99 The formula of adding the beginning inventory for a period to the ending inventory for a period and dividing by two is for calculating | back 99 average inventory |
front 100 It is important to stock items according to their | back 100 specific storage requirements |
front 101 Inventory of controlled substances must be taken every | back 101 two years |
front 102 What is NOT true concerning the use of a point-of-sale (POS) master? | back 102 It can be used to check for therapeutic duplications in a drug regimen. |
front 103 Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of formulary systems? | back 103 pediatric formulary |
front 104 If controlled substances have been ordered, they should be received into the pharmacy by a | back 104 pharmacist |
front 105 The stock of medications a pharmacy keeps immediately on hand is called a(n) | back 105 inventory |
front 106 Most drug products are received in the pharmacy in | back 106 bulk "stock" bottles |
front 107 A Class III recall is for products that may | back 107 violate FDA labeling or manufacturing |
front 108 Which of the following are used to most easily determine each received item and its associated information? | back 108 bar codes |
front 109 What is true concerning unit-of-use packaging? | back 109 It will allow pharmacists to prepare medications before they are needed |
front 110 An example of a want book would be a | back 110 spiral-bound notebook in which order stickers may be placed |
front 111 The purpose of drug formularies is to | back 111 increase selection of items that may be prescribed |
front 112 A list of articles in stock, with the description and quantity of each, is referred to as a(n) | back 112 inventory |
front 113 Which of the following is the most suitable, flexible, and open-ended system on the market that can be installed in all of the computers in the main pharmacy? | back 113 point-of-sale master |
front 114 Most automated dispensing systems comply with both the | back 114 HIPAA and Joint Commission |
front 115 Bar coding saves | back 115 lives, time and dollars |
front 116 Inventory control is closely associated with the function of | back 116 purchasing |
front 117 The perpetual inventory is a written record of the amount of controlled substances for which of the following drug schedules? | back 117 II |
front 118 A list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be reordered is called a | back 118 want book |
front 119 Which drug recall level may cause serious harm or death? | back 119 Class I |
front 120 What is false about inventory and control systems in pharmacy today? | back 120 Manual systems usually keep a perpetual inventory |
front 121 The real advantage of computerized inventory control systems is | back 121 time saving |
front 122 Which of the following is the simplest and most widely used method of inventory control? | back 122 want book system |
front 123 Which of the following is not a type of inventory management system? | back 123 automated dispensing system |
front 124 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of automated dispensing systems? | back 124 cheaper |
front 125 Expired compounded pharmaceuticals must be | back 125 disposed of |
front 126 What is the purpose of formularies? | back 126 to eliminate duplication |
front 127 The medication master file contains all of the information needed for | back 127 inventory, pricing, and ordering |
front 128 A pharmacy has purchased 550 products over a period of 3 months. If their average inventory was 235 products in a 3-month period, their inventory turnover rate for this period is | back 128 2.34 |
front 129 Which class of drug recalls is considered most dangerous, and may cause serious health problems or death? | back 129 Class I |
front 130 Regarding inventory, an estimated count must be done for which drug schedules? | back 130 III to V |
front 131 For the period of January through June, a pharmacy had a beginning inventory of 312 products and an ending inventory of 336 products. Which of the following is the average inventory for this 6-month period? | back 131 324 |
front 132 pipette | back 132 long, thin, calibrated hollow tube that is made of glass and is used for measuring liquids |
front 133 conical graduate | back 133 device used for measuring liquids that has a wide top and tapers from top to bottom |
front 134 compounding slab | back 134 plate made of ground glass with a hard, flat, and nonabsorbent surface for mixing compounds |
front 135 cylindrical graduate | back 135 device used for measuring liquids that has a narrow diameter |
front 136 pestle | back 136 solid device that is used to crush or grind material in a mortar |
front 137 gel | back 137 suspensions made of either small inorganic particles or large organic molecules interpenetrated by a liquid |
front 138 pastes | back 138 oil-in-water or water-in-oil emulsion characterized by a high content of solids |
front 139 cream | back 139 water-based emulsion in which drugs in powder or crystal form are usually mixed in for topical use |
front 140 suspension | back 140 liquid dosage form that contains solid drug particles floating in a liquid medium |
front 141 solvent | back 141 liquid substance in which another substance is being dissolved |
front 142 The type of mortar and pestle that has the advantage of being nonporous and nonstaining is | back 142 glass |
front 143 When mixing two or more powders, you should | back 143 pulverize them separately to the same particle size |
front 144 Which device is used to shrink bands onto vials? | back 144 heat gun |
front 145 When compounding solutions, the drug should be dissolved in the | back 145 solvent in which it is more soluble |
front 146 When measuring out a liquid, it is good practice to | back 146 select a container that will be half full when measuring, measure a volume that is at least 20% of the capacity of the graduate, and view the measurement by looking at eye level to the surface |
front 147 Class A balances have a sensitivity requirement of | back 147 6 mg |
front 148 Which piece of equipment is designed for mixing and melting substances? | back 148 beaker |
front 149 Which balance is NOT appropriate for prescription compounding? | back 149 counterbalance |
front 150 When compounding a solution, which form of the drug should be used? | back 150 salt form |
front 151 Unlike compounded solutions, suspensions | back 151 have problematic physical stability once compounded |
front 152 The smallest size graduate available is | back 152 5 mL |
front 153 The minimum amount you should measure with a 100 mL graduated cylinder is | back 153 5 mL |
front 154 When measuring out a liquid in a graduate, the upper surface of the liquid is called | back 154 quarter-moon-shaped body and meniscus |
front 155 Which type of base is a water-miscible base often used in vaginal and rectal suppositories? | back 155 glycerinated gelatin |
front 156 An example of a drug that is applied topically but is intended for systemic absorption into the body is | back 156 nitroglycerin |
front 157 Mortars and pestles are usually made of all the following, EXCEPT | back 157 ceramic |
front 158 Which piece of equipment is used to remove seals placed onto vials? | back 158 crimper |
front 159 The maximum amount that can be weighed out with a Class A balance is | back 159 120 g |
front 160 The largest capsule size that should be given orally to patients is | back 160 number 000 |
front 161 A two-pan device that may be used for weighing small amounts of drugs (not more than 120 grams) is called a(n) | back 161 class A prescription balance |
front 162 Balance weights should only be handled with | back 162 forceps |
front 163 Sterility of compounded products can be achieved through the following methods, EXCEPT | back 163 freezing |
front 164 The first step in adding a salt to a syrup is to add | back 164 salt to a few milliliters of water |
front 165 When reconstituting dry powders of parenteral drugs, it is important to know the | back 165 correct diluent |
front 166 Tablet molds are commonly made of | back 166 metal |
front 167 Manufacturing of prescription products for resale to pharmacies is regulated by the | back 167 Food and Drug Administration (FDA) |
front 168 Why are balance weights usually made of a metal such as brass? | back 168 Metal is corrosion resistant. |
front 169 Spatulas are usually made of | back 169 plastic, stainless steel, and hard rubber |
front 170 Which type of base is used most commonly for rectal suppositories? | back 170 cocoa butter |
front 171 Ointments are considered | back 171 oil based in nature and semisolid dosage form |
front 172 Ceclor is what generation of Cephalosporins? | back 172 Second generation |
front 173 The Trade name for Ceftriaxone Sodium is what? | back 173 Rocephin |
front 174 Cefdinir is what generation of Cephalosporins? | back 174 Third Generation |
front 175 Name a first generation Cephalosporin? | back 175 cefadroxil, cefazolin sodium, cephalexin (Generic) Duricel, Ultracef, Ancef, Kefzol, Cefanex, Keflex (Trade) |
front 176 True or False: Maxipime can be given PO | back 176 False: Only IM, IV |
front 177 What are the three types of Tetracyclines? | back 177 Short-acting, intermediate-acting, and long acting |
front 178 What is the generic name for Sumycin? | back 178 tetracycline hydrochoride |
front 179 What is the maximum dose of Declomycin that a patient may have (in milligrams) and which type does it belong to? | back 179 2400 mg, intermediate-acting |
front 180 triglycerides | back 180 a simple fat compound consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol |
front 181 nutrition | back 181 The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and use for proper body functioning and maintenance of health |
front 182 cholesterol | back 182 A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues; a member of a group of lipids called "sterols." |
front 183 protein | back 183 the only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen |
front 184 cyanocobalamin | back 184 A water-soluble vitamin that is the common pharmaceutical form of vitamin B12 |
front 185 vitamin | back 185 an organic substance necessary for life although it does not independently provide energy |
front 186 phospholipid | back 186 a phosphorous-containing liquid |
front 187 mineral | back 187 an inorganic substance occurring naturally in the earth's crust |
front 188 iron | back 188 a common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin |
front 189 carbohydrate | back 189 the nutrient providing the main source of energy in the average diet |
front 190 electrolyte | back 190 compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water |
front 191 vitamin B3 | back 191 also called niacin |
front 192 vitamin B6 | back 192 also called pyridoxine |
front 193 vitamin D | back 193 also called calciferol |
front 194 vitamin B1 | back 194 also called thiamin |
front 195 Vitamin B12 | back 195 also called cyanocobalamin |
front 196 vitamin A | back 196 also called retinol |
front 197 vitamin B9 | back 197 also called folacin |
front 198 vitamin E | back 198 also called tocopherol |
front 199 vitamin K1 | back 199 also called phylloquionone |
front 200 Amino acids that must be derived from dietary sources and cannot be synthesized by the body are called | back 200 essential amino acids |
front 201 Copper accumulation in the liver may cause | back 201 Wilson's disease |
front 202 Which vitamin is important for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus? | back 202 Vitamin D |
front 203 Factors that may result in a drug interaction include the following, EXCEPT | back 203 pharmacy intervention |
front 204 Which vitamin is given to patients with hemorrhage disorders? | back 204 Vitamin K |
front 205 Vitamin B1 is also called | back 205 thiamin |
front 206 Which of the following drugs may cause peripheral neuritis in some patients? | back 206 isoniazid |
front 207 Which of the following statements about calcium is false? | back 207 It is required for the elimination of urine |
front 208 Protein is needed for the formation of | back 208 enzymes, antibodies and hormones |
front 209 Which vitamins are least likely to cause adverse effects when taken in overdose? | back 209 Vitamin B complex |
front 210 LDL (low-density lipoproteins) levels can be decreased by | back 210 exercise and decreased dietary intake of cholesterol |
front 211 Which of the following nutrients provides the most energy for the body? | back 211 fats |
front 212 Which nutrient provides the most concentrated source of calories (9 kcal per gram)? | back 212 lipids |
front 213 Which of the following drugs may be given concurrently with grapefruit? | back 213 acetaminophen |
front 214 Concurrent use of alcoholic beverages and sedatives may result in | back 214 excessive CNS depression |
front 215 It is recommended to limit fat intake to what percentage of total calories consumed? | back 215 30 percent |
front 216 Proteins are complex nitrogenous compounds that are composed of large combinations of | back 216 amino acids |
front 217 Any patient taking a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor (an antidepressant) should avoid all of the following foods or beverages, EXCEPT | back 217 diet Coke |
front 218 Current dietary goals in the United States recommend that carbohydrates constitute what percentage of total calories consumed? | back 218 55 to 60 percent |
front 219 The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from the body to the liver for metabolism, considered the 'good cholesterol," is | back 219 HDL (high-density lipoproteins |
front 220 Excessive consumption of carbohydrates may lead to | back 220 obesity |
front 221 Carbidopa is often prescribed in combination with levodopa in patients with Parkinson's Disease. The addition of carbidopa decreases the amount of levodopa needed to have an effect, but it does not have a beneficial effect in these patients if given alone. This is an example of | back 221 Potentiation |
front 222 The Food Guide Pyramid is scheduled to undergo changes by the USDA due to | back 222 epidemic numbers of overweight people in the United States |
front 223 Vegetables such as broccoli and cabbage may inactivate | back 223 warfarin |
front 224 Synergism refers to the effect of two or more drugs causing | back 224 a stronger effect |
front 225 A chronic disease that develops over years as a result of a deficiency in total caloric intake is called | back 225 marasmus |
front 226 Chronic use of alcoholic beverages may interact with the drug phenytoin by | back 226 increasing liver enzyme activity |
front 227 Which vitamin in certain green leafy vegetables interacts with warfarin? | back 227 Vitamin K |
front 228 Garlic is an herb used for lowering cholesterol and modestly lowering blood pressure. Which types of drugs would you caution patients about taking concurrently with garlic? | back 228 antihypertensives |
front 229 Iodine is an essential micronutrient for which of the following hormones? | back 229 thyroxine |
front 230 Which of the following increases the drug metabolizing enzymes of the liver? | back 230 smoking |
front 231 How many amino acids have been identified as vital for proper growth, development, and maintenance of health? | back 231 22 |
front 232 Which nonprescription drug interacts with warfarin? | back 232 aspirin (Bayer) |
front 233 Carbohydrates that are not immediately used by the body are stored as | back 233 glycogen |
front 234 The recommended daily requirement of protein is | back 234 0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight |
front 235 Which vitamin is converted from cholesterol in the skin by ultraviolet light? | back 235 Vitamin D |
front 236 Hypermagnesemia is usually caused by | back 236 renal insufficiency |
front 237 What patient variables may predispose a patient to drug interactions? | back 237 age |
front 238 Good cholesterol is known as | back 238 HDL |
front 239 The antibiotic ciprofloxacin may have decreased absorption when taken with | back 239 magnesium- and aluminum-containing antacids |
front 240 In the future, the number of acute beds relative to beds in long-term care will | back 240 decrease |
front 241 Long-term care facilities require pharmacy services to be available | back 241 24 hours a day |
front 242 What functions do pharmacists provide for long-term care? | back 242 distribution and consultation |
front 243 The role of pharmacists in long-term care has been shown to | back 243 decrease overall medication costs |
front 244 The growth of home health care depends on | back 244 physician acceptance, increase in the number of elderly patients, and improvement of technology |
front 245 Several types of home health care services that are available include the following, EXCEPT | back 245 interventional radiology |
front 246 The largest payer of home health care services is | back 246 Medicare |
front 247 High-tech home health care requires close collaboration between the pharmacy and | back 247 physicians, registered nurses, and medical supply companies |
front 248 Drugs added to IV solutions suffer degradation from the effects of | back 248 storage conditions |
front 249 The equipment typically found in a home infusion pharmacy includes a(n) | back 249 laminar airflow hoods |
front 250 Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) consists of | back 250 amino acids and dextrose |
front 251 Which of the following is correct about total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? | back 251 A safe and effective mixing order is required |
front 252 For short-term enteral nutrition therapy, which type of feeding tube is used? | back 252 nasogastric tube |
front 253 Ambulatory care centers now provide | back 253 endoscopy |
front 254 In ambulatory pharmacy services, clinical services should be available | back 254 80 to 90% of the time |
front 255 One of the fastest growing areas of pharmacy is | back 255 mail-order pharmacies |
front 256 The latest and most penetrating type of radiation is | back 256 gamma |
front 257 Which compound is used in about 80% of radioactive drugs? | back 257 technetium-99m |
front 258 Which is true about radiopharmaceuticals? | back 258 They require a receipt of a valid prescription or drug order |
front 259 In hospice care, physicians must certify that the life expectancy of the patient is within | back 259 6 months |
front 260 How are radiopharmaceuticals usually transported throughout an institution? | back 260 lead-lined containers |
front 261 Special badges that monitor radiation level exposure (worn by workers in nuclear pharmacies) are required to be monitored | back 261 monthly |
front 262 A modified unit-dose system features a single medication in each blister on cards that can hold between | back 262 30 and 90 blisters |
front 263 Which of the following is not a type of home health care service? | back 263 radiopharmaceutical compounding |
front 264 Which of the following statements about radioactive components is true? | back 264 They have short half lives. |
front 265 Which of the following is NOT considered a type of radiation? | back 265 delta |
front 266 An Internet pharmacy charges a patient a co-pay amount via the patient's | back 266 credit card |
front 267 Which of the following is a disadvantage of mail-order pharmacy? | back 267 accessibility in emergencies |
front 268 Nasogastric feeding tubes carry nutrients into the | back 268 stomach |
front 269 The major source of payment for home care is | back 269 Medicare |
front 270 A group of medications that is provided to a hospice patient by the hospice pharmacy to provide a "start" in treatment for the majority of urgent problems is a(n) | back 270 starter kit or comfort pack |
front 271 Medications that are required on a continous basis for the treatment of chronic conditions are called | back 271 maintenance drugs |
front 272 Vials containing the particular radiopharmaceutical compounds, usually in freeze-dried form are | back 272 reagent kits |
front 273 An intravenous feeding that supplies all the nutrients necessary for life is | back 273 Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) |
front 274 What part of the radiopharmaceutical process involves performing the appropriate chemical, physical, and biological tests to ensure the suitability of the products to be used in humans? | back 274 Quality assurance |
front 275 Pharmacists perform two types of functions for long-term care. What are they? | back 275 Distribution and consultant |
front 276 What are the four types of Lipid Lowering Drugs? | back 276 Bile Acid Sequestrants, Fibric Acid Sequestrants, Niacin, and Statins |
front 277 What is one Trade Name for Lovastatin? | back 277 Mevacor |
front 278 Furosemide is what kind of diuretic? | back 278 Loop diuretic |
front 279 Should a patient be taking a Potassium Supplement if they are on Edecrin? | back 279 Yes |
front 280 Name a Potassium Sparing Diuretic? | back 280 Aldactone |
front 281 Hygroton is what type of diuretic? | back 281 Thiazide Diuretic |
front 282 The patient is hyperkalemic. What is the name of one diuretic that the physician could consider? | back 282 spironolactone |
front 283 Hospital pharmacies leadership position is usually titled | back 283 Pharmacy Director |
front 284 The medication order in a hospital must contain | back 284 patient's known drug allergies |
front 285 The medication dispensing system that is considered the safest and most effective is the | back 285 unit-dose drug distribution system |
front 286 In the hospital setting, all medications are ordered by the physician through | back 286 medication orders |
front 287 The disadvantages of the floor stock system include | back 287 potential for medication errors |
front 288 Common features of the unit dose system of drug distribution include the following, EXCEPT | back 288 bulk bottles can be used for more than one patient |
front 289 Which type of drug product is not required to be sterile prior to administration? | back 289 sublingual tablets |
front 290 A system of purchasing in which the hospital establishes a relationship with a single wholesaler in order to obtain more competitive pricing is | back 290 prime vendor purchasing |
front 291 The target for inventory turnover rate is | back 291 10 to 12 times per year |
front 292 The automated processing of medication orders also results in | back 292 generation of patient profiles, medication labels being produced, and medication administration records being produced |
front 293 With a 24-hour medication cart exchange system, the final check is usually done by a | back 293 pharmacist |
front 294 Roles for pharmacy technicians in the hospital include | back 294 setting up unit doses |
front 295 Policies and Procedure Manuals should be revised at least | back 295 yearly |
front 296 The organization that requires policies and procedures to guide the pharmacy department in providing safe, effective, and cost-effective drug therapy is the | back 296 Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) |
front 297 The agency that inspects and approves hospitals to provide care for Medicaid patients is | back 297 Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) |
front 298 The practice of hospital pharmacy begins with the | back 298 medication order |
front 299 The sterile product is usually associated with drugs that are administered by | back 299 injection or via the ophthalmic route |
front 300 The primary disadvantage of wholesaler purchasing is | back 300 higher costs of pharmaceuticals |
front 301 Which of the following statements is false about automation? | back 301 It issues recertification |
front 302 Which of the following devices is able to fill each patient medication tray in the cart? | back 302 robotics |
front 303 Failure to understand how the billing process works will cause errors in all of the following, EXCEPT | back 303 inventory |
front 304 Which of the following is a quasi-legal organization that has defined a standard of practice for pharmacy departments with certain policies and procedures having a defined content? | back 304 American Society of Health-System Pharmacists |
front 305 Which of the following groups of health care professionals are not employees of a hospital? | back 305 physicians |
front 306 When multiple hospitals negotiate volume purchases together, this is called | back 306 group purchasing |
front 307 In the hospital pharmacy who determines which medications will be purchased and maintained in stock? | back 307 Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee |
front 308 What eliminates the "middle man" and handling fees but requires a significant commitment of time, larger inventories, and more storage space? | back 308 Direct purchasing |
front 309 Which organization inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services? | back 309 CMS |
front 310 The leadership position in hospital pharmacies is usually titled | back 310 Director of pharmacy |
front 311 oral PRN medication order | back 311 Tylenol 650 mg PO Q8H as needed |
front 312 scheduled oral medication order | back 312 Levaquin 500 mg PO Q24H |
front 313 scheduled IV medication order | back 313 Enalapril 5 mg IV Q6H |
front 314 Medications given under the direction of a research protocol are called | back 314 investigational medication order |
front 315 person who dispenses and counsels patients | back 315 pharmacist |
front 316 Person who assists the pharmacist by filling prescriptions and performing other nonjudgmental tasks | back 316 pharmacy technician |
front 317 A group that requires specialized education and intellectual knowledge | back 317 profession |
front 318 The art and science of dispensing and preparing medications and providing drug-related information to the public | back 318 pharmacy |
front 319 A group with the responsibility for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality | back 319 assay and control |
front 320 United States Pharmacopeia | back 320 USP |
front 321 National Pharmacy Technician Association | back 321 NPTA |
front 322 Pharmacy Technician Certification Board | back 322 PTCB |
front 323 Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam | back 323 PTCE |
front 324 American Society of Health-System Pharmacists | back 324 ASHP |
front 325 American Association of Pharmacy Technicians | back 325 AAPT |
front 326 American Pharmacists Association | back 326 APhA |
front 327 The PTCB exam is a standardized national exam for certification to become a | back 327 pharmacy technician |
front 328 What is a nonprofit organization that sets standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products? | back 328 United States Pharmacopeia |
front 329 A profession is characterized by | back 329 provision of a unique service to society, a code of ethics, and a specialized body of knowledge based on advanced education, which continues to expand throughout a person's career |
front 330 According to the AACP, a Pharm D degree requires how many years of undergraduate study followed by 4 years of graduate study? | back 330 2 years |
front 331 The role of the pharmacy technician has been expanding in recent years, and the number of pharmacy technicians has | back 331 increased |
front 332 The skills of the pharmacy technician measured by the PTCB exam are | back 332 assisting the pharmacist in serving patients, maintaining medication and inventory control systemss, and participating in the administration and management of the pharmacy |
front 333 What is the continuing education requirements? | back 333 20 hours of pharmacy-related continuing education and one hour must be in pharmacy law |
front 334 The association that established a Code of Ethics for Pharmacy Technicians was | back 334 AAPT |
front 335 the branch of philosophy that deals with the distinction between right and wrong and with the moral consequences of human actions | back 335 ethics |
front 336 a principle or rule that is advisable or obligatory to observe | back 336 law |
front 337 fraudulent labeling or marking | back 337 misbranding |
front 338 a drug that is developed for small populations of people in need of the drug | back 338 orphan drug |
front 339 rules and regulations resulting from court decisions | back 339 judicial law |
front 340 a violation of the law | back 340 crime |
front 341 a serious crime, such as murder, kidnapping, assault, or rape, that is punishable by imprisonment for more than one year | back 341 felony |
front 342 a less serious crime, punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than 1 year | back 342 misdemeanor |
front 343 a discipline dealing with the ethical and moral implications of formulary biological research and applications | back 343 bioethics |
front 344 a database of officially recognized drug names | back 344 national formulary |
front 345 a uniquie and permanent product code assigned to each new drug as it becomes available in the marketplace; it identifies the manufacturer or distributor, the drug formulation, and the size and type of its packaging | back 345 NDC |
front 346 Created the National Drug Code | back 346 Drug Listing Act of 1972 |
front 347 Established five classes of narcotics | back 347 Controlled Substance Act of 1970 |
front 348 This act created FDA | back 348 Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 |
front 349 Created prescription requirements | back 349 Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 |
front 350 Reflects an essential change of direction for drug abuse control | back 350 Anabolic Steroids Control Act of 1990 |
front 351 Requires that legend drugs must be in child-resistant containers | back 351 Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 |
front 352 Requires pharmacists to offer to counsel patients | back 352 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 |
front 353 Requires that drug products, both prescription and nonprescription, must be effective and safe | back 353 Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 |
front 354 Pertains to a patient's right to privacy | back 354 HIPAA-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act |
front 355 Pertains to safety in the workplace | back 355 OSHA-Occupational Safety and Health Administration |
front 356 The laws relevant to the practice of pharmacy may come from different sources. An example is | back 356 FDA |
front 357 Civil law governs pharmacists who do not act in a professional manner with their customers, including areas such as | back 357 libel, slander, violation of privacy, and unintentional bodily injury |
front 358 Ethics are based on | back 358 morals |
front 359 The FDA regulates all drugs with the exception of | back 359 illegal drugs |
front 360 Regulatory agencies are government-based departments that create specific rules about what is and is not ______ within a specific field or area of expertise? | back 360 legal |
front 361 Violations against the government or the state are governed by | back 361 criminal law |
front 362 What is considered the most serious type of crime against the government? | back 362 Treason |
front 363 The failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another is | back 363 negligence |
front 364 Pharmacy laws of different states are different, but they are based on the same | back 364 principles, objectives, and goals of pharmaceutical practice |
front 365 What agents have a high potential for abuse, but they are currently accepted for medical use in the United States? | back 365 Schedule II |
front 366 What agents have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotic drugs? | back 366 Schedule V |
front 367 narcotic alkaloids found in opium | back 367 opiates |
front 368 drugs that block neuromuscular transmission at the neuromuscular junction; they cause paralysis of specific skeletal muscles | back 368 neuromuscular blocking agents |
front 369 a temporary, abnormal electrical brain condition that results in abnorma neuronal activity; it can affect mental ability and cause convulsions | back 369 seizure |
front 370 a handheld pressurized device used to deliver medications for inhalation | back 370 metered-dosee inhaler |
front 371 a drug that induces sleep; often used to treat insomnia and in surgical anesthesia | back 371 hypnotic |
front 372 a trance-like state that resembles sleep that is induced by the suggestions of one person upon another who accepts them as effective | back 372 hypnosis |
front 373 a positively charged atom | back 373 cation |
front 374 also known as "spasmolytics," these agents alleviate musculoskeletal pain and spasms to reduce spasticity | back 374 centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants |
front 375 an intense, involuntary muscle contraction or spasm, as is commonly seen during a seizure condition | back 375 convulsion |
front 376 the most potent and consistently effective anti-inflammatory agents that are currently available for relief of respiratory conditions | back 376 corticosteroids |
front 377 chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body; commonly used for pain relief | back 377 opioids |
front 378 a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that usually impairs motor skills, speech, and other functions | back 378 Parkinson's Disease |
front 379 the use of a sedative agent to reduce excitement, nervousness, or irritation; commonly prior to a medical procedure | back 379 sedation |
front 380 substances that suppress the central nervous system, and induce calmness, relaxation, drowsiness, or sleep | back 380 sedatives |
front 381 Condition that describes chest pain, lack of blood and oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually because of vessel obstruction or spasm | back 381 angina pectoris |
front 382 Therapeutic agents that slow or stop the growth of microorganisms | back 382 antibiotics |
front 383 Drugs that counteract the action of histamine | back 383 antihistamines |
front 384 A physiological state consisting of fear, apprehension, or worry | back 384 anxiety |
front 385 Agents that relax the smooth muscle of the bronchial tubes | back 385 bronchodilators |
front 386 Capable of killing bacteria. This term is typically used in reference to antiseptics, disinfections, or antibiotics | back 386 bactericidal |
front 387 Various conditions of abnormal electrical heart activity; the heart may beat too fast, too slow, or irregularly | back 387 arrhythmias |
front 388 A drug that reduces coughing, also called a "cough suppressant" | back 388 antitussive |
front 389 Capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria | back 389 bacteriostatic |
front 390 A device used to deliver medication in the form of micronized powder into the lungs | back 390 dry powder inhaler |
front 391 chemical messengers that move through the blood or through cells that carry signals | back 391 hormones |
front 392 The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipids or lipoproteins in the blood | back 392 hyperlipidemia |
front 393 High blood pressure | back 393 hypertension |
front 394 Narcotic analgesics are | back 394 referred to as opioids |
front 395 Hypertension | back 395 is treated by using diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, as well as other drugs. |
front 396 Heart arrhythmias occur because of | back 396 improper impulse generation and improper conduction |
front 397 Invading microorganisms include | back 397 viruses, bacteria and fungi |
front 398 Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent | back 398 pregnancy |
front 399 Semisynthetic antibiotics structurally and pharmacologically related to penicillins are | back 399 cephalosporins |
front 400 Fluoroquinolones are related to | back 400 nalidixic acid |
front 401 DNA viruses include | back 401 herpes simplex 1 and 2, varicella-zoster, and influenza A |
front 402 commonly used devices for inhalation include | back 402 metered-dose inhaler, dry powder, and nebulizers |
front 403 Carbamazepine is the generic name for | back 403 Tegretol |
front 404 An alkali metal element that helps regulate neuromuscular excitability and muscle contraction | back 404 potassium |
front 405 The only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen | back 405 protein |
front 406 A fat-soluble vitamin essential for skeletal growth, maintenance of normal mucosal epithelium, reproduction, and visual acuity | back 406 retinol |
front 407 Any of several organic acids produced by the hydrolysis of neutral fats | back 407 fatty acids |
front 408 Fats | back 408 lipids |
front 409 A disease caused by extreme lack of protein | back 409 kwashiorkor |
front 410 A common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin | back 410 iron |
front 411 An essential micronutrient of the thyroid hormone | back 411 iodine |
front 412 A water-soluble vitamin essential for cell growth and the reproduction of red blood cells | back 412 folic acid |
front 413 Any substance that becomes part of a food product | back 413 food additive |
front 414 A substance that prevents tooth decay and protects against osteoporosis and gum disease | back 414 fluoride |
front 415 A nonmetallic chemical element occurring extensively in nature as a component of phosphate rock | back 415 phosphorus |
front 416 A phosporus-containing lipid | back 416 phospholipid |
front 417 The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and used for proper body functioning and maintenance of health | back 417 nutrition |
front 418 A chemical substance found in food that is necessary for good health | back 418 nutrient |
front 419 A part of two enzymes that regulate energy metabolism | back 419 niacin |
front 420 Inorganic substances occurring naturally in the earth's crust, having a characteristic chemical composition | back 420 minerals |
front 421 A water-soluble, injectable form of the product of vitamin K3 | back 421 menadione |
front 422 Severe wasting caused by lack of protein and all nutrients or faulty absorption | back 422 marasmus |
front 423 A silver-white mineral element; the second most abundant cation of the intracellular fluids in the body and is essential for many enzyme activities | back 423 magnesium |
front 424 A system of nourishing through breathing | back 424 pharma food |
front 425 Substances composed of lipids or fatty acids and occurring in various forms | back 425 fats |
front 426 Compounds that dissociate into ions when dissolved in water | back 426 electrolytes |
front 427 A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin | back 427 ascorbic acid |
front 428 A water-soluble B complex vitamin that acts as a coenzyme in fatty acid production and in the oxidation of fatty acids and carbohydrates | back 428 biotin |
front 429 A metallic element that is a component of several important enzymes in the body and is essential to good health | back 429 copper |
front 430 A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues | back 430 cholesterol |
front 431 An anion of chlorine | back 431 chloride |
front 432 An alkaline earth metal element | back 432 calcium |
front 433 A fat-soluble vitamin chemically related to the steroids and essential for the normal formation of bones and teeth | back 433 calciferol |
front 434 Natural fats consist of what percentage of triglycerides or triacylglycerols? | back 434 95% |
front 435 A fat-soluble vitamin essential for normal reproduction, muscle development, resistance of erythrocytes to hemolysis, and various other biochemical functions. | back 435 Tocopherol |
front 436 A water-soluble, crystalline compound of the B complex, essential for normal metabolism and health of the cardiovascular and nervous systems is | back 436 vitamin B1 or thiamin |
front 437 Simple fat compounds consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol is | back 437 triglycerides |
front 438 A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin is | back 438 vitamin C |
front 439 Vitamin K is also called | back 439 quinones |
front 440 Life expectancy in the United States is | back 440 increasing |
front 441 Good fats are known as | back 441 HDL |
front 442 Zinc deficiency is characterized by | back 442 abnormal fatigue, decreased alertness, and a decrease in taste and odor sensitivity |
front 443 Enteral tube feedings are containdicated in patients with the following: | back 443 diffused peritonits, severe diarrhea, and intractable vomiting |
front 444 A system of enzymes that contributes to drug interactions | back 444 cytochrome P-450 |
front 445 The cooperative effect of two or more drugs given together to produce a stronger effect than that of either drug given alone | back 445 synergism |
front 446 When two drugs act to decrease the effects of each other | back 446 antagonism |
front 447 An interference of a drug with the effect of another drug, nutrient, or laboratory test | back 447 drug interaction |
front 448 One drug prolongs the effects of another drug | back 448 potentiation |
front 449 Surgical patients commonly receive more than | back 449 10 drugs |
front 450 When two drugs with similar actions are taken, the effect of the drugs will | back 450 double |
front 451 What agents are most often abused? | back 451 Opioids, barbiturates, and analgesics |
front 452 Smoking increases the activity of drug-metabolizing enzymes in the | back 452 liver |
front 453 The pharmacist has a valuable opportunity to make a significant contribution to further enhance the | back 453 efficacy of drug therapy and safety of drug therapy |
front 454 The process of entering a physician's order into a computer | back 454 transcription |
front 455 Zeros that follow decimal points | back 455 trailing zeros |
front 456 Charts used to measure a patient's pain intensity level | back 456 pain scales |
front 457 The failure to do something that a reasonable person might do, or doing something that a reasonable person might not do | back 457 negligence |
front 458 Negligence performed by a professional, such as a pharmacist, or a pharmacist-supervised technician | back 458 malpractice |
front 459 Zeros that precede decimal points | back 459 leading zeros |
front 460 A localized mass of blood outside of the blood vessels that appears to be discolored | back 460 hematoma |
front 461 Having to do with the examination and treatment of patients | back 461 clinical |
front 462 Agents that give immunity to diseases or living organisms | back 462 biologics |
front 463 According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, approximately how many Americans die each year as a result of medical errors? | back 463 98,000 |
front 464 Deaths in U.S. hospitals due to medical errors are more than deaths from motor vehicle accidents, breast cancer and AIDS? What does this number exceed? | back 464 44,000 |
front 465 According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, which medications have the "highest alert" concerning medication errors? | back 465 Insulin and heparin, narcotics and opiates, and potassium chloride injections |
front 466 Fatigue has many effects that can allow medication errors to occur. They include: | back 466 slowed reaction times, reduced accuracy, and inability to recognize changes in the patient |
front 467 The term "every other day" is abbreviated: | back 467 QOD |
front 468 The term "right eye" is abbreviated: | back 468 OD |
front 469 Penalties concerning negligence or malpractice may include: | back 469 restriction on practice and fines, suspension of ability to practice and jail sentences, and revocation of ability to practice |
front 470 A pharmacist who fails to perform a prospective drug regimen review, gives incorrect advice, or doesn't warn a patient about potential adverse effects is guilty of | back 470 malpractice |
front 471 The Joint Commission requires organizations to prove that their personnel are: | back 471 competent |
front 472 An organization that surveys and accredits health care organizations | back 472 The Joint Commission |
front 473 An order for a medication given under direction of research protocols that also require strict documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration | back 473 investigational medication order |
front 474 The director of the pharmacy or buyer directly contacts and negotiates pricing with pharmaceutical manufactures | back 474 independent purchasing |
front 475 The provision of pharmaceutical services within an institutional or hospital setting | back 475 hospital pharmacy |
front 476 Many hospitals working together to negotiate with pharmaceutical manufacturers to get better prices and benefits based upon the ability to promise high committed volumes | back 476 group purchasing |
front 477 A system of drug distribution in which drugs are issue in bulk form and stored in medication rooms on patient care units | back 477 floor stock system |
front 478 The automatic control or operation of equipment, processes, or systems, and often involves robotic machinery controlled by computers | back 478 automation |
front 479 An organization that inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services | back 479 Centers for Medicare & Medicaid |
front 480 An inventory control system in which stock arrives just before it is needed | back 480 just-in-time system |
front 481 The written order for particular medications and services to be provided to a patient within an institutional setting | back 481 medication order |
front 482 An order for a medication to be given in response to a medical emergency | back 482 emergency medication order |
front 483 An organization that oversees hospitals, including the pharmacy department | back 483 department of health |
front 484 An order for medication to be given in rapid response to a specified medical condition | back 484 demand/stat medication order |
front 485 An order for medication that requires monitored documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration | back 485 controlled substance medication order |
front 486 A computerized system in which the physician inputs the dedication order directly for electronic receipt in the pharmacy | back 486 computerized physician order entry system |
front 487 A system of drug distribution in which a nurse supplies the pharmacy with a transcribed medication order for a particular patient and the pharmacy prepares a 3-day supply of the medication | back 487 patient prescription system |
front 488 A system for distributing medication in which the pharmacy prepares single doses of medications for a patient a 24-hour period | back 488 unit-dose drug distribution system |
front 489 A substance that contains no living microorganisms | back 489 sterile product |
front 490 An agency that registers pharmacists and pharmacy technicians | back 490 state board of pharmacy |
front 491 An order for medication that is to be given on a continuous schedule | back 491 scheduled medication order |
front 492 An order for medication given via an infection; these medications are to be prepared in a controlled environment | back 492 scheduled intravenous/ total parenteral nutrition solution order |
front 493 Statement of a series of steps to implement the policies of the department or organization | back 493 procedure |
front 494 An order for medication to be given in response to a specific defined parameter or condition | back 494 PRN medication order |
front 495 A formal document specifying guidelines for operations of an institution | back 495 policies and procedures manual |
front 496 Statement of the definite course or method of action selected to support goals of the overall organization | back 496 policy |
front 497 Policies and procedures to show proper handling of controlled substances | back 497 Drug Enforcement Administration |
front 498 Policies and procedures showing implementation of its guidelines and standards of practice | back 498 American Society of Health-System Pharmacists |
front 499 Investigation of drug policies and procedures in hospital pharmacies and drug recall policies and procedures | back 499 Food and Drug Administration |
front 500 Policies and procedures that ensure the health and safety of people in the workplace | back 500 Occupational Safety and Health Administration |