front 1 Your patient's red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by what? | back 1 -Gender difference -Situational variation - Illness |
front 2 All of data that you need to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to be considered? | back 2 The problem and its definition The etiology of the problem The defining characteristics or risk factors of the problem |
front 3 Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to..... Select all that apply | back 3 Decreased urinary output Increased sodium retention Increased blood pressure |
front 4 Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to..... (Select all that apply) | back 4 -Cardiovascular disease -Depression -Impaired cognitive function -Autoimmune disease |
front 5 Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms. (Select all that apply) | back 5 - Producing exotoxin - Producing endotoxins - Producing destructive enzymes - Evoking an immune reaction |
front 6 Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways? ( Select all that apply) | back 6 -Enter the host cell -use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate -and do not produce toxins |
front 7 Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene | back 7 occurs at an earlier age |
front 8 Side effects of chemotherapy include.... (select all that apply) | back 8 -Anemia -Nausea -Bleeding -Infections -Bone marrow suppression |
front 9 Which viruses are associated with human cancers? ( select all that apply) | back 9 -HPV -HBV -HCV -HIV |
front 10 RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent.... WHAT | back 10 RH incompatibility in a future pregnancy |
front 11 The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is | back 11 IgE |
front 12 Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by which of the following? (select all that apply) | back 12 Surgery High blood sugar Corticosteroids Low protein level |
front 13 What Diseases are due to type IV hypersensitivity? ( select all that apply) | back 13 Leprosy Tuberculosis Herpes simplex infection |
front 14 Which form of leukemia demonstrate the presence of Philadelphia chromosome? | back 14 CML ( chronic myeloid leukemia) |
front 15 Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with... WHAT ? | back 15 -Epstein - Barr virus |
front 16 CML symptom's | back 16 Fatigue Weight loss Bleeding Abdominal discomfort Sweats |
front 17 Which clinical findings describe the typical presentation of ALL ? (select all that apply) | back 17 -Pain in long bone -Infection -Fever -Bruising |
front 18 A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristics of which type of anemia ? | back 18 Iron deficiency |
front 19 The cause of the most common form of anemia is what ??? | back 19 Iron deficiency anemia |
front 20 Anemia related to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is characterized by what laboratory features? All that apply | back 20 - RBC count of 500,000-750,000 cells/mm3 - WBC count of 4000-5000 cells/mm3 |
front 21 Regarding iron deficiency anemia, what laboratory features are typically decreased? (select all that apply) | back 21 -MCV - MCH - MCHC |
front 22 The final step in clot formation is.... what? | back 22 Fibrinogen to fibrin |
front 23 Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by... what? | back 23 Tissue thromboplastin |
front 24 The megakaryocyte is a precursor to.... what? | back 24 Platelets |
front 25 Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to do what ?? | back 25 Inhibit clotting factor consumption |
front 26 A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs.. what? | back 26 Platelet adhesion to injured tissue |
front 27 What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators? ( select all that apply) | back 27 -Factor XII -HMWK - Kallikrein - Thrombin |
front 28 Diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem? (select all that apply) | back 28 -urinary retention - renal failure - cirrhosis -systemic lupus erythematosus - ovarian cancer |
front 29 Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation? | back 29 Thrombocytopenia |
front 30 Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome? | back 30 Absent peripheral pulse |
front 31 The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency. ( select all that apply) | back 31 - Aching and cramping in the affected area - relief with elevation to the area - relief with ambulation |
front 32 High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases what?? | back 32 Afterload |
front 33 High blood pressure increases the risk of which conditions? | back 33 - Stroke - renal disease -ischemic disease |
front 34 Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for which of the following problems? ( select all that apply) | back 34 -ischemic stroke - retinal injury - renal impairment |
front 35 Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for which conditions? ( select all that apply) | back 35 - stroke - cognitive impairment - death |
front 36 Primary treatment for myocardial infarction is directed at | back 36 decreasing myocardial oxygen demands |
front 37 Patient's presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with: | back 37 Antiplatelet drugs |
front 38 Aortic regurgitation is associated with | back 38 Diastolic murmur |
front 39 Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called ____ angina | back 39 Prinz metal variant |
front 40 Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to: | back 40 Rupture |
front 41 Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present with which manifestations? ( select all that apply) | back 41 -Unstable angina -MI -Sudden cardiac arrest |
front 42 Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include which of the following? (select all that apply) | back 42 -Electrocardiogram -Cardiac catheterization -Echocardiography -Radionuclide scintigraphy |
front 43 First degree heart block is characterized by... what? | back 43 Prolonged PR interval |
front 44 A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) This pt is most likely described as an .... what? | back 44 elderly woman without history of MI |
front 45 The most common causes of heart failure include which of the following? ( select all that apply) | back 45 Coronary heart disease Heart attack |
front 46 A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms? (select all that apply) | back 46 Pulse of more than 100 bpm Fast and deep respirations |
front 47 Anaphylactic shock signs and symptoms in a patient? (select all that apply ) | back 47 Hypotension Urticaria Angioedema Wheezing |
front 48 Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram positive organisms that enter the body through which body systems? (select all that apply) | back 48 Genitourinary tract Gastrointestinal tract Respiratory tract Skin |
front 49 Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries because of ... what? | back 49 Release of proteolytic enzymes from immature cells |
front 50 Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of what??? | back 50 Increased pulmonary vascular resistance |
front 51 Cystic fibrosis is associated with what?? | back 51 Bronchiectasis |
front 52 Croup is characterized by... what ?? | back 52 Barking cough Hoarseness Stridor Difficulty breathing |
front 53 COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes... ? | back 53 Air trapping |
front 54 Characteristics of asthma? (select all that apply) | back 54 Edema Airway inflammation Collagen deposits |
front 55 The hallmark manifestations of acute respiratory distress syndrome is .... what ? | back 55 Hypoxemia |
front 56 Empyema is defined as an... what ? | back 56 Infection in the pleural space |
front 57 A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is... what? | back 57 Noncompliance to medication regimen |
front 58 Bacteria pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by... what? | back 58 Cardiogenetic pulmonary edema |
front 59 A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is... what? | back 59 Dry cough |
front 60 Which alteration can lead to edema? | back 60 Decreased lymphatic flow |
front 61 Hypernatremia may be caused by what? | back 61 Excessive sodium intake Gain of sodium Loss of water |
front 62 Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include.. what? | back 62 Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias |
front 63 A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of what?? | back 63 Increase neuromuscular excitability |
front 64 Acid that kidneys unable to excrete? | back 64 Carbonic |
front 65 Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of ... what? | back 65 Metabolic acid deficit |
front 66 Respiratory acidosis may be caused by... what ? | back 66 Hypoventilation |
front 67 Diarrhea causes... what? | back 67 Metabolic acidosis |
front 68 Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in... what? | back 68 Increase PH Increase HCO3 |
front 69 A patient is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What s/s should you anticipate in your assessment? | back 69 Rapid and deep breathing Abdominal pain Lethargy |
front 70 The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is... what? | back 70 Immune complex reaction |
front 71 Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of _____ in the urine | back 71 Protein |
front 72 One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is ... what | back 72 pelvic tumor |
front 73 Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because ?? | back 73 hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipid |
front 74 Risk factors for renal carcinoma? (all that apply) | back 74 Genetic cigarette smoking obesity chemical |
front 75 Manifestations of acute pyelonephritis? ( all that apply) | back 75 Dehydration Low urine output symptoms fever chills costovertebral angle tenderness urosepesis |
front 76 The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by... what? | back 76 Fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance |
front 77 Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end stage renal disease because of ??? | back 77 Hyperparathyroidism |
front 78 A pt with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate because? | back 78 GFR declines |
front 79 The most helpful laboratory value in the monitoring the progression of declining renal function is... what ? | back 79 serum creatinine |
front 80 The most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is ?? | back 80 Ischemic conditions |
front 81 Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by what | back 81 Bilateral kidney stones |
front 82 Anemia in people how have end stage chronic renal disease is caused by what ? | back 82 decreased secretion of erythropoietin |
front 83 Signs of chronic renal failure? (select all that apply) | back 83 High serum potassium levels high serum phosphorous high blood urea nitrogen high anemia |
front 84 The diet for a pt with chronic kidney disease should include which of the following ( select all that apply) | back 84 high carbohydrates low sodium low potassium low phosphorous high calories |
front 85 A patient missed two dialysis sessions. What conditions will the pt likely demonstrate? | back 85 Lethargy increased BUN skeletal muscle weakness hyperkalemia rapid breathing |
front 86 Group with highest risk for UTI | back 86 sexually active females |
front 87 A ureterocele is what ? | back 87 cystic dilation of the distal ureter near insertion into the bladder |
front 88 The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is what?? | back 88 smoking males older than 55 years old Caucasian |
front 89 Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with... what? | back 89 Recurrent cystitis |
front 90 Which situations increase the risk of urge incontinence | back 90 diabetes hysterectomy antidepressants diuretics bp meds |
front 91 Characteristics of cystitis ? | back 91 women catheterization of the bladder fostered by stasis of urine |
front 92 Cystitis symptoms? All that apply | back 92 dysuria urinary frequency cloudy, bloody smelling urine low back pain fever |
front 93 Cryptorchidism is ... what? | back 93 undescended testicles |
front 94 A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling or urine and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristics of what? | back 94 prostatic enlargement |
front 95 Which medication classes does the nurse educate men on for the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)? All that apply | back 95 Tadalafil |
front 96 Medications can be prescribed for the treatment of premature ejaculation? select all that apply | back 96 selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants |
front 97 Causes of male infertility ( select all that apply) | back 97 Low sperm count obstruction in the shaft |
front 98 Uterine prolapse is cause by relaxation of what ? | back 98 cardinal ligaments |
front 99 Endometriosis is a condition in ... what ? | back 99 tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside the uterus |