PATHO FINAL Flashcards


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1

Your patient's red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by what?

-Gender difference

-Situational variation

- Illness

2

All of data that you need to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to be considered?

The problem and its definition

The etiology of the problem

The defining characteristics or risk factors of the problem

3

Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to..... Select all that apply

Decreased urinary output

Increased sodium retention

Increased blood pressure

4

Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to..... (Select all that apply)

-Cardiovascular disease

-Depression

-Impaired cognitive function

-Autoimmune disease

5

Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms. (Select all that apply)

- Producing exotoxin

- Producing endotoxins

- Producing destructive enzymes

- Evoking an immune reaction

6

Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways? ( Select all that apply)

-Enter the host cell

-use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate

-and do not produce toxins

7

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene

occurs at an earlier age

8

Side effects of chemotherapy include.... (select all that apply)

-Anemia

-Nausea

-Bleeding

-Infections

-Bone marrow suppression

9

Which viruses are associated with human cancers? ( select all that apply)

-HPV
-EBV

-HBV

-HCV

-HIV

10

RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent.... WHAT

RH incompatibility in a future pregnancy

11

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

IgE

12

Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by which of the following? (select all that apply)

Surgery

High blood sugar

Corticosteroids

Low protein level

13

What Diseases are due to type IV hypersensitivity? ( select all that apply)

Leprosy

Tuberculosis

Herpes simplex infection

14

Which form of leukemia demonstrate the presence of Philadelphia chromosome?

CML ( chronic myeloid leukemia)

15

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with... WHAT ?

-Epstein

- Barr virus

16

CML symptom's

Fatigue

Weight loss

Bleeding

Abdominal discomfort

Sweats

17

Which clinical findings describe the typical presentation of ALL ? (select all that apply)

-Pain in long bone

-Infection

-Fever

-Bruising

18

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristics of which type of anemia ?

Iron deficiency

19

The cause of the most common form of anemia is what ???

Iron deficiency anemia

20

Anemia related to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is characterized by what laboratory features? All that apply

- RBC count of 500,000-750,000 cells/mm3

- WBC count of 4000-5000 cells/mm3

21

Regarding iron deficiency anemia, what laboratory features are typically decreased? (select all that apply)

-MCV

- MCH

- MCHC

22

The final step in clot formation is.... what?

Fibrinogen to fibrin

23

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by... what?

Tissue thromboplastin

24

The megakaryocyte is a precursor to.... what?

Platelets

25

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to do what ??

Inhibit clotting factor consumption

26

A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs.. what?

Platelet adhesion to injured tissue

27

What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators? ( select all that apply)

-Factor XII

-HMWK

- Kallikrein

- Thrombin

28

Diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem? (select all that apply)

-urinary retention

- renal failure

- cirrhosis

-systemic lupus erythematosus

- ovarian cancer

29

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

Thrombocytopenia

30

Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?

Absent peripheral pulse

31

The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency. ( select all that apply)

- Aching and cramping in the affected area

- relief with elevation to the area

- relief with ambulation

32

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases what??

Afterload

33

High blood pressure increases the risk of which conditions?

- Stroke

- renal disease

-ischemic disease

34

Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for which of the following problems? ( select all that apply)

-ischemic stroke

- retinal injury

- renal impairment

35

Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for which conditions? ( select all that apply)

- stroke

- cognitive impairment

- death

36

Primary treatment for myocardial infarction is directed at

decreasing myocardial oxygen demands

37

Patient's presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with:

Antiplatelet drugs

38

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

Diastolic murmur

39

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called ____ angina

Prinz metal variant

40

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to:

Rupture

41

Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present with which manifestations? ( select all that apply)

-Unstable angina

-MI

-Sudden cardiac arrest

42

Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include which of the following? (select all that apply)

-Electrocardiogram

-Cardiac catheterization

-Echocardiography

-Radionuclide scintigraphy

43

First degree heart block is characterized by... what?

Prolonged PR interval

44

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) This pt is most likely described as an .... what?

elderly woman without history of MI

45

The most common causes of heart failure include which of the following? ( select all that apply)

Coronary heart disease

Heart attack

46

A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms? (select all that apply)

Pulse of more than 100 bpm

Fast and deep respirations

47

Anaphylactic shock signs and symptoms in a patient? (select all that apply )

Hypotension

Urticaria

Angioedema

Wheezing

48

Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram positive organisms that enter the body through which body systems? (select all that apply)

Genitourinary tract

Gastrointestinal tract

Respiratory tract

Skin

49

Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries because of ... what?

Release of proteolytic enzymes from immature cells

50

Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of what???

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

51

Cystic fibrosis is associated with what??

Bronchiectasis

52

Croup is characterized by... what ??

Barking cough

Hoarseness

Stridor

Difficulty breathing

53

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes... ?

Air trapping

54

Characteristics of asthma? (select all that apply)

Edema

Airway inflammation

Collagen deposits

55

The hallmark manifestations of acute respiratory distress syndrome is .... what ?

Hypoxemia

56

Empyema is defined as an... what ?

Infection in the pleural space

57

A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is... what?

Noncompliance to medication regimen

58

Bacteria pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by... what?

Cardiogenetic pulmonary edema

59

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is... what?

Dry cough

60

Which alteration can lead to edema?

Decreased lymphatic flow

61

Hypernatremia may be caused by what?

Excessive sodium intake

Gain of sodium

Loss of water

62

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include.. what?

Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias

63

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of what??

Increase neuromuscular excitability

64

Acid that kidneys unable to excrete?

Carbonic

65

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of ... what?

Metabolic acid deficit

66

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by... what ?

Hypoventilation

67

Diarrhea causes... what?

Metabolic acidosis

68

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in... what?

Increase PH

Increase HCO3

69

A patient is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What s/s should you anticipate in your assessment?

Rapid and deep breathing

Abdominal pain

Lethargy

70

The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is... what?

Immune complex reaction

71

Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of _____ in the urine

Protein

72

One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is ... what

pelvic tumor

73

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because ??

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipid

74

Risk factors for renal carcinoma? (all that apply)

Genetic

cigarette smoking

obesity

chemical

75

Manifestations of acute pyelonephritis? ( all that apply)

Dehydration

Low urine output symptoms

fever

chills

costovertebral angle tenderness

urosepesis

76

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by... what?

Fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance

77

Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end stage renal disease because of ???

Hyperparathyroidism

78

A pt with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate because?

GFR declines

79

The most helpful laboratory value in the monitoring the progression of declining renal function is... what ?

serum creatinine

80

The most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is ??

Ischemic conditions

81

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by what

Bilateral kidney stones

82

Anemia in people how have end stage chronic renal disease is caused by what ?

decreased secretion of erythropoietin

83

Signs of chronic renal failure? (select all that apply)

High serum potassium levels

high serum phosphorous

high blood urea nitrogen

high anemia

84

The diet for a pt with chronic kidney disease should include which of the following ( select all that apply)

high carbohydrates

low sodium

low potassium

low phosphorous

high calories

85

A patient missed two dialysis sessions. What conditions will the pt likely demonstrate?

Lethargy

increased BUN

skeletal muscle weakness

hyperkalemia

rapid breathing

86

Group with highest risk for UTI

sexually active females

87

A ureterocele is what ?

cystic dilation of the distal ureter near insertion into the bladder

88

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is what??

smoking

males

older than 55 years old

Caucasian

89

Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with... what?

Recurrent cystitis

90

Which situations increase the risk of urge incontinence

diabetes

hysterectomy

antidepressants

diuretics

bp meds

91

Characteristics of cystitis ?

women

catheterization of the bladder

fostered by stasis of urine

92

Cystitis symptoms? All that apply

dysuria

urinary frequency

cloudy, bloody smelling urine

low back pain

fever

93

Cryptorchidism is ... what?

undescended testicles

94

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling or urine and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristics of what?

prostatic enlargement

95

Which medication classes does the nurse educate men on for the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)? All that apply

Tadalafil

96

Medications can be prescribed for the treatment of premature ejaculation? select all that apply

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants

97

Causes of male infertility ( select all that apply)

Low sperm count

obstruction in the shaft

98

Uterine prolapse is cause by relaxation of what ?

cardinal ligaments

99

Endometriosis is a condition in ... what ?

tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside the uterus