BIOLOGY TEST #3
3) The seed coat's most important function is to provide
A) a
nonstressful environment for the megasporangium.
B) the means
for dispersal.
C) dormancy.
D) a nutrient supply for the
embryo.
E) desiccation resistance.
Answer: E
4) In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are
unique to the seed-producing plants?
A) sporopollenin
B)
lignin present in cell walls
C) pollen
D) use of air
currents as a dispersal agent
E) megaphylls
Answer: C
7) In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain
and has a function most like that of the seed coat?
A)
sporophyll
B) male gametophyte
C) sporopollenin
D)
stigma
E) sporangium
Answer: C
12) Generally, wind pollination is most likely to be found in seed
plants that grow
A) close to the ground.
B) in dense,
single-species stands.
C) in relative isolation from other
members of the same species.
D) along coastlines where
prevailing winds blow from the land out to sea.
E) in
well-drained soils.
Answer: B
15) Within a gymnosperm megasporangium, what is the correct sequence
in which the following should appear during development, assuming that
fertilization occurs?
1. sporophyte embryo
2.
female gametophyte
3. egg cell
4. megaspore
A) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
B) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
D) 1 → 4 → 3 → 2
E) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
Answer: B
18) Which trait(s) is (are) shared by many modern gymnosperms and
angiosperms?
1. pollen transported by wind
2.
lignified xylem
3. microscopic gametophytes
4. sterile
sporophylls, modified to attract pollinators
5. endosperm
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3
C) 1, 2, and 3
D)
1, 3, and 5
E) 2, 4, and 5
Answer: C
22) Reptilian embryos are protected from desiccation by a leathery
shell. Similarly, which pair of structures protects seed plants'
embryos and male gametophytes, respectively, from desiccation?
A)
ovuleswaxy cuticle
B) ovariesfilaments
C) fruitsstamens
D) pollen grainswaxy cuticle
E) integumentssporopollenin
Answer: E
23) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most
directly produces the integument of a pine seed?
A) male
gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte
Answer: D
24) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most
directly produces the pollen tube?
A) male gametophyte
B)
female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte
Answer: A
28) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
A) complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent
B)
double internal fertilization
C) free-living gametophytes
D) carpels that contain microsporangia
E) ovules that are
not contained within ovaries
Answer: B
29) Which of the following is true concerning flowering plants?
A) The flower includes sporophyte tissue.
B) The
gametophyte generation is dominant.
C) The gametophyte
generation is what we see when looking at a large plant.
D) The
sporophyte generation is not photosynthetic.
E) The sporophyte
generation consists of relatively few cells within the flower.
Answer: A
32) Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophytes?
A) immature ovules
B) pollen tubes
C) ovaries
D) stamens
E) sepals
Answer: B
36) The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid.
This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of
cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm
cells?
A) binary fission
B) mitosis
C) meiosis
D) mitosis without subsequent cytokinesis
E) meiosis
without subsequent cytokinesis
Answer: B
37) Angiosperm double fertilization is so-called because it features
the formation of
A) two embryos from one egg and two sperm
cells.
B) one embryo from one egg fertilized by two sperm cells.
C) two embryos from two sperm cells and two eggs.
D) one
embryo involving one sperm cell and an endosperm involving a second
sperm cell.
E) one embryo from two eggs fertilized by a single
sperm cell.
Answer: D
40) Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest,
assuming that they belong to two generations of the same angiosperm.
1. ovary
2. ovule
3. egg
4. carpel
5. embryo sac
A) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
B) 4, 5, 2,
1, 3
C) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
D) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
E) 4, 1, 2,
5, 3
Answer: E
42) Hypothetically, one of the major benefits of double fertilization
in angiosperms is to
A) decrease the potential for mutation by
insulating the embryo with other cells.
B) increase the number
of fertilization events and offspring produced.
C) promote
diversity in flower shape and color.
D) coordinate developmental
timing between the embryo and its food stores.
E) emphasize
embryonic survival by increasing embryo size.
Answer: D
45) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of
the following features is unique to them and helps account for their
success?
A) wind pollination
B) dominant gametophytes
C) fruits enclosing seeds
D) embryos enclosed within seed
coats
E) sperm cells without flagella
Answer: C
46) In a typical angiosperm, what is the sequence of structures
encountered by the tip of a growing pollen tube on its way to the egg?
1. micropyle
2. style
3. ovary
4.
stigma
A) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
B) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
C)
1 → 4 → 2 → 3
D) 1 → 3 → 4 → 2
E) 3 → 2 → 4 → 1
Answer: A
In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes
within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each
of the following onion tissues.
68) How many chromosomes
should be in a generative cell nucleus?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 24
E) 32
Answer: B
In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes
within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each
of the following onion tissues.
70) How many chromosomes
should be in an embryo nucleus?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 24
E) 32
Answer: C
92) If a female orchid bee has just left a Brazil nut tree with
nectar in her stomach, and if she visits another flower on a different
Brazil nut tree, what is the sequence in which the following events
should occur?
1. double fertilization
2. pollen
tube emerges from pollen grain
3. pollen tube enters micropyle
4. pollination
A) 4, 2, 3, 1
B) 4, 2, 1, 3
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 4, 3, 1
E) 2, 4, 1, 3
Answer: A
98) Where in an angiosperm would you find a megasporangium?
A)
in the style of a flower
B) inside the tip of a pollen tube
C) enclosed in the stigma of a flower
D) within an ovule
contained within an ovary of a flower
E) packed into pollen sacs
within the anthers found on a stamen
Answer: D
100) With respect to angiosperms, which of the following is
incorrectly paired with its chromosome count?
A) egg–n
B) megaspore–2n
C) microspore–n
D) zygote–2n
E) sperm–n
Answer: B
101) Which of the following is not a characteristic that
distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?
A)
alternation of generations
B) ovules
C) integuments
D) pollen
E) dependent gametophytes
Answer: A
102) Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except
A) seeds.
B) pollen.
C) vascular tissue.
D)
ovaries.
E) ovules.
Answer: D
1) Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as
A) the digestive system's opening.
B) suspension-feeding
devices.
C) components of the jaw.
D) gill slits for
respiration.
E) portions of the inner ear.
Answer: B
4) A new species of aquatic chordate is discovered that closely
resembles an ancient form. It has the following characteristics:
external armor of bony plates, no paired lateral fins, and a
suspension-feeding mode of nutrition. In addition to these, it will
probably have which of the following characteristics?
A) legs
B) no jaws
C) an amniotic egg
D) endothermy
Answer: B
6) What do all craniates have that earlier chordates did not have?
A) brain
B) vertebrae
C) cartilaginous pipe
surrounding notochord
D) partial or complete skull
E) bone
Answer: D
9) The earliest known mineralized structures in vertebrates are
associated with which function?
A) reproduction
B) feeding
C) locomotion
D) defense
E) respiration
Answer: B
12) Jaws first occurred in which extant group of fishes?
A)
lampreys
B) chondrichthyans
C) ray-finned fishes
D)
lungfishes
E) placoderms
Answer: B
19) Which of the following belongs to the lobe-fin clade?
A)
chondrichthyans
B) ray-finned fishes
C) lampreys
D)
hagfishes
E) tetrapods
Answer: E
20) Arrange these taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general)
to least inclusive (most specific).
1. lobe-fins
2. amphibians
3. gnathostomes
4. osteichthyans
5. tetrapods
A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
B) 4, 3, 2, 5,
1
C) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
D) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
E) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
Answer: D
21) A trend first observed in the evolution of the earliest tetrapods
was
A) the appearance of jaws.
B) the appearance of bony
vertebrae.
C) feet with digits.
D) the mineralization of
the endoskeleton.
E) the amniotic egg.
Answer: C
22) What should be true of fossils of the earliest tetrapods?
A) They should show evidence of internal fertilization.
B)
They should show evidence of having produced shelled eggs.
C)
They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land.
D) They
should be transitional forms with the fossils of chondrichthyans that
lived at the same time.
E) They should feature the earliest
indications of the appearance of jaws.
Answer: C
23) Which of these are amniotes?
A) amphibians
B) fishes
C) egg-laying mammals
D) placental mammals
E) More
than one of these is correct.
Answer: E
24) Why is the amniotic egg considered an important evolutionary
breakthrough?
A) It has a shell that increases gas exchange.
B) It allows deposition of eggs in a terrestrial environment.
C) It prolongs embryonic development.
D) It provides
insulation to conserve heat.
E) It permits internal
fertilization to be replaced by external fertilization.
Answer: B
26) Which of these characteristics added most to vertebrate success
in relatively dry environments?
A) the shelled, amniotic egg
B) the ability to maintain a constant body temperature
C)
two pairs of appendages
D) bony scales
E) a four-chambered heart
Answer: A
29) Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended
directly from dinosaurs?
A) lizards
B) crocodiles
C)
snakes
D) birds
E) tuataras
Answer: D
32) During chordate evolution, what is the sequence (from earliest to
most recent) in which the following structures arose?
1.
amniotic egg
2. paired fins
3. jaws
4. swim bladder
5. four-chambered heart
A) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
B)
3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
E)
2, 4, 3, 1, 5
Answer: A
Answer: A
36) Female birds lay their eggs, thereby facilitating flight by
reducing weight. Which "strategy" seems most likely for
female bats to use to achieve the same goal?
A) lay shelled eggs
B) limit litters to a single embryo
C) refrain from flying
throughout pregnancy (about 6 weeks long)
D) give birth to
underdeveloped young, and subsequently carry them in a pouch that has
teats
E) feed multiple embryos internally using placentas
Answer: B
37) In which vertebrates is fertilization exclusively internal?
A) chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and mammals
B)
amphibians, mammals, and reptiles
C) chondrichthyans,
osteichthyans, and reptiles
D) reptiles and mammals
E)
reptiles and amphibians
Answer: D
Match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions.
39) Internal fertilization, leathery amniotic egg, and skin that
resists drying are characteristics of
A) amphibians.
B)
nonbird reptiles.
C) chondrichthyans.
D) mammals.
E) birds.
Answer: B
Match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions.
40) Which of the following are the most abundant and diverse of
the extant vertebrates?
A) ray-finned fishes
B) birds
C) amphibians
D) nonbird reptiles
E) mammals
Answer: A
Match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions.
41) What is the single unique characteristic that distinguishes
extant birds from other extant vertebrates?
A) endothermy
B) feathers
C) an amniotic egg
D) flight
E) a
four-chambered heart
Answer: B
42) Arrange the following taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most
general) to least inclusive (most specific).
1. apes
2. hominins
3. Homo
4 anthropoids
5. primates
A) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
C) 5, 4,
2, 1, 3
D) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
Answer: B
43) Which of these traits is most strongly associated with the
adoption of bipedalism?
A) fingerprints
B) enhanced depth
perception
C) shortened hind limbs
D) opposable big toe
E) repositioning of foramen magnum
Answer: E
44) Which of the following statements about human evolution is
correct?
A) Modern humans are the only human species to have
evolved on Earth.
B) Human ancestors were virtually identical to
extant chimpanzees.
C) Human evolution has occurred within an
unbranched lineage.
D) The upright posture and enlarged brain of
humans evolved simultaneously.
E) Fossil evidence indicates that
early anthropoids were arboreal and cat-sized.
Answer: E
45) Which of the following are considered apes?
A) lorises
B) New World monkeys
C) Old World monkeys
D)
orangutans
E) tarsiers
Answer: D
46) Which of these species was the first to have been adapted for
long-distance bipedalism?
A) Australopithecus garhi
B) H.
erectus
C) H. ergaster
D) H. habilis
E) H. sapiens
Answer: C
47) Which of these species was apparently the first to craft stone
tools?
A) Australopithecus garhi
B) H. erectus
C) H.
ergaster
D) H. habilis
E) H. sapiens
Answer: A
48) Which of these species was the first to have some members migrate
out of Africa?
A) Australopithecus garhi
B) H. erectus
C) H. ergaster
D) H. habilis
E) H. sapiens
Answer: B
49) Which of these species is currently thought to have coexisted (at
the same time and places) with H. neanderthalensis?
A) H.
erectus
B) H. ergaster
C) H. habilis
D) H. sapiens
Answer: D
50) Which of these species had members who moved out of Africa?
A) H. erectus
B) H. ergaster
C) H. habilis
D)
H. sapiens
E) both H. sapiens and H. erectus
Answer: E
52) Which of these statements about human evolution is correct?
A) The ancestors of Homo sapiens were chimpanzees.
B)
Human evolution has proceeded in an orderly fashion from an ancestral
anthropoid to Homo sapiens.
C) The evolution of upright posture
and enlarged brain occurred simultaneously.
D) Different species
of the genus Homo have coexisted at various times throughout hominin
evolution.
E) Mitochondrial DNA analysis indicates that modern
humans are genetically very similar to Neanderthals.
Answer: D
53) The oldest fossil remains of Homo sapiens found so far date from
about
A) 6 million years ago.
B) 1.6 million years ago.
C) 195,000 years ago.
D) 60,000 years ago.
E) 16,000
years ago.
Answer: C
54) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Homo
erectus?
A) Their fossils are not limited to Africa.
B) On
average, H. erectus had a smaller brain than H. habilis.
C) H.
erectus had a level of sexual dimorphism less than that of modern
humans.
D) H. erectus was not known to use tools.
E) H.
erectus evolved before H. habilis.
Answer: A
55) Which of the following is the most inclusive (most general)
group, all of whose members have foramina magna centrally positioned
in the base of the cranium?
A) hominoids
B) Homo
C)
anthropoids
D) hominins
E) primates
Answer: D
56) Which of the following is the most inclusive (most general)
group, all of whose members have fully opposable thumbs?
A) apes
B) Homo
C) anthropoids
D) hominins
E) primates
Answer: C
57) Which of the following is the most specific group that includes
both the Old World monkeys and the New World monkeys?
A) apes
B) Homo
C) anthropoids
D) hominins
E) primates
Answer: C
65) We should expect the inner wall of the swim bladder to be lined
with tissue that is derived from
A) ectoderm.
B) endoderm.
C) mesoderm.
D) mesoglea.
E) neurectoderm.
Answer: B
The following question refer to the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure
34.2.
Figure 34.2
72) Which number
represents the birds?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10, if it were at the end of a branch emerging from the dinosaurs
Answer: E
81) Terry detaches the snakelike organism from the fish and uses a
knife to cut off its head. In doing so, its brain slides out onto the
deck of the boat. Terry peers into the cut end of the head and notices
that the brain had lain in a sort of panlike structure that only
partially surrounded the brain. What is the structure Terry is
observing, and what is it made of?
A) skull, made of bone
B) cranium, made of bone
C) cranium, made of cartilage
D) vertebral column, made of bone
E) vertebral column,
made of cartilage
Answer: C
82) Terry takes the body of the snakelike organism and slices it open
along its dorsal side. If it is a hagfish, what should Terry see?
A) a well-developed series of bony vertebrae surrounding the
spinal cord
B) a well-developed series of cartilaginous
vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord
C) a tube of cartilage
(surrounding the notochord) with dorsal projections on both sides of
the spinal cord
D) a notochord, located underneath the spinal cord
Answer: D
85) Terry saved some of the tooth-like objects within the hagfish's
round mouth to analyze their composition in his mentor's biochemistry
research lab. Terry will find that they are composed of the same
protein found in tetrapod
A) skin.
B) teeth.
C)
bones.
D) cartilage.
E) muscles.
Answer: A
86) The class decided to humanely euthanize the organism and
subsequently dissect it. Having decided that it was probably not a
reptile, two of their original hypotheses regarding its identity
remained. Which of the following, if observed, should help them arrive
at a conclusive answer?
A) presence of a closed circulatory
system
B) presence of moist, highly vascularized skin
C)
presence of lungs
D) presence of a nerve cord
E) presence
of a digestive system with two openings
Answer: C
87) The organism was found to have two lungs, but the left lung was
much smaller than the right lung. Kelly added that the herpetology
instructor had said that in most snakes, the same condition exists. If
the size difference between the lungs in this organism is not a shared
ancestral characteristic with its occurrence in snakes, then its
existence in this organism is explained as which of the following?
1. a result of convergent evolution
2. an example
of homologous structures
3. a similar adaptation to a shared
lifestyle or body plan
4. a result of having identical Hox genes
5. a homoplasy
A) 3 only
B) 1 and 5
C)
1, 3, and 5
D) 2, 3, and 5
E) 3, 4, and 5
Answer: C
Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the
respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory
system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into
posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air
sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air
through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.
90) If the inner lining of the air sacs is neither thin
nor highly vascularized, then what can be inferred about the air
sacs?
A) They must not belong to the respiratory system.
B) They cannot be derived from endoderm.
C) They cannot
be sites of gas exchange between air and blood.
D) They must
obtain nutrition from some source other than the bloodstream.
E) They cannot effectively moisturize the air before it reaches
the lungs.
Answer: C
Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the
respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory
system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into
posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air
sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air
through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.
91) Some bird bones are hollow rather than honeycombed.
The hollow bones mostly contain air sacs. The replacement of bone
marrow with air sacs is properly understood as an adaptation to
A) reduce the weight of the bird.
B) facilitate flight.
C) eliminate the functions that marrow performs.
D) All
three of the options listed are correct.
E) Only two of the
options listed are correct.
Answer: E
92) Birds generate a lot of heat, especially during flight. Yet the
adipose tissue under their skin and the feathers atop their skin make
it difficult to eliminate excess heat across the skin. Which of the
following alternatives can absorb body heat and eliminate it from the
bird most effectively?
A) air in the air sacs
B) lymph in
the lymphatic vessels
C) blood in the vessels
D) blood in
the heart
E) urine in the bladder
Answer: A
3) If Archaeopteryx had air sacs, then which of its features would
have had the opposite effect on enabling Archaeopteryx to fly long
distances from that provided by air sacs?
1. teeth
2. contour feathers
3. wing claws
4. long tail with
many vertebrae
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 4
C) 2
and 3
D) 1, 2, and 4
E) 1, 3, and 4
Answer: E
Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the
respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory
system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into
posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air
sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air
through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.
94) Which feature of some carinates has the same effect
on weight as the presence of air sacs?
A) presence of a large,
heavily keratinized beak
B) absence of a urinary bladder
C) presence of a carina (keel)
D) number of chambers in
the heart
E) presence of large pectoral muscles
Answer: B
Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the
respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory
system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into
posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air
sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air
through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.
95) The movement of air along parabronchi is most
similar to the movement of
A) air in the lungs of other
amniotes.
B) food/waste in a gastrovascular cavity.
C)
food/waste in a digestive system with separate mouth and anus.
D) the frog tongue during feeding.
E) air in lungs of
terrestrial amphibians.
Answer: C
96) Which type of bird is most likely to need air sacs to reduce its
weight?
A) birds that migrate long distances
B) waterfowl
that float on water, but do not dive
C) birds that spend much of
their time underwater
D) ratites
Answer: A
Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the
respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory
system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into
posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air
sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air
through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.
97) The one-way flow of air along parabronchi makes what
type of exchange mechanism possible, at least theoretically?
A)
the same as that occurring in fish gills
B) the same as that
occurring in insect tracheae
C) the same as that occurring in
mammalian lungs
D) the same as that occurring in echinoderm
skin gills
Answer: A
99) Gd is a cold-loving fungus. Thus, which characteristics of normal
bat behavior can be most expected to favor the growth of this fungus?
A) southward migration during the winter
B) communal
roosting in tightly packed clusters during hibernation
C)
reliance on fat reserves for calories during hibernation
D)
much-reduced metabolic rate during hibernation
E) hibernating in
parts of the cave that are farthest away from the mouth of the cave
Answer: D
Answer: D
100) Gd is a cold-loving fungus. Thus, which characteristics of
abnormal bat behavior can be most expected to favor the growth of this
fungus?
A) shifting roosting location to the mouth of the cave
during winter
B) searching for food during winter
C)
searching for food during the day
D) All three of the options
listed are correct.
E) Only two of the options listed are correct.
Answer: D
101) Gd is a cold-loving fungus. Thus, which characteristics of
normal bat behavior can be most expected to favor the spread of this
fungus to uninfected bats?
A) southward migration during the
winter
B) communal roosting in tightly packed clusters during
hibernation
C) reliance on fat reserves for calories during
hibernation
D) much-reduced metabolic rate during hibernation
E) hibernating in parts of the cave that are farthest away from
the mouth of the cave
Answer: B
104) Vertebrates and tunicates share
A) jaws adapted for
feeding.
B) a high degree of cephalization.
C) the
formation of structures from the neural crest.
D) an
endoskeleton that includes a skull.
E) a notochord and a dorsal,
hollow nerve cord.
Answer: E
105) Some animals that lived 530 million years ago resembled
lancelets but had a brain and a skull. These animals may represent
A) the first chordates.
B) a "missing link"
between urochordates and cephalochordates.
C) early craniates.
D) marsupials.
E) nontetrapod gnathostomes.
Answer: C
106) Which of the following could be considered the most recent
common ancestor of living tetrapods?
A) a sturdy-finned,
shallow-water lobe-fin whose appendages had skeletal supports similar
to those of terrestrial vertebrates
B) an armored, jawed
placoderm with two pairs of appendages
C) an early ray-finned
fish that developed bony skeletal supports in its paired fins
D)
a salamander that had legs supported by a bony skeleton but moved with
the side-to-side bending typical of fishes
E) an early
terrestrial caecilian whose legless condition had evolved secondarily
Answer: A
107) Unlike eutherians, both monotremes and marsupials
A) lack
nipples.
B) have some embryonic development outside the uterus.
C) lay eggs.
D) are found in Australia and Africa.
E) include only insectivores and herbivores.
Answer: B
108) Which clade does not include humans?
A) synapsids
B)
lobe-fins
C) diapsids
D) craniates
E) osteichthyans
Answer: C
109) As hominins diverged from other primates, which of the following
appeared first?
A) reduced jawbones
B) language
C)
bipedal locomotion
D) the making of stone tools
E) an
enlarged brain
Answer: C
25) Which era is known as the "age of reptiles"?
A)
Cenozoic
B) Mesozoic
C) Paleozoic
D) Devonian
E) Cambrian
Answer: B
27) Which of the following is characteristic of most extant reptiles
and most extant mammals?
A) ectothermy
B) diaphragm
C) shelled eggs
D) keratinized skin
E) conical teeth
that are relatively uniform in size
Answer: D
1) The male wasp, Campsoscolia ciliata, transfers pollen from one
orchid to another orchid of the same species. What "reward"
does the male wasp receive from the orchid plants for helping with the
orchid pollination?
A) a supply of energy-rich nectar
B)
volatile chemical hormones that help the male wasp find a sexually
receptive female
C) no reward; the male wasp is deceived by the
flower shape and odor
D) successful copulation with the flower
E) a store of nectar that the wasp can use in time of famine
Answer: C
2) Which of the following plant/animal interactions is not a mutually
beneficial (mutualistic) relationship?
A) honeybees gathering
pollen from apple blossoms
B) butterflies gathering nectar from
lily blossoms
C) beetles feeding on magnolia blossoms
D)
ants protecting and feeding from nectaries of Acacia
E) wasps
such as Campsoscolia ciliata transferring pollen in orchid flowers
Answer: E
3) Which of the following best describes the ploidy level of a
fertilized embryo sac?
A) All cells are diploid.
B) All
cells are triploid.
C) All cells are polyploid.
D) The
ploidy level varies among species.
E) There are haploid,
diploid, and triploid cells.
Answer: E
4) A flowering plant with a deleterious mutation in microsporogenesis
would most likely
A) fail to produce sepals.
B) fail to
produce petals.
C) fail to produce anthers.
D) fail to
produce pollen.
E) fail to produce ovules.
Answer: D
5) When comparing the mature seeds of a pine tree to an apple tree,
which of the following is a correct statement?
A) The
developmental sequences postfertilization are identical.
B) Both
contain triploid tissue.
C) The nutritive tissues are both
haploid.
D) Only the apple seed has a diploid seed coat.
E) Both contain haploid and diploid tissues.
Answer: E
6) A mature, unfertilized ovule in an angiosperm is the result of
A) a single meiotic division.
B) a single mitotic
division.
C) both meiotic and mitotic divisions.
D)
mitosis from the megaspore mother cell.
E) differentiation from
the suspensor tissues.
Answer: C
7) At the conclusion of meiosis in plants, the end products are
always four haploid
A) spores.
B) eggs.
C) sperm.
D) seeds.
E) gametes.
Answer: A
8) Which of the following is the correct sequence during the
alternation of generations life cycle in a flowering plant?
A) sporophyte → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes → fertilization
→ diploid zygote
B) sporophyte → mitosis → gametophyte → meiosis
→ sporophyte
C) haploid gametophyte → gametes → meiosis →
fertilization → diploid sporophyte
D) sporophyte → spores →
meiosis → gametophyte → gametes
E) haploid sporophyte → spores →
fertilization → diploid gametophyte
Answer: A
9) Which of the following is true in plants?
A) Mitosis occurs
in gametophytes to produce gametes.
B) Meiosis occurs in
sporophytes to produce spores.
C) The gametophyte is within the
flower in angiosperms.
D) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to
produce gametes, and meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
E) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes, meiosis
occurs in sporophytes to produce spores, and the gametophyte is within
the flower in angiosperms.
Answer: E
10) Which of the following are true of most angiosperms?
A)
They have a triploid endosperm within the seed.
B) They have an
ovary that becomes a fruit.
C) They have a small (reduced)
sporophyte.
D) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed
and an ovary that becomes a fruit.
E) They have a triploid
endosperm within the seed, an ovary that becomes a fruit, and a small
(reduced) sporophyte.
Answer: D
11) Based on studies of plant evolution and anatomy, which flower
part is least likely to have evolved from a leaf?
A) stamen
B) carpel
C) petals
D) sepals
E) receptacle
Answer: E
12) All of the following floral parts are involved in pollination or
fertilization except the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C)
petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.
Answer: D
13) The ovary is most often located on/in the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.
Answer: B
14) Microsporangia in flowering plants are located in the
A)
stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.
Answer: A
15) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from
the outside to the inside of a complete flower?
A) petals →
sepals → stamens → carpels
B) sepals → stamens → petals →
carpels
C) spores → gametes → zygote → embryo
D) sepals →
petals → stamens → carpels
E) male gametophyte → female
gametophyte → sepals → petals
Answer: D
17) All of the following are primary functions of flowers except
A) pollen production.
B) photosynthesis.
C) meiosis.
D) egg production.
E) sexual reproduction.
Answer: B
18) Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except
the
A) ovule.
B) style.
C) megasporangium.
D)
anther.
E) ovary.
Answer: B
19) A perfect flower is fertile, but may be either complete or
incomplete. Which of the following correctly describes a perfect
flower?
A) It has no sepals.
B) It has fused carpels.
C) It is on a dioecious plant.
D) It has no endosperm.
E) It has both stamens and carpels.
Answer: E
21) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is
false?
A) The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B)
Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C) Pollination is the placing of pollen on the stigma of a
carpel.
D) The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell
that contains two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus.
E) Flowers
produce fruits within the ovules.
Answer: B
23) In flowering plants, pollen is released from the
A) anther.
B) stigma.
C) carpel.
D) filament.
E) pollen tube.
Answer: A
24) In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages
is diploid?
A) megaspore
B) generative nucleus of a pollen
grain
C) polar nuclei of the embryo sac
D) microsporocyte
E) both megaspore and polar nuclei
Answer: D
25) Where does meiosis occur in flowering plants?
A)
megasporocyte
B) microsporocyte
C) endosperm
D)
pollen tube
E) megasporocyte and microsporocyte
Answer: E
26) Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that
takes place when a flowering plant reproduces?
A) meiosis →
fertilization → ovulation → germination
B) fertilization →
meiosis → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm
C)
meiosis → pollination → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and
endosperm
D) growth of pollen tube → pollination → germination →
fertilization
E) meiosis → mitosis → nuclear fusion → pollen
Answer: C
27) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its life-cycle
generation?
A) anthergametophyte
B) pollengametophyte
C) embryo sacgametophyte
D) stamensporophyte
E) embryosporophyte
Answer: A
28) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a
pollen sac?
A) sporangia → meiosis → two haploid cells → meiosis
→ two pollen grains per cell
B) pollen grain → meiosis → two
generative cells → two tube cells per pollen grain
C) two
haploid cells → meiosis → generative cell → tube cell-fertilization →
pollen grain
D) pollen grain → mitosis → microspores → meiosis →
generative cell plus tube cell
E) microsporocyte → meiosis →
microspores → mitosis → two haploid cells per pollen grain
Answer: E
29) Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule?
A) An
antheridium forms from the megasporophyte.
B) A megaspore mother
cell undergoes meiosis.
C) The egg nucleus is usually diploid.
D) A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination.
E) The endosperm surrounds the megaspore mother cell.
Answer: B
30) Where and by which process are sperm cells formed in plants?
A) meiosis in pollen grains
B) meiosis in anthers
C)
mitosis in male gametophyte pollen tube
D) mitosis in the
micropyle
E) mitosis in the embryo sac
Answer: C
31) In which of the following pairs are the two terms equivalent?
A) ovuleegg
B) embryo sacfemale gametophyte
C)
endospermmale gametophyte
D) seedzygote
E)
microsporepollen grain
Answer: B
32) Which of the following is the male gametophyte of a flowering
plant?
A) ovule
B) microsporocyte
C) pollen grain
D) embryo sac
E) stamen
Answer: C
34) In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains
A)
two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain.
B) a generative
cell and a tube cell.
C) two sperm nuclei and one tube cell
nucleus.
D) two haploid microspores.
E) a haploid nucleus
and a diploid pollen wall.
Answer: C
35) Three mitotic divisions within the female gametophyte of the
megaspore produce
A) three antipodal cells, two polar nuclei,
one egg, and two synergids.
B) the triple fusion nucleus.
C) three pollen grains.
D) two antipodal cells, two polar
nuclei, two eggs, and two synergids.
E) a tube nucleus, a
generative cell, and a sperm cell.
Answer: A
36) What is the difference between pollination and fertilization in
flowering plants?
A) Fertilization precedes pollination.
B) Pollination easily occurs between plants of different
species, whereas fertilization is within a species.
C) Pollen is
formed within megasporangia so that male and female gametes are near
each other.
D) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from an
anther to a stigma. Fertilization is the fusion of haploid nuclei.
E) If fertilization occurs, pollination is unnecessary.
Answer: D
38) Genetic incompatibility does not affect the
A) attraction
of a suitable insect pollinator.
B) germination of the pollen on
the stigma.
C) growth of the pollen tube in the style.
D)
membrane permeability of cells.
E) different individuals of the
same species.
Answer: A
40) As a flower develops, which transition is most likely to occur?
A) The microspores become pollen grains.
B) The ovule
becomes a fruit.
C) The petals are retained.
D) The
vegetative nucleus becomes a sperm nucleus.
E) The ovules become ovaries.
Answer: A
41) The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to
A)
protect against animal predation.
B) ensure double
fertilization.
C) form a seed coat.
D) direct development
of the endosperm.
E) produce hormones that ensure successful pollination.
Answer: C
45) What is typically the result of double fertilization in
angiosperms?
A) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient
tissue.
B) A triploid zygote is formed.
C) Both a diploid
embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.
D) Two embryos develop
in every seed.
E) The antipodal cells develop into the seed coat.
Answer: C
47) Which of the following metabolic processes is most likely to
still be occurring at low levels in a fully mature, viable, dry seed?
A) photosynthesis
B) respiration
C) fatty acid
synthesis
D) protein synthesis
E) DNA replication
Answer: B
53) Fruits develop from
A) microsporangia.
B)
receptacles.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules.
Answer: D
The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an
angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.
Figure 38.1
73) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s), after fertilization,
give(s) rise to the embryo plant?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: B
The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an
angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.
Figure 38.1
74) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s) become(s) the triploid
endosperm?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: C
The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an
angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.
Figure 38.1
75) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s) guide(s) the pollen tube
to the egg cell?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: A
78) A seed develops from
A) an ovum.
B) a pollen grain.
C) an ovule.
D) an ovary.
E) an embryo.
Answer: C
79) A fruit is
A) a mature ovary.
B) a mature ovule.
C) a seed plus its integuments.
D) a fused carpel.
E) an enlarged embryo sac.
Answer: A
80) Double fertilization means that
A) flowers must be
pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds.
B) every egg must
receive two sperm to produce an embryo.
C) one sperm is needed
to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the
polar nuclei.
D) the egg of the embryo sac is diploid.
E)
every sperm has two nuclei.
Answer: C
83) Some dioecious species have the XY genotype for male and XX for
female. After double fertilization, what would be the genotypes of the
embryos and endosperm nuclei?
A) embryo X/endosperm XX
or embryo Y/endosperm XY
B) embryo XX/endosperm XX or embryo
XY/endosperm XY
C) embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo
XY/endosperm XYY
D) embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo
XY/endosperm XXY
E) embryo XY/endosperm XXX or embryo
XX/endosperm XXY
Answer: C
84) A small flower with green petals is most likely
A)
bee-pollinated.
B) bird-pollinated.
C) bat-pollinated.
D) wind-pollinated.
E) moth-pollinated.
Answer: D
85) The pollen produced by wind-pollinated plants is often smaller
than the pollen produced by animal-pollinated plants. A reason for
this might be that
A) wind-pollinated plants, in general, are
smaller than animal-pollinated plants.
B) wind-pollinated plants
release pollen in the spring, before the plant has stored enough
energy to make large pollen grains.
C) small pollen grains can
be carried farther by the wind.
D) animal pollinators are more
facile at picking up large pollen grains.
E) wind-pollinated
flowers don't need large pollen grains because they don't have to
attract animal pollinators.
Answer: C