BIOLOGY TEST #3 Flashcards

3) The seed coat's most important function is to provide
A) a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium.
B) the means for dispersal.
C) dormancy.
D) a nutrient supply for the embryo.
E) desiccation resistance.

4) In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are unique to the seed-producing plants?
A) sporopollenin
B) lignin present in cell walls
C) pollen
D) use of air currents as a dispersal agent
E) megaphylls

7) In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat?
A) sporophyll
B) male gametophyte
C) sporopollenin
D) stigma
E) sporangium

12) Generally, wind pollination is most likely to be found in seed plants that grow
A) close to the ground.
B) in dense, single-species stands.
C) in relative isolation from other members of the same species.
D) along coastlines where prevailing winds blow from the land out to sea.
E) in well-drained soils.

15) Within a gymnosperm megasporangium, what is the correct sequence in which the following should appear during development, assuming that fertilization occurs?

1. sporophyte embryo
2. female gametophyte
3. egg cell
4. megaspore

A) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
B) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
D) 1 → 4 → 3 → 2
E) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3

18) Which trait(s) is (are) shared by many modern gymnosperms and angiosperms?

1. pollen transported by wind
2. lignified xylem
3. microscopic gametophytes
4. sterile sporophylls, modified to attract pollinators
5. endosperm

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1, 3, and 5
E) 2, 4, and 5

22) Reptilian embryos are protected from desiccation by a leathery shell. Similarly, which pair of structures protects seed plants' embryos and male gametophytes, respectively, from desiccation?
A) ovuleswaxy cuticle
B) ovariesfilaments
C) fruitsstamens
D) pollen grainswaxy cuticle
E) integumentssporopollenin

23) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the integument of a pine seed?
A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte

24) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the pollen tube?
A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte

28) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
A) complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent
B) double internal fertilization
C) free-living gametophytes
D) carpels that contain microsporangia
E) ovules that are not contained within ovaries

29) Which of the following is true concerning flowering plants?
A) The flower includes sporophyte tissue.
B) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
C) The gametophyte generation is what we see when looking at a large plant.
D) The sporophyte generation is not photosynthetic.
E) The sporophyte generation consists of relatively few cells within the flower.

32) Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophytes?
A) immature ovules
B) pollen tubes
C) ovaries
D) stamens
E) sepals

36) The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm cells?
A) binary fission
B) mitosis
C) meiosis
D) mitosis without subsequent cytokinesis
E) meiosis without subsequent cytokinesis

37) Angiosperm double fertilization is so-called because it features the formation of
A) two embryos from one egg and two sperm cells.
B) one embryo from one egg fertilized by two sperm cells.
C) two embryos from two sperm cells and two eggs.
D) one embryo involving one sperm cell and an endosperm involving a second sperm cell.
E) one embryo from two eggs fertilized by a single sperm cell.

40) Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest, assuming that they belong to two generations of the same angiosperm.

1. ovary
2. ovule
3. egg
4. carpel
5. embryo sac

A) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
B) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
C) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
D) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
E) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

42) Hypothetically, one of the major benefits of double fertilization in angiosperms is to
A) decrease the potential for mutation by insulating the embryo with other cells.
B) increase the number of fertilization events and offspring produced.
C) promote diversity in flower shape and color.
D) coordinate developmental timing between the embryo and its food stores.
E) emphasize embryonic survival by increasing embryo size.

45) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?
A) wind pollination
B) dominant gametophytes
C) fruits enclosing seeds
D) embryos enclosed within seed coats
E) sperm cells without flagella

46) In a typical angiosperm, what is the sequence of structures encountered by the tip of a growing pollen tube on its way to the egg?

1. micropyle
2. style
3. ovary
4. stigma

A) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
B) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
C) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
D) 1 → 3 → 4 → 2
E) 3 → 2 → 4 → 1

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues.

68) How many chromosomes should be in a generative cell nucleus?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 24
E) 32

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues.

70) How many chromosomes should be in an embryo nucleus?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 24
E) 32

92) If a female orchid bee has just left a Brazil nut tree with nectar in her stomach, and if she visits another flower on a different Brazil nut tree, what is the sequence in which the following events should occur?

1. double fertilization
2. pollen tube emerges from pollen grain
3. pollen tube enters micropyle
4. pollination

A) 4, 2, 3, 1
B) 4, 2, 1, 3
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 4, 3, 1
E) 2, 4, 1, 3

98) Where in an angiosperm would you find a megasporangium?
A) in the style of a flower
B) inside the tip of a pollen tube
C) enclosed in the stigma of a flower
D) within an ovule contained within an ovary of a flower
E) packed into pollen sacs within the anthers found on a stamen

100) With respect to angiosperms, which of the following is incorrectly paired with its chromosome count?

A) egg–n
B) megaspore–2n
C) microspore–n
D) zygote–2n
E) sperm–n

101) Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?
A) alternation of generations
B) ovules
C) integuments
D) pollen
E) dependent gametophytes

102) Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except
A) seeds.
B) pollen.
C) vascular tissue.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules.

1) Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as
A) the digestive system's opening.
B) suspension-feeding devices.
C) components of the jaw.
D) gill slits for respiration.
E) portions of the inner ear.

4) A new species of aquatic chordate is discovered that closely resembles an ancient form. It has the following characteristics: external armor of bony plates, no paired lateral fins, and a suspension-feeding mode of nutrition. In addition to these, it will probably have which of the following characteristics?
A) legs
B) no jaws
C) an amniotic egg
D) endothermy

6) What do all craniates have that earlier chordates did not have?
A) brain
B) vertebrae
C) cartilaginous pipe surrounding notochord
D) partial or complete skull
E) bone

9) The earliest known mineralized structures in vertebrates are associated with which function?
A) reproduction
B) feeding
C) locomotion
D) defense
E) respiration

12) Jaws first occurred in which extant group of fishes?
A) lampreys
B) chondrichthyans
C) ray-finned fishes
D) lungfishes
E) placoderms

19) Which of the following belongs to the lobe-fin clade?
A) chondrichthyans
B) ray-finned fishes
C) lampreys
D) hagfishes
E) tetrapods

20) Arrange these taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).

1. lobe-fins
2. amphibians
3. gnathostomes
4. osteichthyans
5. tetrapods

A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
B) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
C) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
D) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
E) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

21) A trend first observed in the evolution of the earliest tetrapods was
A) the appearance of jaws.
B) the appearance of bony vertebrae.
C) feet with digits.
D) the mineralization of the endoskeleton.
E) the amniotic egg.

22) What should be true of fossils of the earliest tetrapods?
A) They should show evidence of internal fertilization.
B) They should show evidence of having produced shelled eggs.
C) They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land.
D) They should be transitional forms with the fossils of chondrichthyans that lived at the same time.
E) They should feature the earliest indications of the appearance of jaws.

23) Which of these are amniotes?
A) amphibians
B) fishes
C) egg-laying mammals
D) placental mammals
E) More than one of these is correct.

24) Why is the amniotic egg considered an important evolutionary breakthrough?
A) It has a shell that increases gas exchange.
B) It allows deposition of eggs in a terrestrial environment.
C) It prolongs embryonic development.
D) It provides insulation to conserve heat.
E) It permits internal fertilization to be replaced by external fertilization.

26) Which of these characteristics added most to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments?
A) the shelled, amniotic egg
B) the ability to maintain a constant body temperature
C) two pairs of appendages
D) bony scales
E) a four-chambered heart

29) Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended directly from dinosaurs?
A) lizards
B) crocodiles
C) snakes
D) birds
E) tuataras

32) During chordate evolution, what is the sequence (from earliest to most recent) in which the following structures arose?

1. amniotic egg
2. paired fins
3. jaws
4. swim bladder
5. four-chambered heart

A) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
E) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

Answer: A

36) Female birds lay their eggs, thereby facilitating flight by reducing weight. Which "strategy" seems most likely for female bats to use to achieve the same goal?
A) lay shelled eggs
B) limit litters to a single embryo
C) refrain from flying throughout pregnancy (about 6 weeks long)
D) give birth to underdeveloped young, and subsequently carry them in a pouch that has teats
E) feed multiple embryos internally using placentas

37) In which vertebrates is fertilization exclusively internal?
A) chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and mammals
B) amphibians, mammals, and reptiles
C) chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and reptiles
D) reptiles and mammals
E) reptiles and amphibians

Match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions.

39) Internal fertilization, leathery amniotic egg, and skin that resists drying are characteristics of
A) amphibians.
B) nonbird reptiles.
C) chondrichthyans.
D) mammals.
E) birds.

Match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions.

40) Which of the following are the most abundant and diverse of the extant vertebrates?
A) ray-finned fishes
B) birds
C) amphibians
D) nonbird reptiles
E) mammals

Match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions.

41) What is the single unique characteristic that distinguishes extant birds from other extant vertebrates?
A) endothermy
B) feathers
C) an amniotic egg
D) flight
E) a four-chambered heart

42) Arrange the following taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific).

1. apes
2. hominins
3. Homo
4 anthropoids
5. primates

A) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
C) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
D) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

43) Which of these traits is most strongly associated with the adoption of bipedalism?
A) fingerprints
B) enhanced depth perception
C) shortened hind limbs
D) opposable big toe
E) repositioning of foramen magnum

44) Which of the following statements about human evolution is correct?
A) Modern humans are the only human species to have evolved on Earth.
B) Human ancestors were virtually identical to extant chimpanzees.
C) Human evolution has occurred within an unbranched lineage.
D) The upright posture and enlarged brain of humans evolved simultaneously.
E) Fossil evidence indicates that early anthropoids were arboreal and cat-sized.

45) Which of the following are considered apes?
A) lorises
B) New World monkeys
C) Old World monkeys
D) orangutans
E) tarsiers

46) Which of these species was the first to have been adapted for long-distance bipedalism?
A) Australopithecus garhi
B) H. erectus
C) H. ergaster
D) H. habilis
E) H. sapiens

47) Which of these species was apparently the first to craft stone tools?
A) Australopithecus garhi
B) H. erectus
C) H. ergaster
D) H. habilis
E) H. sapiens

48) Which of these species was the first to have some members migrate out of Africa?
A) Australopithecus garhi
B) H. erectus
C) H. ergaster
D) H. habilis
E) H. sapiens

49) Which of these species is currently thought to have coexisted (at the same time and places) with H. neanderthalensis?
A) H. erectus
B) H. ergaster
C) H. habilis
D) H. sapiens

50) Which of these species had members who moved out of Africa?
A) H. erectus
B) H. ergaster
C) H. habilis
D) H. sapiens
E) both H. sapiens and H. erectus

52) Which of these statements about human evolution is correct?
A) The ancestors of Homo sapiens were chimpanzees.
B) Human evolution has proceeded in an orderly fashion from an ancestral anthropoid to Homo sapiens.
C) The evolution of upright posture and enlarged brain occurred simultaneously.
D) Different species of the genus Homo have coexisted at various times throughout hominin evolution.
E) Mitochondrial DNA analysis indicates that modern humans are genetically very similar to Neanderthals.

53) The oldest fossil remains of Homo sapiens found so far date from about
A) 6 million years ago.
B) 1.6 million years ago.
C) 195,000 years ago.
D) 60,000 years ago.
E) 16,000 years ago.

54) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to Homo erectus?
A) Their fossils are not limited to Africa.
B) On average, H. erectus had a smaller brain than H. habilis.
C) H. erectus had a level of sexual dimorphism less than that of modern humans.
D) H. erectus was not known to use tools.
E) H. erectus evolved before H. habilis.

55) Which of the following is the most inclusive (most general) group, all of whose members have foramina magna centrally positioned in the base of the cranium?
A) hominoids
B) Homo
C) anthropoids
D) hominins
E) primates

56) Which of the following is the most inclusive (most general) group, all of whose members have fully opposable thumbs?
A) apes
B) Homo
C) anthropoids
D) hominins
E) primates

57) Which of the following is the most specific group that includes both the Old World monkeys and the New World monkeys?
A) apes
B) Homo
C) anthropoids
D) hominins
E) primates

65) We should expect the inner wall of the swim bladder to be lined with tissue that is derived from
A) ectoderm.
B) endoderm.
C) mesoderm.
D) mesoglea.
E) neurectoderm.

The following question refer to the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure 34.2.

Figure 34.2

72) Which number represents the birds?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10, if it were at the end of a branch emerging from the dinosaurs

81) Terry detaches the snakelike organism from the fish and uses a knife to cut off its head. In doing so, its brain slides out onto the deck of the boat. Terry peers into the cut end of the head and notices that the brain had lain in a sort of panlike structure that only partially surrounded the brain. What is the structure Terry is observing, and what is it made of?
A) skull, made of bone
B) cranium, made of bone
C) cranium, made of cartilage
D) vertebral column, made of bone
E) vertebral column, made of cartilage

82) Terry takes the body of the snakelike organism and slices it open along its dorsal side. If it is a hagfish, what should Terry see?
A) a well-developed series of bony vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord
B) a well-developed series of cartilaginous vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord
C) a tube of cartilage (surrounding the notochord) with dorsal projections on both sides of the spinal cord
D) a notochord, located underneath the spinal cord

85) Terry saved some of the tooth-like objects within the hagfish's round mouth to analyze their composition in his mentor's biochemistry research lab. Terry will find that they are composed of the same protein found in tetrapod
A) skin.
B) teeth.
C) bones.
D) cartilage.
E) muscles.

86) The class decided to humanely euthanize the organism and subsequently dissect it. Having decided that it was probably not a reptile, two of their original hypotheses regarding its identity remained. Which of the following, if observed, should help them arrive at a conclusive answer?
A) presence of a closed circulatory system
B) presence of moist, highly vascularized skin
C) presence of lungs
D) presence of a nerve cord
E) presence of a digestive system with two openings

87) The organism was found to have two lungs, but the left lung was much smaller than the right lung. Kelly added that the herpetology instructor had said that in most snakes, the same condition exists. If the size difference between the lungs in this organism is not a shared ancestral characteristic with its occurrence in snakes, then its existence in this organism is explained as which of the following?

1. a result of convergent evolution
2. an example of homologous structures
3. a similar adaptation to a shared lifestyle or body plan
4. a result of having identical Hox genes
5. a homoplasy

A) 3 only
B) 1 and 5
C) 1, 3, and 5
D) 2, 3, and 5
E) 3, 4, and 5

Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.

90) If the inner lining of the air sacs is neither thin nor highly vascularized, then what can be inferred about the air sacs?
A) They must not belong to the respiratory system.
B) They cannot be derived from endoderm.
C) They cannot be sites of gas exchange between air and blood.
D) They must obtain nutrition from some source other than the bloodstream.
E) They cannot effectively moisturize the air before it reaches the lungs.

Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.

91) Some bird bones are hollow rather than honeycombed. The hollow bones mostly contain air sacs. The replacement of bone marrow with air sacs is properly understood as an adaptation to
A) reduce the weight of the bird.
B) facilitate flight.
C) eliminate the functions that marrow performs.
D) All three of the options listed are correct.
E) Only two of the options listed are correct.

92) Birds generate a lot of heat, especially during flight. Yet the adipose tissue under their skin and the feathers atop their skin make it difficult to eliminate excess heat across the skin. Which of the following alternatives can absorb body heat and eliminate it from the bird most effectively?
A) air in the air sacs
B) lymph in the lymphatic vessels
C) blood in the vessels
D) blood in the heart
E) urine in the bladder

3) If Archaeopteryx had air sacs, then which of its features would have had the opposite effect on enabling Archaeopteryx to fly long distances from that provided by air sacs?

1. teeth
2. contour feathers
3. wing claws
4. long tail with many vertebrae

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 4
E) 1, 3, and 4

Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.

94) Which feature of some carinates has the same effect on weight as the presence of air sacs?
A) presence of a large, heavily keratinized beak
B) absence of a urinary bladder
C) presence of a carina (keel)
D) number of chambers in the heart
E) presence of large pectoral muscles

Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.

95) The movement of air along parabronchi is most similar to the movement of
A) air in the lungs of other amniotes.
B) food/waste in a gastrovascular cavity.
C) food/waste in a digestive system with separate mouth and anus.
D) the frog tongue during feeding.
E) air in lungs of terrestrial amphibians.

96) Which type of bird is most likely to need air sacs to reduce its weight?
A) birds that migrate long distances
B) waterfowl that float on water, but do not dive
C) birds that spend much of their time underwater
D) ratites

Due to its system of nine air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.

97) The one-way flow of air along parabronchi makes what type of exchange mechanism possible, at least theoretically?
A) the same as that occurring in fish gills
B) the same as that occurring in insect tracheae
C) the same as that occurring in mammalian lungs
D) the same as that occurring in echinoderm skin gills

99) Gd is a cold-loving fungus. Thus, which characteristics of normal bat behavior can be most expected to favor the growth of this fungus?
A) southward migration during the winter
B) communal roosting in tightly packed clusters during hibernation
C) reliance on fat reserves for calories during hibernation
D) much-reduced metabolic rate during hibernation
E) hibernating in parts of the cave that are farthest away from the mouth of the cave

Answer: D

100) Gd is a cold-loving fungus. Thus, which characteristics of abnormal bat behavior can be most expected to favor the growth of this fungus?
A) shifting roosting location to the mouth of the cave during winter
B) searching for food during winter
C) searching for food during the day
D) All three of the options listed are correct.
E) Only two of the options listed are correct.

101) Gd is a cold-loving fungus. Thus, which characteristics of normal bat behavior can be most expected to favor the spread of this fungus to uninfected bats?
A) southward migration during the winter
B) communal roosting in tightly packed clusters during hibernation
C) reliance on fat reserves for calories during hibernation
D) much-reduced metabolic rate during hibernation
E) hibernating in parts of the cave that are farthest away from the mouth of the cave

104) Vertebrates and tunicates share
A) jaws adapted for feeding.
B) a high degree of cephalization.
C) the formation of structures from the neural crest.
D) an endoskeleton that includes a skull.
E) a notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord.

105) Some animals that lived 530 million years ago resembled lancelets but had a brain and a skull. These animals may represent
A) the first chordates.
B) a "missing link" between urochordates and cephalochordates.
C) early craniates.
D) marsupials.
E) nontetrapod gnathostomes.

106) Which of the following could be considered the most recent common ancestor of living tetrapods?
A) a sturdy-finned, shallow-water lobe-fin whose appendages had skeletal supports similar to those of terrestrial vertebrates
B) an armored, jawed placoderm with two pairs of appendages
C) an early ray-finned fish that developed bony skeletal supports in its paired fins
D) a salamander that had legs supported by a bony skeleton but moved with the side-to-side bending typical of fishes
E) an early terrestrial caecilian whose legless condition had evolved secondarily

107) Unlike eutherians, both monotremes and marsupials
A) lack nipples.
B) have some embryonic development outside the uterus.
C) lay eggs.
D) are found in Australia and Africa.
E) include only insectivores and herbivores.

108) Which clade does not include humans?
A) synapsids
B) lobe-fins
C) diapsids
D) craniates
E) osteichthyans

109) As hominins diverged from other primates, which of the following appeared first?
A) reduced jawbones
B) language
C) bipedal locomotion
D) the making of stone tools
E) an enlarged brain

25) Which era is known as the "age of reptiles"?
A) Cenozoic
B) Mesozoic
C) Paleozoic
D) Devonian
E) Cambrian

27) Which of the following is characteristic of most extant reptiles and most extant mammals?
A) ectothermy
B) diaphragm
C) shelled eggs
D) keratinized skin
E) conical teeth that are relatively uniform in size

1) The male wasp, Campsoscolia ciliata, transfers pollen from one orchid to another orchid of the same species. What "reward" does the male wasp receive from the orchid plants for helping with the orchid pollination?
A) a supply of energy-rich nectar
B) volatile chemical hormones that help the male wasp find a sexually receptive female
C) no reward; the male wasp is deceived by the flower shape and odor
D) successful copulation with the flower
E) a store of nectar that the wasp can use in time of famine

2) Which of the following plant/animal interactions is not a mutually beneficial (mutualistic) relationship?
A) honeybees gathering pollen from apple blossoms
B) butterflies gathering nectar from lily blossoms
C) beetles feeding on magnolia blossoms
D) ants protecting and feeding from nectaries of Acacia
E) wasps such as Campsoscolia ciliata transferring pollen in orchid flowers

3) Which of the following best describes the ploidy level of a fertilized embryo sac?
A) All cells are diploid.
B) All cells are triploid.
C) All cells are polyploid.
D) The ploidy level varies among species.
E) There are haploid, diploid, and triploid cells.

4) A flowering plant with a deleterious mutation in microsporogenesis would most likely
A) fail to produce sepals.
B) fail to produce petals.
C) fail to produce anthers.
D) fail to produce pollen.
E) fail to produce ovules.

5) When comparing the mature seeds of a pine tree to an apple tree, which of the following is a correct statement?
A) The developmental sequences postfertilization are identical.
B) Both contain triploid tissue.
C) The nutritive tissues are both haploid.
D) Only the apple seed has a diploid seed coat.
E) Both contain haploid and diploid tissues.

6) A mature, unfertilized ovule in an angiosperm is the result of
A) a single meiotic division.
B) a single mitotic division.
C) both meiotic and mitotic divisions.
D) mitosis from the megaspore mother cell.
E) differentiation from the suspensor tissues.

7) At the conclusion of meiosis in plants, the end products are always four haploid
A) spores.
B) eggs.
C) sperm.
D) seeds.
E) gametes.

8) Which of the following is the correct sequence during the alternation of generations life cycle in a flowering plant?

A) sporophyte → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes → fertilization → diploid zygote
B) sporophyte → mitosis → gametophyte → meiosis → sporophyte
C) haploid gametophyte → gametes → meiosis → fertilization → diploid sporophyte
D) sporophyte → spores → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes
E) haploid sporophyte → spores → fertilization → diploid gametophyte

9) Which of the following is true in plants?
A) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes.
B) Meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
C) The gametophyte is within the flower in angiosperms.
D) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes, and meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
E) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes, meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores, and the gametophyte is within the flower in angiosperms.

10) Which of the following are true of most angiosperms?
A) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed.
B) They have an ovary that becomes a fruit.
C) They have a small (reduced) sporophyte.
D) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed and an ovary that becomes a fruit.
E) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed, an ovary that becomes a fruit, and a small (reduced) sporophyte.

11) Based on studies of plant evolution and anatomy, which flower part is least likely to have evolved from a leaf?
A) stamen
B) carpel
C) petals
D) sepals
E) receptacle

12) All of the following floral parts are involved in pollination or fertilization except the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.

13) The ovary is most often located on/in the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.

14) Microsporangia in flowering plants are located in the
A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.

15) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from the outside to the inside of a complete flower?
A) petals → sepals → stamens → carpels
B) sepals → stamens → petals → carpels
C) spores → gametes → zygote → embryo
D) sepals → petals → stamens → carpels
E) male gametophyte → female gametophyte → sepals → petals

17) All of the following are primary functions of flowers except
A) pollen production.
B) photosynthesis.
C) meiosis.
D) egg production.
E) sexual reproduction.

18) Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except the
A) ovule.
B) style.
C) megasporangium.
D) anther.
E) ovary.

19) A perfect flower is fertile, but may be either complete or incomplete. Which of the following correctly describes a perfect flower?
A) It has no sepals.
B) It has fused carpels.
C) It is on a dioecious plant.
D) It has no endosperm.
E) It has both stamens and carpels.

21) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is false?
A) The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B) Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C) Pollination is the placing of pollen on the stigma of a carpel.
D) The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell that contains two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus.
E) Flowers produce fruits within the ovules.

23) In flowering plants, pollen is released from the
A) anther.
B) stigma.
C) carpel.
D) filament.
E) pollen tube.

24) In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages is diploid?
A) megaspore
B) generative nucleus of a pollen grain
C) polar nuclei of the embryo sac
D) microsporocyte
E) both megaspore and polar nuclei

25) Where does meiosis occur in flowering plants?
A) megasporocyte
B) microsporocyte
C) endosperm
D) pollen tube
E) megasporocyte and microsporocyte

26) Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering plant reproduces?
A) meiosis → fertilization → ovulation → germination
B) fertilization → meiosis → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm
C) meiosis → pollination → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm
D) growth of pollen tube → pollination → germination → fertilization
E) meiosis → mitosis → nuclear fusion → pollen

27) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its life-cycle generation?
A) anthergametophyte
B) pollengametophyte
C) embryo sacgametophyte
D) stamensporophyte
E) embryosporophyte

28) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a pollen sac?
A) sporangia → meiosis → two haploid cells → meiosis → two pollen grains per cell
B) pollen grain → meiosis → two generative cells → two tube cells per pollen grain
C) two haploid cells → meiosis → generative cell → tube cell-fertilization → pollen grain
D) pollen grain → mitosis → microspores → meiosis → generative cell plus tube cell
E) microsporocyte → meiosis → microspores → mitosis → two haploid cells per pollen grain

29) Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule?
A) An antheridium forms from the megasporophyte.
B) A megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis.
C) The egg nucleus is usually diploid.
D) A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination.
E) The endosperm surrounds the megaspore mother cell.

30) Where and by which process are sperm cells formed in plants?
A) meiosis in pollen grains
B) meiosis in anthers
C) mitosis in male gametophyte pollen tube
D) mitosis in the micropyle
E) mitosis in the embryo sac

31) In which of the following pairs are the two terms equivalent?
A) ovuleegg
B) embryo sacfemale gametophyte
C) endospermmale gametophyte
D) seedzygote
E) microsporepollen grain

32) Which of the following is the male gametophyte of a flowering plant?
A) ovule
B) microsporocyte
C) pollen grain
D) embryo sac
E) stamen

34) In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains
A) two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain.
B) a generative cell and a tube cell.
C) two sperm nuclei and one tube cell nucleus.
D) two haploid microspores.
E) a haploid nucleus and a diploid pollen wall.

35) Three mitotic divisions within the female gametophyte of the megaspore produce
A) three antipodal cells, two polar nuclei, one egg, and two synergids.
B) the triple fusion nucleus.
C) three pollen grains.
D) two antipodal cells, two polar nuclei, two eggs, and two synergids.
E) a tube nucleus, a generative cell, and a sperm cell.

36) What is the difference between pollination and fertilization in flowering plants?
A) Fertilization precedes pollination.
B) Pollination easily occurs between plants of different species, whereas fertilization is within a species.
C) Pollen is formed within megasporangia so that male and female gametes are near each other.
D) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma. Fertilization is the fusion of haploid nuclei.
E) If fertilization occurs, pollination is unnecessary.

38) Genetic incompatibility does not affect the
A) attraction of a suitable insect pollinator.
B) germination of the pollen on the stigma.
C) growth of the pollen tube in the style.
D) membrane permeability of cells.
E) different individuals of the same species.

40) As a flower develops, which transition is most likely to occur?
A) The microspores become pollen grains.
B) The ovule becomes a fruit.
C) The petals are retained.
D) The vegetative nucleus becomes a sperm nucleus.
E) The ovules become ovaries.

41) The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to
A) protect against animal predation.
B) ensure double fertilization.
C) form a seed coat.
D) direct development of the endosperm.
E) produce hormones that ensure successful pollination.

45) What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms?
A) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue.
B) A triploid zygote is formed.
C) Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.
D) Two embryos develop in every seed.
E) The antipodal cells develop into the seed coat.

47) Which of the following metabolic processes is most likely to still be occurring at low levels in a fully mature, viable, dry seed?
A) photosynthesis
B) respiration
C) fatty acid synthesis
D) protein synthesis
E) DNA replication

53) Fruits develop from
A) microsporangia.
B) receptacles.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules.

The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.

Figure 38.1

73) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s), after fertilization, give(s) rise to the embryo plant?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.

Figure 38.1

74) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s) become(s) the triploid endosperm?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

The following question refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm shown in Figure 38.1.

Figure 38.1

75) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s) guide(s) the pollen tube to the egg cell?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

78) A seed develops from
A) an ovum.
B) a pollen grain.
C) an ovule.
D) an ovary.
E) an embryo.

79) A fruit is
A) a mature ovary.
B) a mature ovule.
C) a seed plus its integuments.
D) a fused carpel.
E) an enlarged embryo sac.

80) Double fertilization means that
A) flowers must be pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds.
B) every egg must receive two sperm to produce an embryo.
C) one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the polar nuclei.
D) the egg of the embryo sac is diploid.
E) every sperm has two nuclei.

83) Some dioecious species have the XY genotype for male and XX for female. After double fertilization, what would be the genotypes of the embryos and endosperm nuclei?

A) embryo X/endosperm XX or embryo Y/endosperm XY
B) embryo XX/endosperm XX or embryo XY/endosperm XY
C) embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XYY
D) embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XXY
E) embryo XY/endosperm XXX or embryo XX/endosperm XXY

84) A small flower with green petals is most likely
A) bee-pollinated.
B) bird-pollinated.
C) bat-pollinated.
D) wind-pollinated.
E) moth-pollinated.

85) The pollen produced by wind-pollinated plants is often smaller than the pollen produced by animal-pollinated plants. A reason for this might be that
A) wind-pollinated plants, in general, are smaller than animal-pollinated plants.
B) wind-pollinated plants release pollen in the spring, before the plant has stored enough energy to make large pollen grains.
C) small pollen grains can be carried farther by the wind.
D) animal pollinators are more facile at picking up large pollen grains.
E) wind-pollinated flowers don't need large pollen grains because they don't have to attract animal pollinators.