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AMT RMA PRACTICE EXAM

1.

An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the

hip

2.

The kidneys are located behind the

peritoneum,

3.

During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the

epiglottis

4.

The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is

keratin

5.

Where is chyme produced?

stomach

6.

Digestion that breaks food into tiny pieces is

mechanical

7.

The hormone responsible for ovulation is

LH

8.

A patient diagnosed with farsightedness has

hyperopia

9.

The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called

conjunctiva

10.

Urine is formed in the

nephron

11.

Which of the following constitutes 2%-4% of the WBCs?

Eosinophils

12.

The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the

conjunctiva

13.

A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the

prostate gland

14.

The urinary bladder is located in the

pelvic cavity

15.

When a muscle contracts, it becomes

shorter & thicker

16.

Where do you find the pulse from the patient’s dorsalis pedis artery?

top of foot

17.

The outer layer of the skin is the

epidermis

18.

In what quadrant is the liver located?

upper right

19.

What organ is located in the lymphatic system?

spleen

20.

A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is

a comminuted fracture

21.

Egg cells are produced where?

ovarian follicles

22.

The major function of the circulatory system is

transportation

23.

The largest bone of the body is the

femur

24.

Where do peristaltic waves occur?

esophagus

25.

The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the

renal pelvis

26.

The function of insulin is to

assist glucose into the cells

27.

The internal folds of the stomach are known as

rugae

28.

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

aorta

29.

The site of fertilization is usually the

fallopian tube

30.

Muscles are attached to bones by

tendons

31.

The combining form "hist/o" means

tissue

32.

Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

presbyopia

33.

The medical term for inflammation of the liver is

hepatits

34.

what is the first portion of the small intestine

duodenum

35.

The prefix "ad" means

to add to

36.

Which term is best described as “destruction by burning”?

electro cauterization

37.

The combining form that means "red" is

erythro

38.

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

ascites

39.

In a patient’s progress note you see that the physician has used the term “necrosis” regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to

dead tissue

40.

The suffix meaning "inflammation" is

itis

41.

The term "myotomy" means incision into

a muscle

42.

Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:

sialadenitis

43.

Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

tonsillitis

44.

The surgical incision into the abdomen is

laparotomy

45.

The medical term for indigestion is

dyspepsia

46.

“Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges”, defines the term

aneurysm

47.

A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is

bolus

48.

Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?

postprandial

49.

"Ostomy" is a

suffix.

50.

Low blood pressure is

hypotension

51.

The medical term for a toothache is

dentalgia

52.

Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day.

QID

53.

The abbreviation "QID" means

four times a day

54.

The inflammation of the pancreas is

pancreatitis

55.

What term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body?

Metastasis

56.

Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population?

gerontologist

57.

The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

suspected child abuse

58.

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

civil and criminal liability

59.

The Controlled Substances Act is a United States law that regulates controlled drugs. The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilities of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substances,EXCEPT

prescribing controlled drugs

60.

In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician’s supply the performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is known as

malfeasance

61.

Translated as “the thing speaks for itself”, which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff?

Res ipsa loquitur

62.

A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient’s legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patient’s condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decide whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent?

Informed consent

63.

The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

electronic exchange of patient information

64.

Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to

define what is included in the practice of medicine

65.

Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed?

Informed

66.

The physician informs the medical assistant that he or she will no longer treat a patient who refuses to follow his or her medical advice and treatment plan. The procedure that the medical assistant should follow is to

send a letter of formal withdrawal to the patient by certified mail, return receipt requested

67.

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure?

Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file

68.

Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?

Subpoena duces tecum

69.

The statute that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the

Medical Practice Act

70.

An example of a medical assistant illegally practicing medicine is

giving advice on a patient condition.

71.

Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment

Respondeat superior

72.

Substitution of another surgeon without the patient’s consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called

ghost surgery

73.

Mrs. Jones is diagnosed with a terminal illness. She has given permission for her husband, Mr. Jones, to have access to her medical information. Dr. Smith informs Mr. Jones that his wife is terminally ill. Mr. Jones does not want Dr. Smith to tell her patient that she is terminally ill. The physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis?

Veracity

74.

A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of

invasion of privacy

75.

Which statement best describes the practice known as “fee splitting”?

It is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients.

76.

If a caring family member asks about a patient’s treatment, the medical assistant should

provide only information that has been authorized by the patient

77.

The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called

restating

78.

This type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs. It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods.

Active listening

79.

Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the “Hierarchy of Needs”. Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Needs” starting from the bottom to the top?

Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

80.

Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of

authority.

81.

When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis?

avoid compression stockings

82.

With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect?

Iron– nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks

83.

Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT

Eating a low-calorie, low- protein diet to promote healing

84.

Instructing patients in the collection of a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education?

On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe

85.

Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following except

Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

86.

Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient?

Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL

87.

A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

coordination of benefits

88.

The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called

a pre-existing conditions waiver

89.

Medicare Part B covers

prescription medical equipment

90.

Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated

80% of approved amount

91.

The specific amount specified by an insurance plan that the patient must pay toward the charges for professional services rendered is the

copayment.

92.

Medicare Part B pays physicians on a fee scale consisting of three parts: 1. Physician’s work. 2. Charge-based professional liability expenses. 3. Charge-based overhead. This fee scale is known as

Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS

93.

Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?

Capitated

94.

A military medical insurance plan that is administered by the government is

TRICARE

95.

This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities.

CHAMPVA

96.

In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co-payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is

Medicare Part D

97.

A range of usual fees in the same community is the

prevailing fee.

98.

A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the

assignment of Benefits

99.

A payment method used by many managed care organizations in which a fixed amount of money is reimbursed to the provider for patients enrolled during a specific period of time, no matter what services are received or how many visits are made

Capitation

100.

The routine waiving of co-payments

is against federal guidelines

101.

An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies.

Fiscal intermediary

102.

Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?

Using "rule out" diagnosis

103.

A letter for statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patient’s co-insurance, and the allowed amounts.

. Explanation of benefits (EOB)

104.

A person who holds a health benefit plan is a

. subscriber

105.

Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should

refer all inquiries to the collection agency

106.

The petty cash fund may be used

for small incidental items

107.

Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column?

Insurance write-offs

108.

If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a

net profit of $2,000

109.

The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the

payee.

110.

For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement?

. Restrictive

111.

Which one of the following represents the total of all patient outstanding balances owed to the practice?

Accounts receivable

112.

A compilation or average of physician fees over a given period is know as

fee profile.

113.

The process of proving that a bank statement and checkbook balance and are in agreement is known as

reconciliation

114.

The words “for deposit only” specify what type of endorsement?

Restrictive

115.

The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually

a percentage of each amount collected

116.

Regulation Z of the Truth in Lending Act is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission and is a part of the Consumer Credit Protection Act. When a physician agrees and accepts payment in installments, the physician must provide a disclosure statement about finance charges even if no finance charges are involved. What is the minimum number of installments in this Regulation?

More than four installments

117.

Expenses that will most likely be included in the capital budget for a medical facility are

medical equipment

118.

The person who signs his or her name on the back of a check for the purpose of transferring title to another person is the

endorser

119.

Consider the legal statement in which a person authorizes another person to act as his or her agent. The authority may be limited to the handling of specific procedures. The person to which authorization is granted is known as the

. power of attorney for healthcare

120.

The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to

leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule.

121.

When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the

packing slip

122.

It is recommneded that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place in the medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to

pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle

123.

Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician?

Susan Martin, MD

124.

An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients begins from the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patient’s treatment. This approach is known as

empathy.

125.

A method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called

triage

126.

What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds

127.

Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area?

Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area

128.

When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to

call the patient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database

129.

Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter?

July 27, 2011

130.

When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called

an itinerary

131.

The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physician’s schedule in order to

. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients

132.

Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets

Demographic

133.

When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should

document the failed appointment in the patient's chart

134.

Which of the following type of magazines or journals should not be in the reception area

Physician's professional journals

135.

Medical records in this medical office are filed alphabetically. Arrange the following names in alphabetical order to prepare them for filing. Select the sequence of the numbers correctly that alphabetizes the names
(1) Smith, James
(2) Smithson, Jane
(3) Smithy, J.
(4) Smithe, John

(1), (4), (2), (3

136.

Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)?

The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record

137.

To prevent back pain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended?

. Keep feet together

138.

What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash?

Friction and running warm water

139.

What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines

OSHA

140.

While Susan is preparing a blood specimen for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill?

Don personal protective equipment such as gloves, use a cleanup kit, sprinkle congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in biohazard container.

141.

Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT

. asepsis

142.

According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with

. blood.

143.

When performing skin preparation before a surgical procedure, the antiseptic solution or soap should be applied starting at the incision site and using a motion that is

circular starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area.

144.

Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of

chemicals.

145.

The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to

allow the items to dry

146.

Sterilization is the

destruction of all microbial life

147.

Which one of the following processes is required for surgical instruments and equipment that will come into contact with internal body tissues or cavities that are considered sterile?

. Sterilization

148.

The instrument used to view the urinary bladder is

cystscope.

149.

A stainless steel instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a

tuning fork

150.

What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue?

Cutting and dissecting instruments

151.

What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

. Retractors

152.

The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the

ear

153.

Instruments used to take blood pressure are the

sphygmomanometer and stethoscope.

154.

What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?

EKG

155.

A hemostat is used to

control bleeding.

156.

Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis

Hemostat clamp

157.

To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for

60 seconds.

158.

A marked drop in blood pressure is found with

. shock

159.

Normal bacteria that are found in the intestinal tract and are the most common cause of lower-tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements), are

. E. coli

160.

The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is

. radial.

161.

Which of the following is not associated with Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?

Type II

162.

The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include

weight gain

163.

The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of

. 60-80 beats per minute

164.

A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as

a seizure

165.

The knee-chest position is used for examination of the

rectum.

166.

You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

Trendelenburg

167.

A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

Fowlers

168.

Cheyne Stokes describes a

type of respiration.

169.

What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope?

Apical

170.

What blood pressure would be by a hypertensive patient?

140/90

171.

Cardinal signs are also known as

blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations

172.

The "Snellen Chart" is used to test

sight

173.

Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the

. anterior forearm and the upper back.

174.

Sarah knows that legally, all vaccine providers must give patients, their parents, or their legal representatives, the appropriate Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) whenever a vaccination is administered. The required information that must be recorded on the patient's medical record includes the

edition date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (i.e., the date of the visit when the vaccine is administered).

175.

While administering an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

. Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over

176.

A drug used to relieve pain is an

. analgesic

177.

Sarah is administering an influenza shot to her patient. She knows that when administering an injection into the deltoid muscle, caution must be taken to avoid the

radial and ulnar nerves

178.

For a medication to be maintained at the proper blood level, it must be given

at the right time.

179.

The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL. How many mL will be administered?

2.0 mL

180.

Which of the following administration routes will result in the most rapid action of a drug?

Intravenous

181.

Electrosurgery is used for

. aspirating tissues or cells

182.

What is a fenestrated sterile drape?

A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed.

183.

For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT

acetone

184.

Which of the following is a surgery that is used to treat an abscess?

Incision and drainage

185.

Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include

needle holder and scissors

186.

Which one of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality

immobilization

187.

Sensitivity testing in Microbiology is performed to

check for antibiotic sensitivity to the bacteria found in the specimen

188.

Which of these statements is true regarding angioplasty

. Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue

189.

Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause

dilution of the sample with tissue fluid

190.

Which type of bleeding is easiest to control?

Capillary

191.

Which one of the following tests identifies the organism associated with a urinary tract infection?

Culture and sensitivity

192.

The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to

the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.

193.

Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases?

Acne/boils

194.

A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of

HCG.

195.

A normal color of urine is

straw.

196.

The "universal donor" has blood type

O -

197.

Which one of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism?

. Immune response

198.

Which of the following best represent the major areas of urinalysis?

. physical, chemical, microscopic

199.

In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is

. RL

200.

The basic EKG has how many leads?

12

201.

When preparing a patient for an EKG, leads should be placed

on the intercostal spaces

202.

What typically does not cause an artifact in the tracing of an electrocardiogram?

. Relaxed patient

203.

What should be done if a person exhibits changing levels of consciousness?

Have the patient lie down

204.

What is the first thing you should do if you walk into a room and find a patient collapsed on the floor

Assess the scene before going any further

205.

After putting gloves on, what should be done to assist a bleeding victim?

Apply direct pressure to the site

206.

When using a fire extinguisher, what does the acronym PASS mean?

Pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep

207.

What is the proper treatment for syncope?

. Place the patient in a supine position with the legs elevated

208.

A second degree burn would appear as

red, edematous, wet, shiny or blistered.

209.

Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary,

once a year.

210.

The first step in controlling bleeding is

direct pressure

211.

The outer ear includes the

ear canal

212.

A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia?

Pernicious

213.

Which one of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes?

Anemia

214.

he largest glandular organ in the body is the

. liver

215.

Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at

puberty

216.

The thoracic cavity is lined by the

. pleural membrane.

217.

The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the

fibrous pericardium

218.

Approximately 60% of the plasma proteins are formed by

albumins.

219.

The urinary system consists of

two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra.

220.

Digestion DOES NOT involve which organ?

Spleen

221.

Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

Protection from light

222.

Where are the sublingual glands located

Beneath mucous membrane

223.

An abnormal scar formation is

keloid

224.

Baby teeth are called?

Deciduous

225.

A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called

rectocele

226.

Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum?

Proctologist

227.

Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

Vitamin C

228.

Encephalopathy is defined as

any dysfunction of the brain

229.

The study of the stomach and the intestine is

gastroenterology

230.

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

ascites

231.

The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence

Defamation

232.

The patient puts out his or her arm to allow the medical assistant to draw blood. This type of consent is called

express

233.

In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

Being an emancipated minor

234.

Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed?

Informed

235.

Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?

Subpoena duces tecum

236.

Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?

Subpoena duces tecum

237.

The provision of medical care to physician's colleagues, their families, or staff free of charge (or at a reduced fee) is called

professional courtesy.

238.

Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’ stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages?

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

239.

The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as

denial

240.

Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following except

feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum

241.

A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

d. coordination of benefits.

242.

Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician

are responsible for a portion of the fee

243.

Types of health insurance and plan benefits: This type of benefit covers catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury. This insurance takes over when basic medical, hospitalization, and surgical benefits end.

Major medical

244.

Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person’s home, business, or car, without regards to the insured person’s actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called

liability insurance

245.

Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services

Managed care plan

246.

An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is

J0540

247.

When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those

that have not cleared the bank

248.

Things that are owed or debts are called

liabilities.

249.

This type of check has a detachable form. The detachable portion is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn and shows discounts and various itemizations. The detachable portion is removed before the check is presented for payment

Voucher check

250.

An invoice for treatment of a patient who is now deceased should be mailed to the

executor of estate

251.

Which statement below is true with respect to an emancipated minor

An emancipated minor is responsible for his or her own medical bill

252.

Employers are required by law to withhold certain amounts from employees’ earnings. These amounts must be reported and forwarded to the IRS to be applied toward payment of income tax. The Income Tax Withholding is also known as

W-4

253.

A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patient’s medical record. She understands that corrections in the medical record are made by

drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it.

254.

Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the following medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest. Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.
(1) 06 14 06
(2) 06 06 06
(3) 06 05 06
(4) 05 01 06
Choose one answer.

(4), (3), (2), (1)

255.

When patients arrive at the physician’s office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

256.

Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must

prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration.

257.

Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT

sterile team members do not need to face each other.

258.

The destruction of all microorganisms is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is

sterilization.

259.

hen performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned

below the elbows

260.

The most effective method of sterilization is

autoclaving

261.

The destruction of all microorganisms is known as

sterilization.

262.

What is the primary method for sterilizing instruments and equipment?

Autoclave

263.

What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

Retractors

264.

The instrument pictured below is

sphygmomanometer

265.

Instruments used to take blood pressure are the

sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

266.

Forceps are used to

hold tissue

267.

Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis?

Hemostat clamp

268.

A hemostat is used to

control bleeding.

269.

When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be

at the level of the heart.

270.

An afebrile patient is

without fever.

271.

An febrile patient is

has a fever

272.

The method used to perform a breast examination is

palpation.

273.

A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

Fowlers

274.

The angle for a subcutaneous injection is

45 degrees

275.

Cheyne Stokes describes a

type of respiration

276.

The position pictured below is the

Sim's.

277.

Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the

anterior forearm and the upper back

278.

A syringe marked with U 100 would be used for administering which of the following?

Insulin

279.

Two tablespoons of medication are equal to

30 mL. (1 tablespoon=15mL)

280.

Laura’s patient has just been informed that she is pregnant. Laura explains to her patient that she should not take any medications without the knowledge of her physician. Medications considered relatively safe in pregnancy are classified in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) category

A

281.

Which of sutures does not require removal from the body?

Catgut

282.

Most instruments are classified according to their function, which instrument is classified as a dilating/probing instrument?

specula

283.

When preparing a pamphlet for the gastroenterologist’s office regarding IBS you would want to include information regarding the treatment of

chronic constipation and diarrhea.

284.

This statement is true regarding angioplasty?

Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue

285.

Palpating the venipuncture site

. contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein

286.

A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is

timed

287.

The most common blood type is

O+

288.

The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to

the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.

289.

The "universal donor" has blood type

O-

290.

A greenish-brown urine may be indicate of

hepatitis

291.

The appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to

place the patient supine with legs elevated

292.

If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should

drag the patient by the heels to safety