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AMT RMA PRACTICE EXAM

front 1

An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the

back 1

hip

front 2

The kidneys are located behind the

back 2

peritoneum,

front 3

During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the

back 3

epiglottis

front 4

The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is

back 4

keratin

front 5

Where is chyme produced?

back 5

stomach

front 6

Digestion that breaks food into tiny pieces is

back 6

mechanical

front 7

The hormone responsible for ovulation is

back 7

LH

front 8

A patient diagnosed with farsightedness has

back 8

hyperopia

front 9

The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called

back 9

conjunctiva

front 10

Urine is formed in the

back 10

nephron

front 11

Which of the following constitutes 2%-4% of the WBCs?

back 11

Eosinophils

front 12

The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the

back 12

conjunctiva

front 13

A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the

back 13

prostate gland

front 14

The urinary bladder is located in the

back 14

pelvic cavity

front 15

When a muscle contracts, it becomes

back 15

shorter & thicker

front 16

Where do you find the pulse from the patient’s dorsalis pedis artery?

back 16

top of foot

front 17

The outer layer of the skin is the

back 17

epidermis

front 18

In what quadrant is the liver located?

back 18

upper right

front 19

What organ is located in the lymphatic system?

back 19

spleen

front 20

A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is

back 20

a comminuted fracture

front 21

Egg cells are produced where?

back 21

ovarian follicles

front 22

The major function of the circulatory system is

back 22

transportation

front 23

The largest bone of the body is the

back 23

femur

front 24

Where do peristaltic waves occur?

back 24

esophagus

front 25

The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the

back 25

renal pelvis

front 26

The function of insulin is to

back 26

assist glucose into the cells

front 27

The internal folds of the stomach are known as

back 27

rugae

front 28

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

back 28

aorta

front 29

The site of fertilization is usually the

back 29

fallopian tube

front 30

Muscles are attached to bones by

back 30

tendons

front 31

The combining form "hist/o" means

back 31

tissue

front 32

Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

back 32

presbyopia

front 33

The medical term for inflammation of the liver is

back 33

hepatits

front 34

what is the first portion of the small intestine

back 34

duodenum

front 35

The prefix "ad" means

back 35

to add to

front 36

Which term is best described as “destruction by burning”?

back 36

electro cauterization

front 37

The combining form that means "red" is

back 37

erythro

front 38

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

back 38

ascites

front 39

In a patient’s progress note you see that the physician has used the term “necrosis” regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to

back 39

dead tissue

front 40

The suffix meaning "inflammation" is

back 40

itis

front 41

The term "myotomy" means incision into

back 41

a muscle

front 42

Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:

back 42

sialadenitis

front 43

Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

back 43

tonsillitis

front 44

The surgical incision into the abdomen is

back 44

laparotomy

front 45

The medical term for indigestion is

back 45

dyspepsia

front 46

“Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges”, defines the term

back 46

aneurysm

front 47

A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is

back 47

bolus

front 48

Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?

back 48

postprandial

front 49

"Ostomy" is a

back 49

suffix.

front 50

Low blood pressure is

back 50

hypotension

front 51

The medical term for a toothache is

back 51

dentalgia

front 52

Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day.

back 52

QID

front 53

The abbreviation "QID" means

back 53

four times a day

front 54

The inflammation of the pancreas is

back 54

pancreatitis

front 55

What term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body?

back 55

Metastasis

front 56

Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population?

back 56

gerontologist

front 57

The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

back 57

suspected child abuse

front 58

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

back 58

civil and criminal liability

front 59

The Controlled Substances Act is a United States law that regulates controlled drugs. The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilities of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substances,EXCEPT

back 59

prescribing controlled drugs

front 60

In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician’s supply the performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is known as

back 60

malfeasance

front 61

Translated as “the thing speaks for itself”, which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff?

back 61

Res ipsa loquitur

front 62

A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient’s legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patient’s condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decide whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent?

back 62

Informed consent

front 63

The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

back 63

electronic exchange of patient information

front 64

Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to

back 64

define what is included in the practice of medicine

front 65

Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed?

back 65

Informed

front 66

The physician informs the medical assistant that he or she will no longer treat a patient who refuses to follow his or her medical advice and treatment plan. The procedure that the medical assistant should follow is to

back 66

send a letter of formal withdrawal to the patient by certified mail, return receipt requested

front 67

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure?

back 67

Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file

front 68

Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?

back 68

Subpoena duces tecum

front 69

The statute that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the

back 69

Medical Practice Act

front 70

An example of a medical assistant illegally practicing medicine is

back 70

giving advice on a patient condition.

front 71

Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment

back 71

Respondeat superior

front 72

Substitution of another surgeon without the patient’s consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called

back 72

ghost surgery

front 73

Mrs. Jones is diagnosed with a terminal illness. She has given permission for her husband, Mr. Jones, to have access to her medical information. Dr. Smith informs Mr. Jones that his wife is terminally ill. Mr. Jones does not want Dr. Smith to tell her patient that she is terminally ill. The physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis?

back 73

Veracity

front 74

A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of

back 74

invasion of privacy

front 75

Which statement best describes the practice known as “fee splitting”?

back 75

It is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients.

front 76

If a caring family member asks about a patient’s treatment, the medical assistant should

back 76

provide only information that has been authorized by the patient

front 77

The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called

back 77

restating

front 78

This type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs. It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods.

back 78

Active listening

front 79

Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the “Hierarchy of Needs”. Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Needs” starting from the bottom to the top?

back 79

Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

front 80

Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of

back 80

authority.

front 81

When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis?

back 81

avoid compression stockings

front 82

With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect?

back 82

Iron– nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks

front 83

Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT

back 83

Eating a low-calorie, low- protein diet to promote healing

front 84

Instructing patients in the collection of a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education?

back 84

On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe

front 85

Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following except

back 85

Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

front 86

Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient?

back 86

Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL

front 87

A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

back 87

coordination of benefits

front 88

The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called

back 88

a pre-existing conditions waiver

front 89

Medicare Part B covers

back 89

prescription medical equipment

front 90

Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated

back 90

80% of approved amount

front 91

The specific amount specified by an insurance plan that the patient must pay toward the charges for professional services rendered is the

back 91

copayment.

front 92

Medicare Part B pays physicians on a fee scale consisting of three parts: 1. Physician’s work. 2. Charge-based professional liability expenses. 3. Charge-based overhead. This fee scale is known as

back 92

Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS

front 93

Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?

back 93

Capitated

front 94

A military medical insurance plan that is administered by the government is

back 94

TRICARE

front 95

This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities.

back 95

CHAMPVA

front 96

In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co-payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is

back 96

Medicare Part D

front 97

A range of usual fees in the same community is the

back 97

prevailing fee.

front 98

A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the

back 98

assignment of Benefits

front 99

A payment method used by many managed care organizations in which a fixed amount of money is reimbursed to the provider for patients enrolled during a specific period of time, no matter what services are received or how many visits are made

back 99

Capitation

front 100

The routine waiving of co-payments

back 100

is against federal guidelines

front 101

An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies.

back 101

Fiscal intermediary

front 102

Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?

back 102

Using "rule out" diagnosis

front 103

A letter for statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patient’s co-insurance, and the allowed amounts.

back 103

. Explanation of benefits (EOB)

front 104

A person who holds a health benefit plan is a

back 104

. subscriber

front 105

Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should

back 105

refer all inquiries to the collection agency

front 106

The petty cash fund may be used

back 106

for small incidental items

front 107

Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column?

back 107

Insurance write-offs

front 108

If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a

back 108

net profit of $2,000

front 109

The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the

back 109

payee.

front 110

For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement?

back 110

. Restrictive

front 111

Which one of the following represents the total of all patient outstanding balances owed to the practice?

back 111

Accounts receivable

front 112

A compilation or average of physician fees over a given period is know as

back 112

fee profile.

front 113

The process of proving that a bank statement and checkbook balance and are in agreement is known as

back 113

reconciliation

front 114

The words “for deposit only” specify what type of endorsement?

back 114

Restrictive

front 115

The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually

back 115

a percentage of each amount collected

front 116

Regulation Z of the Truth in Lending Act is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission and is a part of the Consumer Credit Protection Act. When a physician agrees and accepts payment in installments, the physician must provide a disclosure statement about finance charges even if no finance charges are involved. What is the minimum number of installments in this Regulation?

back 116

More than four installments

front 117

Expenses that will most likely be included in the capital budget for a medical facility are

back 117

medical equipment

front 118

The person who signs his or her name on the back of a check for the purpose of transferring title to another person is the

back 118

endorser

front 119

Consider the legal statement in which a person authorizes another person to act as his or her agent. The authority may be limited to the handling of specific procedures. The person to which authorization is granted is known as the

back 119

. power of attorney for healthcare

front 120

The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to

back 120

leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule.

front 121

When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the

back 121

packing slip

front 122

It is recommneded that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place in the medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to

back 122

pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle

front 123

Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician?

back 123

Susan Martin, MD

front 124

An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients begins from the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patient’s treatment. This approach is known as

back 124

empathy.

front 125

A method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called

back 125

triage

front 126

What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

back 126

Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds

front 127

Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area?

back 127

Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area

front 128

When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to

back 128

call the patient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database

front 129

Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter?

back 129

July 27, 2011

front 130

When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called

back 130

an itinerary

front 131

The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physician’s schedule in order to

back 131

. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients

front 132

Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets

back 132

Demographic

front 133

When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should

back 133

document the failed appointment in the patient's chart

front 134

Which of the following type of magazines or journals should not be in the reception area

back 134

Physician's professional journals

front 135

Medical records in this medical office are filed alphabetically. Arrange the following names in alphabetical order to prepare them for filing. Select the sequence of the numbers correctly that alphabetizes the names
(1) Smith, James
(2) Smithson, Jane
(3) Smithy, J.
(4) Smithe, John

back 135

(1), (4), (2), (3

front 136

Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)?

back 136

The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record

front 137

To prevent back pain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended?

back 137

. Keep feet together

front 138

What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash?

back 138

Friction and running warm water

front 139

What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines

back 139

OSHA

front 140

While Susan is preparing a blood specimen for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill?

back 140

Don personal protective equipment such as gloves, use a cleanup kit, sprinkle congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in biohazard container.

front 141

Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT

back 141

. asepsis

front 142

According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with

back 142

. blood.

front 143

When performing skin preparation before a surgical procedure, the antiseptic solution or soap should be applied starting at the incision site and using a motion that is

back 143

circular starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area.

front 144

Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of

back 144

chemicals.

front 145

The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to

back 145

allow the items to dry

front 146

Sterilization is the

back 146

destruction of all microbial life

front 147

Which one of the following processes is required for surgical instruments and equipment that will come into contact with internal body tissues or cavities that are considered sterile?

back 147

. Sterilization

front 148

The instrument used to view the urinary bladder is

back 148

cystscope.

front 149

A stainless steel instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a

back 149

tuning fork

front 150

What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue?

back 150

Cutting and dissecting instruments

front 151

What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

back 151

. Retractors

front 152

The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the

back 152

ear

front 153

Instruments used to take blood pressure are the

back 153

sphygmomanometer and stethoscope.

front 154

What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?

back 154

EKG

front 155

A hemostat is used to

back 155

control bleeding.

front 156

Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis

back 156

Hemostat clamp

front 157

To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for

back 157

60 seconds.

front 158

A marked drop in blood pressure is found with

back 158

. shock

front 159

Normal bacteria that are found in the intestinal tract and are the most common cause of lower-tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements), are

back 159

. E. coli

front 160

The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is

back 160

. radial.

front 161

Which of the following is not associated with Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?

back 161

Type II

front 162

The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include

back 162

weight gain

front 163

The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of

back 163

. 60-80 beats per minute

front 164

A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as

back 164

a seizure

front 165

The knee-chest position is used for examination of the

back 165

rectum.

front 166

You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

back 166

Trendelenburg

front 167

A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

back 167

Fowlers

front 168

Cheyne Stokes describes a

back 168

type of respiration.

front 169

What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope?

back 169

Apical

front 170

What blood pressure would be by a hypertensive patient?

back 170

140/90

front 171

Cardinal signs are also known as

back 171

blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations

front 172

The "Snellen Chart" is used to test

back 172

sight

front 173

Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the

back 173

. anterior forearm and the upper back.

front 174

Sarah knows that legally, all vaccine providers must give patients, their parents, or their legal representatives, the appropriate Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) whenever a vaccination is administered. The required information that must be recorded on the patient's medical record includes the

back 174

edition date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (i.e., the date of the visit when the vaccine is administered).

front 175

While administering an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

back 175

. Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over

front 176

A drug used to relieve pain is an

back 176

. analgesic

front 177

Sarah is administering an influenza shot to her patient. She knows that when administering an injection into the deltoid muscle, caution must be taken to avoid the

back 177

radial and ulnar nerves

front 178

For a medication to be maintained at the proper blood level, it must be given

back 178

at the right time.

front 179

The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL. How many mL will be administered?

back 179

2.0 mL

front 180

Which of the following administration routes will result in the most rapid action of a drug?

back 180

Intravenous

front 181

Electrosurgery is used for

back 181

. aspirating tissues or cells

front 182

What is a fenestrated sterile drape?

back 182

A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed.

front 183

For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT

back 183

acetone

front 184

Which of the following is a surgery that is used to treat an abscess?

back 184

Incision and drainage

front 185

Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include

back 185

needle holder and scissors

front 186

Which one of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality

back 186

immobilization

front 187

Sensitivity testing in Microbiology is performed to

back 187

check for antibiotic sensitivity to the bacteria found in the specimen

front 188

Which of these statements is true regarding angioplasty

back 188

. Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue

front 189

Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause

back 189

dilution of the sample with tissue fluid

front 190

Which type of bleeding is easiest to control?

back 190

Capillary

front 191

Which one of the following tests identifies the organism associated with a urinary tract infection?

back 191

Culture and sensitivity

front 192

The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to

back 192

the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.

front 193

Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases?

back 193

Acne/boils

front 194

A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of

back 194

HCG.

front 195

A normal color of urine is

back 195

straw.

front 196

The "universal donor" has blood type

back 196

O -

front 197

Which one of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism?

back 197

. Immune response

front 198

Which of the following best represent the major areas of urinalysis?

back 198

. physical, chemical, microscopic

front 199

In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is

back 199

. RL

front 200

The basic EKG has how many leads?

back 200

12

front 201

When preparing a patient for an EKG, leads should be placed

back 201

on the intercostal spaces

front 202

What typically does not cause an artifact in the tracing of an electrocardiogram?

back 202

. Relaxed patient

front 203

What should be done if a person exhibits changing levels of consciousness?

back 203

Have the patient lie down

front 204

What is the first thing you should do if you walk into a room and find a patient collapsed on the floor

back 204

Assess the scene before going any further

front 205

After putting gloves on, what should be done to assist a bleeding victim?

back 205

Apply direct pressure to the site

front 206

When using a fire extinguisher, what does the acronym PASS mean?

back 206

Pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep

front 207

What is the proper treatment for syncope?

back 207

. Place the patient in a supine position with the legs elevated

front 208

A second degree burn would appear as

back 208

red, edematous, wet, shiny or blistered.

front 209

Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary,

back 209

once a year.

front 210

The first step in controlling bleeding is

back 210

direct pressure

front 211

The outer ear includes the

back 211

ear canal

front 212

A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia?

back 212

Pernicious

front 213

Which one of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes?

back 213

Anemia

front 214

he largest glandular organ in the body is the

back 214

. liver

front 215

Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at

back 215

puberty

front 216

The thoracic cavity is lined by the

back 216

. pleural membrane.

front 217

The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the

back 217

fibrous pericardium

front 218

Approximately 60% of the plasma proteins are formed by

back 218

albumins.

front 219

The urinary system consists of

back 219

two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra.

front 220

Digestion DOES NOT involve which organ?

back 220

Spleen

front 221

Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

back 221

Protection from light

front 222

Where are the sublingual glands located

back 222

Beneath mucous membrane

front 223

An abnormal scar formation is

back 223

keloid

front 224

Baby teeth are called?

back 224

Deciduous

front 225

A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called

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rectocele

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Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum?

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Proctologist

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Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

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Vitamin C

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Encephalopathy is defined as

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any dysfunction of the brain

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The study of the stomach and the intestine is

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gastroenterology

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An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

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ascites

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The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence

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Defamation

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The patient puts out his or her arm to allow the medical assistant to draw blood. This type of consent is called

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express

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In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

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Being an emancipated minor

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Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed?

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Informed

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Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?

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Subpoena duces tecum

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Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?

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Subpoena duces tecum

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The provision of medical care to physician's colleagues, their families, or staff free of charge (or at a reduced fee) is called

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professional courtesy.

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Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’ stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages?

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Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

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The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as

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denial

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Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following except

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feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum

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A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

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d. coordination of benefits.

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Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician

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are responsible for a portion of the fee

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Types of health insurance and plan benefits: This type of benefit covers catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury. This insurance takes over when basic medical, hospitalization, and surgical benefits end.

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Major medical

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Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person’s home, business, or car, without regards to the insured person’s actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called

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liability insurance

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Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services

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Managed care plan

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An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is

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J0540

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When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those

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that have not cleared the bank

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Things that are owed or debts are called

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liabilities.

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This type of check has a detachable form. The detachable portion is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn and shows discounts and various itemizations. The detachable portion is removed before the check is presented for payment

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Voucher check

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An invoice for treatment of a patient who is now deceased should be mailed to the

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executor of estate

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Which statement below is true with respect to an emancipated minor

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An emancipated minor is responsible for his or her own medical bill

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Employers are required by law to withhold certain amounts from employees’ earnings. These amounts must be reported and forwarded to the IRS to be applied toward payment of income tax. The Income Tax Withholding is also known as

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W-4

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A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patient’s medical record. She understands that corrections in the medical record are made by

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drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it.

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Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the following medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest. Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.
(1) 06 14 06
(2) 06 06 06
(3) 06 05 06
(4) 05 01 06
Choose one answer.

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(4), (3), (2), (1)

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When patients arrive at the physician’s office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the

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Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

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Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must

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prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration.

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Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT

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sterile team members do not need to face each other.

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The destruction of all microorganisms is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is

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sterilization.

front 259

hen performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned

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below the elbows

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The most effective method of sterilization is

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autoclaving

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The destruction of all microorganisms is known as

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sterilization.

front 262

What is the primary method for sterilizing instruments and equipment?

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Autoclave

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What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

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Retractors

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The instrument pictured below is

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sphygmomanometer

front 265

Instruments used to take blood pressure are the

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sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

front 266

Forceps are used to

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hold tissue

front 267

Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis?

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Hemostat clamp

front 268

A hemostat is used to

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control bleeding.

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When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be

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at the level of the heart.

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An afebrile patient is

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without fever.

front 271

An febrile patient is

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has a fever

front 272

The method used to perform a breast examination is

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palpation.

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A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

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Fowlers

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The angle for a subcutaneous injection is

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45 degrees

front 275

Cheyne Stokes describes a

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type of respiration

front 276

The position pictured below is the

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Sim's.

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Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the

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anterior forearm and the upper back

front 278

A syringe marked with U 100 would be used for administering which of the following?

back 278

Insulin

front 279

Two tablespoons of medication are equal to

back 279

30 mL. (1 tablespoon=15mL)

front 280

Laura’s patient has just been informed that she is pregnant. Laura explains to her patient that she should not take any medications without the knowledge of her physician. Medications considered relatively safe in pregnancy are classified in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) category

back 280

A

front 281

Which of sutures does not require removal from the body?

back 281

Catgut

front 282

Most instruments are classified according to their function, which instrument is classified as a dilating/probing instrument?

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specula

front 283

When preparing a pamphlet for the gastroenterologist’s office regarding IBS you would want to include information regarding the treatment of

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chronic constipation and diarrhea.

front 284

This statement is true regarding angioplasty?

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Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue

front 285

Palpating the venipuncture site

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. contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein

front 286

A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is

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timed

front 287

The most common blood type is

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O+

front 288

The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to

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the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.

front 289

The "universal donor" has blood type

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O-

front 290

A greenish-brown urine may be indicate of

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hepatitis

front 291

The appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to

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place the patient supine with legs elevated

front 292

If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should

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drag the patient by the heels to safety