Select the structures below that are found in all bacterial cells:

• Pills (pili)
• flagella
• cytoplasm
• fimbriae
• capsule
• nucleoid
• plasma membrane
• ribosomes
• cell wall

Ribosomes
Plasma membrane
Nucleoid
Cytoplasm

Indicate the bacterial structures that are likely to be antigens, to which host antibodies bind, marking the invader for phagocytosis

nucleoid
capsule
plasmids
cell wall
ribosomes
fimbriae
flagella

Capsule
Cell wall
Fimbriae
Flagella
(Surface components are more likely to be "visible" to the host as antigen

Identify antibacterial strategies that would likely be selectively toxic for bacteria.

1. inhibition of fimbriae synthesis
2. interfering with lysosomal function
3. interfering with translation at 70s ribosomes
4. inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis
5. inhibition of microtubule function

-inhibition of fimbriae synthesis
- interfering with translation at 70s ribosomes
- inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

A strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae is no longer able to synthesize its capsular polysaccharide. What is a likely outcome?

It will be readily phagocytized upon entering the host
It will no longer be motile
It will no longer be able to carry out fermentation
It will produce more potent toxins which damage the host
It will not be able to appropriately transport ions across its plasma membrane

It will be readily phagocytized upon entering the host

The presence of a polysaccharide capsule is a well-known virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Encapsulated strains typically produce smooth glistening, mucoid-appearing colonies. Non-encapsulated strains produce flat, dry colonies. Inoculating mice with these two strains readily demonstrates the virulence of the encapsulated strains, and the lack of virulence of the non-encapsulated strains.

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae has been genetically altered and can no longer produce fimbriae. What is a likely outcome?
It will be readily phagocytized upon entering the host
It will demonstrate increased resistance to antibiotics
It will be unable to carry out aerobic respiration
It will no longer be able to secrete exotoxins.
It will be unable to adhere to host tissue and establish infection

It will be unable to adhere to host tissue and establish infection

Life can arise spontaneously from living matter is an example of what?

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

Spontaneous generation

Microorganisms present in nonliving matter can lead to new microorganisms

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

Biogenesis

Life can arise as a result of microorganisms present in nonliving matter

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

biogenesis

Living cells can arise only from preexisting living cells

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

biogensis

Living cells can arise from nonliving matter under favorable conditions

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

spontaneous generation

Vital forces in nonliving matter can lead to new life

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

spontaneous generation

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. What was beef broth used for

Provided a nutritious environment to support microbial growth.

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. Bunsen burner (flame)

Provided heat that destroyed microorganisms already present in the beef broth

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. Flask with S-shaped neck

Provided the physical conditions for trapping airborne contaminants and preventing microorganisms from entering the flask

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. Air.

Provided a source of potential external microbial contaninants

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from Pasteur’s experiment involving the flasks with S-shaped necks?Select all statements that apply.

*Microbial life can be destroyed by heat.
*Microorganisms can be present in nonliving matter, such as air, liquids, and solids.
*Pasteur’s observations support the theory of biogenesis. *Microbes can be blocked from accessing favorable growth environments.
*Beef broth is an unsuitable environment for growing microorganisms.
*Microbial life can arise from nonliving matter.
*Pasteur’s observations support the theory of spontaneous generation.

Microbial life can be destroyed by heat. Microorganisms can be present in nonliving matter, such as air, liquids, and solids. Pasteur’s observations support the theory of biogenesis. Microbes can be blocked from accessing favorable growth environments.

Pasteur’s experiments and observations provided the basis for developing aseptic techniques that prevent the introduction of unwanted microorganisms into controlled environments. Given what you have learned from the design of Pasteur’s experiment, which of the following scenarios would be considered an aseptic technique?Select all statements that apply.

*using a Bunsen burner (flame) to heat a wire inoculating loop prior to use
*blowing on heated, sterile surfaces with your mouth in order to facilitate cooling
*wearing gloves when handling sterile laboratory equipment *allowing sterile solutions to be openly exposed to the air
*taking steps to prevent contaminants from entering sterile solutions

using a Bunsen burner (flame) to heat a wire inoculating loop prior to use

wearing gloves when handling sterile laboratory equipment

taking steps to prevent contaminants from entering sterile solutions

Name two characteristics of bacteria

Have cell walls that contain peptidoglycan

Derive nutrition from organic or inorganic sources or conduct photosynthesis

Archea (name two characteristics)

Found in extreme environments

Not typically associated with human disease

Fungi (two characteristics)

Can be unicellular or multicellular

Eukaryotic

Viruses (name two characteristics)

Cannot survive outside a host cell

Can be seen only with an electron microscope

One of the first set of experiments to refute spontaneous generation was done in 1688 by Francesco Redi. Which of the following statements regarding Francesco Redi’s experiments is true?

*He determined that material from an infectious agent taken from one person could be used to stimulate immunity in another person.

*His experiments demonstrated that oxygen is essential to all life.

*His experiments determined a series of conditions that must be satisfied in determining the causative agent of disease.

*The results of his experiment demonstrated that living organisms are derived from other living organisms.

The results of his experiment demonstrated that living organisms are derived from other living organisms.

In 1861, Pasteur conducted his now-famous experiments using flasks with long necks bent into an S-shape. Imagine that you are a scientist working in Pasteur’s lab at this time. You decide to tip the flasks so that broth enters the long S-shaped neck. You then return the flask to its upright position. Predict the most likely outcome of tipping one of Pasteur’s S-necked flasks.

*The broth would remain uncontaminated because no microbes could enter the long S-shaped neck of the flask.

*The broth would become contaminated with microbes because they were trapped in the neck.

*Since the broth had been heated (effectively sterilizing it), no microbes would grow in the broth.

*Microbes would grow in the broth because the tipping would introduce the oxygen necessary for microbial growth.

The broth would become contaminated with microbes because they were trapped in the neck.

S. aureus has been isolated from George’s infected wound. To satisfy Koch’s postulates, what would George’s doctor need to do with the isolated S. aureus?

*Inject the S. aureus strain into an animal and see whether it develops the same type of infection that George has.

*Inject the S. aureus into an animal, observe whether the animal gets an infection similar to George’s, and isolate the same strain of S. aureus from the infection.

*Compare the DNA sequence of the strain of S. aureus isolated from George to other S. aureus strains to see whether it has been isolated from other similar infections.

*Inject the S. aureus into an animal; if the animal develops the same infection, isolate the infectious material from the animal and test its ability to vaccinate another animal.

Inject the S. aureus into an animal, observe whether the animal gets an infection similar to George’s, and isolate the same strain of S. aureus from the infection.

Which of the following are limitations of antibiotics?Select all that apply.

*Treatment with antibiotics can lead to the emergence of resistant strains.

*Antibiotics may be toxic.

*Antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections.

*Mass production of antibiotics is extremely difficult.

*The cost of producing antibiotics is high, which in turn leads to higher prices for consumers.

Treatment with antibiotics can lead to the emergence of resistant strains.

Antibiotics may be toxic.

Antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections.

Further characterization of the S. aureus isolated from George’s wound reveals that the strain is MRSA. Why is George’s doctor concerned that MRSA has been identified as the causative agent of George’s infection?

*There are no effective antibiotic options for treating MRSA.

*The available treatment options are quite aggressive, including removal of damaged tissue in an effort to contain the infection.

*MRSA is transmissible.

*MRSA is not typically associated with the type of infection that George has.

MRSA is transmissible.

Pick the area of biology that studies DNA and chromosomes. molecular biology

genealogy

genetics

biochemistry

Genetics

Pick step that does NOT follow the postulates.

*A mouse that was exposed to a potential viral pathogen has died and you are able to isolate the virus from the liver of the mouse.

*You give a patient an antibiotic to treat an infection.

*You are able to isolate a pathogenic bacterium from someone with a new type of pharyngitis.

*You collect a throat swab from a family member who has also become sick.

You give a patient an antibiotic to treat an infection.

The current system of nomenclature for organisms was established by:

a.Pasteur.

b.Jenner.

c.Linnaeus.

d.Koch.

Linnaeus .

Scientific nomenclature assigns each organism two names: the genus and the

a.kingdom.

b.specific epithet.

c.family.

d.class.

Specific epithet

Archaea, often found in extreme environments, are divided into

a.two main groups.

b.three main groups.

c.four main groups.

d.five main groups.

Three main groups

In 1978, Carl Woese devised a system ofclassification that groups organisms into the domains Bacteria, Archaea, and

a.Animalia.

b.Eukaryotes.

c.Eukarya.

d.Protozoa.

Eukarya

Eukarya includes ALL of the following EXCEPT

a.viruses.

b.protists.

c.fungi.

d.plants.

Viruses

Robert Koch

a.invented the microscope.

b.discovered penicillin.

c.proved that bacteria can cause disease.

d.observed the first cells.

Proved that bacteria can cause disease

Who discovered a chemotherapeutic agent against syphilis?

a.Jenner

b.Pasteur

c.Koch

d.Ehrlich

Ehrlich

Robert Koch developed his postulates while

identifying the cause of which disease?

a.syphilis

b.anthrax

c.yellow fever

d.tetanus

anthrax

Fleming

a.disproved spontaneous generation.

b.discovered penicillin.

c.discovered phagocytosis.

d.developed the theory of immunity.

Discovered penicillin

Pasteur

a.discovered the cause of fermentation.

b.discovered penicillin.

c.discovered phagocytosis.

d.developed aseptic surgery.

Discovered the cause of fermentation.

Lister is associated with

a.fermentation.

b.vaccination.

c.aseptic surgery.

d.the cell theory.

Aseptic surgery

Jenner is associated with

a.fermentation.

b.vaccination.

c.aseptic surgery.

d.the cell theory.

Vaccination

The process of using just enough heat to kill bacteria that cause spoilage was developed by

a.Pasteur.

b.Ehrlich.

c.Lister.

d.Koch.

Pasteur

Salvarsan was developed by

a.Ehrlich.

b.Fleming.

c.Weizmann.

d.Needham.

Erlich

Cryptosporidiosis, which can be transmitted in a public water supply, is caused by a

a.virus.

b.prion.

c.protozoan.

d.bacterium.

Protozoan

HIV destroys which type of immune cells?

a.neutrophils

b.CD4+ T cells

c.B cells

d.CD8+ T cells

CD4+ T cells

ALL of the following are natural human defenses against disease EXCEPT

a.interferon.

b.penicillin.

c.skin.

d.mucous membranes.

Penicillin

Human disease caused by a prion is known as

a.MRSA.

b.Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

c.SARS.

d.West Nile encephalitis.

Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease

An example of a hemorrhagic fever virus is

a.Marburg virus.

b.human immunodeficiency virus.

c.avian influenza virus.

d.West Nile virus.

Marburg virus

Bacillus thuringiensis is used

a.to treat sewage.

b.in bioremediation.

c.as a natural insecticide.

d.to recycle vital elements.

A natural insecticide

Bioremediation is the use of microbes

a.to clean up pollutants and toxic wastes.

b.in recycling vital elements.

c.to treat sewage.

d.in food production.

To clean up pollutants and toxic wastes

Biotechnology can best be defined as using living organisms to

a.clean up pollution.

b.develop useful products.

c.treat sewage.

d.control pests.

Develop useful products

Gene therapy can be used to treat

a.cystic fibrosis.

b.diphtheria.

c.polio.

d.avian influenza A.

Cystic fibrosis

ONLY bacteria can convert which element into a form that is available to plants and animals?

a.carbon

b.oxygen

c.nitrogen

d.hydrogen

nitrogen

Who challenged the case for spontaneous generation with the concept of biogenesis?

a.Pasteur

b.Virchow

c.Redi

d.Needham

Virchow

What is the function of the diaphragm on a compound microscope?

a.magnifies the specimen

b.focuses light through the specimen

c.holds the microscope slide in position

d.controls the amount of light entering the condenser

controls the amount of light entering the condenser

The ocular lens is used

a.to remagnify the image formed by the objective lens.

b.as the primary lens to magnify the specimen.

c.to increase the light.

d.to decrease the refractive index.

to remagnify the image formed by the objective lens.

The measure of the light-bending ability of a medium is the

a.illumination.

b.magnification.

c.refractive index.

d.resolution.

Refractive index

MOST ocular lenses magnify specimens by a factor of

a.10.

b.100.

c.1000.

d.2000.

10

The ability of the lenses to distinguish fine detail and structure is called

a.illumination.

b.magnification.

c.refractive index.

d.resolution.

Resolution

Which microscope uses an opaque disk to block light that would enter the objective lens directly?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

Darkfield microscope

Which microscope uses an ultraviolet light source?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

Fluorescence microscope

Which microscope illuminates specimens with blue light and produces three-dimensional images?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

Confocal microscope

Which microscope forms an image from two sets of light rays, one from the light source and the other diffracted from a structure in the specimen?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

Phase-contrast microscope

What microscope uses a metal and diamond probe to produce a three-dimensional image?

a.atomic force microscope

b.darkfield microscope

c.phase-contrast microscope

d.transmission electron microscope

atomic force microscope

Which microscope is especially useful in studying the surface structures of intact cells and viruses?

a.transmission electron microscope

b.scanning electron microscope

c.phase-contrast microscope

d.darkfield microscope

scanning electron microscope

In transmission electron microscopy, the specimen is placed on a

a.copper mesh grid.

b.glass slide.

c.plastic slide.

d.magnesium mesh grid.

Copper mesh grid

Which microscope is extremely valuable for examining different layers of specimens and often involves the use of shadow casting?

a.transmission electron microscope

b.scanning electron microscope

c.phase-contrast microscope

d.darkfield microscope

Transmission electron microscope

With a scanning electron microscope, objects are generally magnified

a.100 to 100,000x.

b.100 to 10,000x.

c.1000 to 100,000x.

d.1000 to 10,000x.

100 to 10,000X

With a transmission electron microscope, objects are generally magnified

a.1000 to 100,000x.

b.1000 to 10,000x.

c.10,000 to 1,000,000x.

d.10,000 to 100,000x.

10,000 to 1,000,000x

Before microorganisms are stained, MOST appear ________ when viewed with brightfield microscopy.

a.golden

b.green

c.colorless

d.hollow

colorless

The chromophore of basic dyes is a ________ and is ________ to MOST types of bacteria.

a.cation; attracted

b.anion; attracted

c.cation; not attracted

d.anion; not attracted

cation; attracted

Which one of the following is NOT a kind of staining technique?

a.simple

b.differential

c.special

d.selective

Selective

The process of fixing a slide attaches the microorganisms while simultaneously

a.illuminating the organisms.

b.staining the organisms.

c.killing the organisms.

d.magnifying the organisms.

Killing the organisms

In 1978, Carl Woese devised a system of classification that groups organisms into the domains Bacteria, Archaea, and

a.Animalia.

b.Eukaryotes.

c.Eukarya.

d.Protozoa.

Eukarya

What is the mordant in the Gram stain?

a.iodine

b.safranin

c.alcohol-acetone

d.crystal violet

iodine

Flagella are stained with

a.carbolfuchsin.

b.malachite green.

c.methylene blue.

d.crystal violet.

Carbolfuchsin

Capsules are stained using a(n)

a.negative stain.

b.Gram stain.

c.Schaeffer-Fulton stain.

d.acid-fast stain.

negative stain

Endospores are stained using a(n)

a.negative stain.

b.Gram stain.

c.Schaeffer-Fulton stain.

d.acid-fast stain.

Schaeffer-Fulton stain

What color are gram-negative bacteria at the completion of the Gram staining process?

a.pink

b.purple

c.colorless

d.brown

Pink

The appearance of Mycobacterium leprae after they are stained with an acid-fast stain is

a.purple.

b.red.

c.colorless.

d.brown.

Red

Bacteria that divide in multiple planes and form grapelike clusters are called

a.streptococci.

b.staphylococci.

c.coccobacilli.

d.vibrios.

Stphylococci

Bacteria divide by

a.binary fission.

b.spore formation.

c.mitosis.

d.budding.

Binary fission

Which of the following statements is TRUE for prokaryotes?

a.They generally lack organelles.

b.Their DNA is associated with histones.

c.Their cell walls are chemically simple.

d.Their DNA is enclosed in an internal membrane.

They generally lack organelles

How long are MOST bacteria?

a.0.2 to 2.0 µm

b.1.0 to 4.0 µm

c.2.0 to 8.0 µm

d.5.0 to 15.0 µm

2.0 to 8.0 µm

The word Bacillus may refer to

a.rod-shaped cells.

b.spherical cells.

c.a specific genus.

d.rod-shaped cells and a specific genus.

Rod-shaped cells and a specific genus

Some bacteria stain gram-positive and others stain gram-negative because of differences in the structure of their

a.cell wall.

b.capsule.

c.cell membrane.

d.endospore.

Cell wall

The bacterial cell wall is composed of

a.cellulose.

b.glucan.

c.chitin.

d.peptidoglycan.

Peptidoglycan

The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria contain

a.mannan.

b.teichoic acid.

c.cellulose.

d.chitin.

Teichoic acid

The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria contains

a.sterols.

b.mycolic acid.

c.teichoic acid.

d.lipopolysaccharide.

lipopolysaccharide

Acid-fast cell walls contain high concentrations of

a.teichoic acid.

b.peptidoglycan.

c.pseudomurein.

d.mycolic acid.

Mycolic acid

A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at one end of its cell is called

a.amphitrichous.

b.lophotrichous.

c.monotrichous.

d.peritrichous.

Lophotrichous

What structure protects pathogenic bacteria from phagocytosis?

a.capsule

b.endospore

c.flagellum

d.axial filament

Capsule

Spirochetes move by means of

a.axial filaments.

b.flagella.

c.pili.

d.fimbriae.

Axial filaments

Which of the following is NOT a part of a flagellum?

a.filament

b.hook

c.fimbriae

d.basal body

fimbriae

Proteins that distinguish among serovars of gram-negative bacteria are found in which structures?

a.fimbriae

b.pili

c.flagella

d.axial filaments

Flagella

Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA in bacteria are known as

a.Golgi complexes.

b.lysosomes.

c.plasmids.

d.ribosomes.

Plasmids

Inclusions of iron oxide in bacteria are found in structures known as

a.gas vacuoles.

b.magnetosomes.

c.endospores.

d.metachromatic granules.

Magnetosomes

Which of the following structures allows a cell to survive adverse environmental conditions?

a.capsule

b.carboxysome

c.endospore

d.gas vacuole

Endospores

Bacteria that divide in multiple planes and form grapelike clusters are called

a.streptococci.

b.staphylococci.

c.coccobacilli.

d.vibrios.

staphylococci

Prokaryotic ribosomes are composed of two subunits of what sizes?

a.20S + 50S

b.30S + 40S

c.30S + 50S

d.40S + 60S

30S + 50S

Which of the following contain 70S ribosomes?

a.prokaryotes

b.mitochondria

c.mitochondria and chloroplasts

d.prokaryotes, mitochondria, and
chloroplasts

Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

True or false: Most microorganisms are colorless unless they are photosynthetic

True

The building of complex organic molecules from simpler ones is called

a.catabolism.

b.anabolism.

c.photosynthesis.

d.oxidation.

Anabolism

Toxic hydrogen peroxide in some bacteria can be broken down into water and oxygen by the enzyme

a.superoxide dismutase.

b.peroxidase.

c.hydroxylase.

d.catalase.

Catalase

Inhibitors that fill the enzyme's active site and compete with the normal substrate are

a.noncompetitive.

b.allosteric.

c.competitive.

d.ribosomal.

Competitive

Enzymes increase the speed of a chemical

reaction by

a.lowering the energy of activation.

b.increasing the energy of activation.

c.changing the pH of the reaction.

d.increasing the temperature of the reaction.

Lowering the energy of activation.

Many apoenzymes are inactive by themselves and must be activated by

a.cofactors and/or coenzymes.

b.ATP.

c.holoenzymes.

d.substrates.

Cofactors and/or coenzymes

The addition of phosphate to a chemical compound is called

a.glycolysis.

b.oxidation.

c.reduction.

d.phosphorylation.

Phosphorylation

What process does the aerobic electron transport chain perform?

a.glycolysis

b.oxidative phosphorylation

c.photophosphorylation

d.substrate-level phosphorylation

Oxidative phosphrylation

A molecule that undergoes reduction

a.becomes phosphorylated.

b.loses a hydrogen atom.

c.gains one or more electrons.

d.loses one or more electrons.

Gains one or more electrons

The energy from catabolic reactions is used to produce

a.ADP.

b.ATP.

c.AMP.

d.phosphate.

ATP

In which of the following is light energy converted to ATP, which is then used to synthesize organic molecules?

a.photosynthesis

b.Krebs cycle

c.fermentation

d.glycolysis

Photosynthesis

In prokaryotes, how many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of one glucose via aerobic respiration?

a.2

b.4

c.34

d.38

38

The pentose phosphate pathway provides a means to break down glucose and

a.five-carbon sugars.

b.proteins.

c.lipids.

d.ATP.

Five-carbon sugars

________ use electrons from reduced inorganic compounds as a source of energy and CO2 as a source of carbon.

a.Photoautotrophs

b.Photoheterotrophs

c.Chemoautotrophs

d.Chemoheterotrophs

Chemoautotrophs

In lipid biosynthesis, glycerol is derived from dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed during

a.the Krebs cycle.

b.glycolysis.

c.the electron transport chain.

d.the Calvin-Benson cycle.

Glycolysis

If an amine group added to a precursor comes from a preexisting amino acid, the process is called

a.beta-oxidation.

b.amination.

c.transamination.

d.beta-reduction.

Transamination

Metabolic pathways that function in BOTH

anabolism and catabolism are called ________

pathways.

a.intermediate

b.reversible

c.redox

d.amphibolic

Amiphibolic

In fermentation,

a.the final electron acceptor is organic.

b.a large amount of ATP is produced.

c.oxygen is required.

d.an electron transport chain is required.

The final electron acceptor is organic

The optimum pH for MOST bacteria is near

a.1.

b.5.

c.7.

d.9.

7

A psychrophile has an optimal growth temperature of about

a.15°C.

b.25°C.

c.37°C.

d.100°C.

15 C

Organisms that require high salt concentrations for growth are called

a.thermophiles.

b.obligate halophiles.

c.acidophiles.

d.anaerobes.

Obligate halphophiles

What is/are the energy source(s) utilized by primary producers in the hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor?

a.light

b.hydrogen sulfide

c.organic molecules

d.carbon dioxide

Hydrogen sulfide

Addition of salts preserves foods because they

a.lower pH.

b.increase osmotic pressure.

c.create an isotonic environment.

d.lower osmotic pressure.

Increase osmotic pressure

Chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs derive their carbon from

a.carbon dioxide.

b.proteins.

c.lipids.

d.carbohydrates.

Carbon dioxide

Some microorganisms use gaseous nitrogen directly from the atmosphere in a process called

a.denitrification.

b.photosynthesis.

c.nitrogen fixation.

d.nitrogen synthesis.

Nitrogen fixation

An organism that uses oxygen when present but can grow without oxygen is called a(n)

a.obligate aerobe.

b.facultative anaerobe.

c.microaerophile.

d.aerotolerant anaerobe.

Facultative anaerobe

Which organism is killed by atmospheric oxygen?

a.facultative anaerobe

b.obligate aerobe

c.obligate anaerobe

d.aerotolerant anaerobe

Obligate aerobe

Toxic hydrogen peroxide in some bacteria can be broken down into water and oxygen by the enzyme

a.superoxide dismutase.

b.peroxidase.

c.hydroxylase.

d.catalase.

Catalase

Generation time can best be defined as

a.the length of time it takes for lag phase.

b.the duration of log phase.

c.the time it takes for a cell to divide.

d.how many generations a cell can divide.

the time it takes for a cell to divide.

Bacterial growth is usually graphed using ________ scales.

a.arithmetic

b.exponential

c.logarithmic (semi-logarithmic)

d.inverse

logarithmic (semi-logarithmic)

In which growth phase is there intense activity preparing for population growth, but no increase in population?

a.stationary phase

b.log phase

c.death phase

d.lag phase

Lag phase

Which of the following is NOT a possible reason why exponential growth stops?

a.accumulation of waste products

b.exhaustion of nutrients

c.harmful changes in pH

d.bacteria becoming dormant

bacteria becoming dormant

In the stationary phase,

a.the number of microbial deaths exceeds the number of new cells formed.

b.the number of microbial deaths is equal to the number of new cells formed.

c.new cells are no longer formed because of adverse environmental conditions.

d.cellular reproduction is most active.

the number of microbial deaths is equal to the number of new cells formed.

Which type of medium suppresses the growth of unwanted bacteria and encourages growth of desired microbes?

a.differential media

b.complex media

c.selective media

d.enrichment media

Selective media

Microbes that are introduced into a culture medium to initiate growth are called a(n)

a.inoculum.

b.culture.

c.specimen.

d.medium.

Inoculum

What is added to a medium when it is desirable to grow bacteria on a solid medium?

a.glucose

b.magnesium sulfate

c.sodium thioglycollate

d.agar

agar

A culture medium made of extracts from yeasts, meat, or plants is a ________ medium.

a.complex

b.selective

c.differential

d.chemically defined

Complex

Labs intended for highly infectious airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis, are classified as

a.BSL-1.

b.BSL-2.

c.BSL-3.

d.BSL-4.

BSL-3

A spectrophotometer can be used to measure

a.metabolic activity.

b.turbidity.

c.dry weight.

d.pathogenicity.

Turbidity

The method in which a measured volume of bacterial suspension is placed within a defined area on a microscope slide is called the

a.direct microscope count.

b.pour plate method.

c.spread plate method.

most probable number method.

Direct microscope count

Which process is used to ensure that plates contain 30 to 300 colonies when counted?

a.turbidity

b.serial dilution

c.filtration

d.pour plates

Serial dilution

Which is the best technique to use to measure the growth of filamentous organisms?

a.most probable number method

b.direct microscopic count

c.turbidity

d.dry weight

Dry weight

Which method is a statistical estimating technique used to determine the number of bacteria in a sample?

a.turbidity

b.spread plate method

c.most probable number method

d.pour plate method

Most probable number method

Starting with one bacterial cell, how many cells would you have after 10 generations?

a.10

b.20

c.200

d.1024

1024

Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT:

a) yeast
b) protozoan
c) bacterium
d) Cat
e) virus

Cat

Yeast and protozoan are both eukaryotic

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by:
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Francesco Redi
c) Rudolf Virchow
d) John Needham
e) Lazzaro Spallanzani

A) Louis Pasteur

The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism:
a) microbe
b) bacterium
c) virus
d) pathogen
e) infection

Pathogen: small # of microorganisms

Which physician is first associated with vaccination?
a) Ehrlich
b) Jenner
c) Lister
d) Koch
e) Escherich

Jenner

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the
a) genus
b) domain name
c) species
d) kingdom
e) family name

species

Which disease has been eliminated through the use of vaccines:
a) tuberculosis
b) measles
c) rubella
d) smallpox
e) infuenza

smallpox

Viruses are not considered living organisms because they
a) cannot reproduce by themselves
b) are structurally very simple
c) can only be visualized using an electron microscope.
d) are typically associated with disease
e) are ubiquitous in nature

a) cannot reproduce by themselves

If a microscope has an objective lens labeled 63X and an ocular lens of 10x what is the final magnification of this scope?

63X10=630