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Microbiology

front 1

Select the structures below that are found in all bacterial cells:

  • Pills (pili)
  • flagella
  • cytoplasm
  • fimbriae
  • capsule
  • nucleoid
  • plasma membrane
  • ribosomes
  • cell wall

back 1

Ribosomes
Plasma membrane
Nucleoid
Cytoplasm

front 2

Indicate the bacterial structures that are likely to be antigens, to which host antibodies bind, marking the invader for phagocytosis

nucleoid
capsule
plasmids
cell wall
ribosomes
fimbriae
flagella

back 2

Capsule
Cell wall
Fimbriae
Flagella
(Surface components are more likely to be "visible" to the host as antigen

front 3

Identify antibacterial strategies that would likely be selectively toxic for bacteria.

1. inhibition of fimbriae synthesis
2. interfering with lysosomal function
3. interfering with translation at 70s ribosomes
4. inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis
5. inhibition of microtubule function

back 3

-inhibition of fimbriae synthesis
- interfering with translation at 70s ribosomes
- inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

front 4

A strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae is no longer able to synthesize its capsular polysaccharide. What is a likely outcome?

It will be readily phagocytized upon entering the host
It will no longer be motile
It will no longer be able to carry out fermentation
It will produce more potent toxins which damage the host
It will not be able to appropriately transport ions across its plasma membrane

back 4

It will be readily phagocytized upon entering the host

The presence of a polysaccharide capsule is a well-known virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Encapsulated strains typically produce smooth glistening, mucoid-appearing colonies. Non-encapsulated strains produce flat, dry colonies. Inoculating mice with these two strains readily demonstrates the virulence of the encapsulated strains, and the lack of virulence of the non-encapsulated strains.

front 5

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae has been genetically altered and can no longer produce fimbriae. What is a likely outcome?
It will be readily phagocytized upon entering the host
It will demonstrate increased resistance to antibiotics
It will be unable to carry out aerobic respiration
It will no longer be able to secrete exotoxins.
It will be unable to adhere to host tissue and establish infection

back 5

It will be unable to adhere to host tissue and establish infection

front 6

Life can arise spontaneously from living matter is an example of what?

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

back 6

Spontaneous generation

front 7

Microorganisms present in nonliving matter can lead to new microorganisms

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

back 7

Biogenesis

front 8

Life can arise as a result of microorganisms present in nonliving matter

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

back 8

biogenesis

front 9

Living cells can arise only from preexisting living cells

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

back 9

biogensis

front 10

Living cells can arise from nonliving matter under favorable conditions

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

back 10

spontaneous generation

front 11

Vital forces in nonliving matter can lead to new life

Spontaneous generation

Biogenisis

back 11

spontaneous generation

front 12

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. What was beef broth used for

back 12

Provided a nutritious environment to support microbial growth.

front 13

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. Bunsen burner (flame)

back 13

Provided heat that destroyed microorganisms already present in the beef broth

front 14

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. Flask with S-shaped neck

back 14

Provided the physical conditions for trapping airborne contaminants and preventing microorganisms from entering the flask

front 15

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation. Air.

back 15

Provided a source of potential external microbial contaninants

front 16

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from Pasteur’s experiment involving the flasks with S-shaped necks?Select all statements that apply.

*Microbial life can be destroyed by heat.
*Microorganisms can be present in nonliving matter, such as air, liquids, and solids.
*Pasteur’s observations support the theory of biogenesis. *Microbes can be blocked from accessing favorable growth environments.
*Beef broth is an unsuitable environment for growing microorganisms.
*Microbial life can arise from nonliving matter.
*Pasteur’s observations support the theory of spontaneous generation.

back 16

Microbial life can be destroyed by heat. Microorganisms can be present in nonliving matter, such as air, liquids, and solids. Pasteur’s observations support the theory of biogenesis. Microbes can be blocked from accessing favorable growth environments.

front 17

Pasteur’s experiments and observations provided the basis for developing aseptic techniques that prevent the introduction of unwanted microorganisms into controlled environments. Given what you have learned from the design of Pasteur’s experiment, which of the following scenarios would be considered an aseptic technique?Select all statements that apply.

*using a Bunsen burner (flame) to heat a wire inoculating loop prior to use
*blowing on heated, sterile surfaces with your mouth in order to facilitate cooling
*wearing gloves when handling sterile laboratory equipment *allowing sterile solutions to be openly exposed to the air
*taking steps to prevent contaminants from entering sterile solutions

back 17

using a Bunsen burner (flame) to heat a wire inoculating loop prior to use

wearing gloves when handling sterile laboratory equipment

taking steps to prevent contaminants from entering sterile solutions

front 18

Name two characteristics of bacteria

back 18

Have cell walls that contain peptidoglycan

Derive nutrition from organic or inorganic sources or conduct photosynthesis

front 19

Archea (name two characteristics)

back 19

Found in extreme environments

Not typically associated with human disease

front 20

Fungi (two characteristics)

back 20

Can be unicellular or multicellular

Eukaryotic

front 21

Viruses (name two characteristics)

back 21

Cannot survive outside a host cell

Can be seen only with an electron microscope

front 22

One of the first set of experiments to refute spontaneous generation was done in 1688 by Francesco Redi. Which of the following statements regarding Francesco Redi’s experiments is true?

*He determined that material from an infectious agent taken from one person could be used to stimulate immunity in another person.

*His experiments demonstrated that oxygen is essential to all life.

*His experiments determined a series of conditions that must be satisfied in determining the causative agent of disease.

*The results of his experiment demonstrated that living organisms are derived from other living organisms.

back 22

The results of his experiment demonstrated that living organisms are derived from other living organisms.

front 23

In 1861, Pasteur conducted his now-famous experiments using flasks with long necks bent into an S-shape. Imagine that you are a scientist working in Pasteur’s lab at this time. You decide to tip the flasks so that broth enters the long S-shaped neck. You then return the flask to its upright position. Predict the most likely outcome of tipping one of Pasteur’s S-necked flasks.

*The broth would remain uncontaminated because no microbes could enter the long S-shaped neck of the flask.

*The broth would become contaminated with microbes because they were trapped in the neck.

*Since the broth had been heated (effectively sterilizing it), no microbes would grow in the broth.

*Microbes would grow in the broth because the tipping would introduce the oxygen necessary for microbial growth.

back 23

The broth would become contaminated with microbes because they were trapped in the neck.

front 24

S. aureus has been isolated from George’s infected wound. To satisfy Koch’s postulates, what would George’s doctor need to do with the isolated S. aureus?

*Inject the S. aureus strain into an animal and see whether it develops the same type of infection that George has.

*Inject the S. aureus into an animal, observe whether the animal gets an infection similar to George’s, and isolate the same strain of S. aureus from the infection.

*Compare the DNA sequence of the strain of S. aureus isolated from George to other S. aureus strains to see whether it has been isolated from other similar infections.

*Inject the S. aureus into an animal; if the animal develops the same infection, isolate the infectious material from the animal and test its ability to vaccinate another animal.

back 24

Inject the S. aureus into an animal, observe whether the animal gets an infection similar to George’s, and isolate the same strain of S. aureus from the infection.

front 25

Which of the following are limitations of antibiotics?Select all that apply.

*Treatment with antibiotics can lead to the emergence of resistant strains.

*Antibiotics may be toxic.

*Antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections.

*Mass production of antibiotics is extremely difficult.

*The cost of producing antibiotics is high, which in turn leads to higher prices for consumers.

back 25

Treatment with antibiotics can lead to the emergence of resistant strains.

Antibiotics may be toxic.

Antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections.

front 26

Further characterization of the S. aureus isolated from George’s wound reveals that the strain is MRSA. Why is George’s doctor concerned that MRSA has been identified as the causative agent of George’s infection?

*There are no effective antibiotic options for treating MRSA.

*The available treatment options are quite aggressive, including removal of damaged tissue in an effort to contain the infection.

*MRSA is transmissible.

*MRSA is not typically associated with the type of infection that George has.

back 26

MRSA is transmissible.

front 27

Pick the area of biology that studies DNA and chromosomes. molecular biology

genealogy

genetics

biochemistry

back 27

Genetics

front 28

Pick step that does NOT follow the postulates.

*A mouse that was exposed to a potential viral pathogen has died and you are able to isolate the virus from the liver of the mouse.

*You give a patient an antibiotic to treat an infection.

*You are able to isolate a pathogenic bacterium from someone with a new type of pharyngitis.

*You collect a throat swab from a family member who has also become sick.

back 28

You give a patient an antibiotic to treat an infection.

front 29

The current system of nomenclature for organisms was established by:

a.Pasteur.

b.Jenner.

c.Linnaeus.

d.Koch.

back 29

Linnaeus .

front 30

Scientific nomenclature assigns each organism two names: the genus and the

a.kingdom.

b.specific epithet.

c.family.

d.class.

back 30

Specific epithet

front 31

Archaea, often found in extreme environments, are divided into

a.two main groups.

b.three main groups.

c.four main groups.

d.five main groups.

back 31

Three main groups

front 32

In 1978, Carl Woese devised a system ofclassification that groups organisms into the domains Bacteria, Archaea, and

a.Animalia.

b.Eukaryotes.

c.Eukarya.

d.Protozoa.

back 32

Eukarya

front 33

Eukarya includes ALL of the following EXCEPT

a.viruses.

b.protists.

c.fungi.

d.plants.

back 33

Viruses

front 34

Robert Koch

a.invented the microscope.

b.discovered penicillin.

c.proved that bacteria can cause disease.

d.observed the first cells.

back 34

Proved that bacteria can cause disease

front 35

Who discovered a chemotherapeutic agent against syphilis?

a.Jenner

b.Pasteur

c.Koch

d.Ehrlich

back 35

Ehrlich

front 36

Robert Koch developed his postulates while

identifying the cause of which disease?

a.syphilis

b.anthrax

c.yellow fever

d.tetanus

back 36

anthrax

front 37

Fleming

a.disproved spontaneous generation.

b.discovered penicillin.

c.discovered phagocytosis.

d.developed the theory of immunity.

back 37

Discovered penicillin

front 38

Pasteur

a.discovered the cause of fermentation.

b.discovered penicillin.

c.discovered phagocytosis.

d.developed aseptic surgery.

back 38

Discovered the cause of fermentation.

front 39

Lister is associated with

a.fermentation.

b.vaccination.

c.aseptic surgery.

d.the cell theory.

back 39

Aseptic surgery

front 40

Jenner is associated with

a.fermentation.

b.vaccination.

c.aseptic surgery.

d.the cell theory.

back 40

Vaccination

front 41

The process of using just enough heat to kill bacteria that cause spoilage was developed by

a.Pasteur.

b.Ehrlich.

c.Lister.

d.Koch.

back 41

Pasteur

front 42

Salvarsan was developed by

a.Ehrlich.

b.Fleming.

c.Weizmann.

d.Needham.

back 42

Erlich

front 43

Cryptosporidiosis, which can be transmitted in a public water supply, is caused by a

a.virus.

b.prion.

c.protozoan.

d.bacterium.

back 43

Protozoan

front 44

HIV destroys which type of immune cells?

a.neutrophils

b.CD4+ T cells

c.B cells

d.CD8+ T cells

back 44

CD4+ T cells

front 45

ALL of the following are natural human defenses against disease EXCEPT

a.interferon.

b.penicillin.

c.skin.

d.mucous membranes.

back 45

Penicillin

front 46

Human disease caused by a prion is known as

a.MRSA.

b.Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

c.SARS.

d.West Nile encephalitis.

back 46

Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease

front 47

An example of a hemorrhagic fever virus is

a.Marburg virus.

b.human immunodeficiency virus.

c.avian influenza virus.

d.West Nile virus.

back 47

Marburg virus

front 48

Bacillus thuringiensis is used

a.to treat sewage.

b.in bioremediation.

c.as a natural insecticide.

d.to recycle vital elements.

back 48

A natural insecticide

front 49

Bioremediation is the use of microbes

a.to clean up pollutants and toxic wastes.

b.in recycling vital elements.

c.to treat sewage.

d.in food production.

back 49

To clean up pollutants and toxic wastes

front 50

Biotechnology can best be defined as using living organisms to

a.clean up pollution.

b.develop useful products.

c.treat sewage.

d.control pests.

back 50

Develop useful products

front 51

Gene therapy can be used to treat

a.cystic fibrosis.

b.diphtheria.

c.polio.

d.avian influenza A.

back 51

Cystic fibrosis

front 52

ONLY bacteria can convert which element into a form that is available to plants and animals?

a.carbon

b.oxygen

c.nitrogen

d.hydrogen

back 52

nitrogen

front 53

Who challenged the case for spontaneous generation with the concept of biogenesis?

a.Pasteur

b.Virchow

c.Redi

d.Needham

back 53

Virchow

front 54

What is the function of the diaphragm on a compound microscope?

a.magnifies the specimen

b.focuses light through the specimen

c.holds the microscope slide in position

d.controls the amount of light entering the condenser

back 54

controls the amount of light entering the condenser

front 55

The ocular lens is used

a.to remagnify the image formed by the objective lens.

b.as the primary lens to magnify the specimen.

c.to increase the light.

d.to decrease the refractive index.

back 55

to remagnify the image formed by the objective lens.

front 56

The measure of the light-bending ability of a medium is the

a.illumination.

b.magnification.

c.refractive index.

d.resolution.

back 56

Refractive index

front 57

MOST ocular lenses magnify specimens by a factor of

a.10.

b.100.

c.1000.

d.2000.

back 57

10

front 58

The ability of the lenses to distinguish fine detail and structure is called

a.illumination.

b.magnification.

c.refractive index.

d.resolution.

back 58

Resolution

front 59

Which microscope uses an opaque disk to block light that would enter the objective lens directly?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

back 59

Darkfield microscope

front 60

Which microscope uses an ultraviolet light source?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

back 60

Fluorescence microscope

front 61

Which microscope illuminates specimens with blue light and produces three-dimensional images?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

back 61

Confocal microscope

front 62

Which microscope forms an image from two sets of light rays, one from the light source and the other diffracted from a structure in the specimen?

a.fluorescence microscope

b.phase-contrast microscope

c.darkfield microscope

d.confocal microscope

back 62

Phase-contrast microscope

front 63

What microscope uses a metal and diamond probe to produce a three-dimensional image?

a.atomic force microscope

b.darkfield microscope

c.phase-contrast microscope

d.transmission electron microscope

back 63

atomic force microscope

front 64

Which microscope is especially useful in studying the surface structures of intact cells and viruses?

a.transmission electron microscope

b.scanning electron microscope

c.phase-contrast microscope

d.darkfield microscope

back 64

scanning electron microscope

front 65

In transmission electron microscopy, the specimen is placed on a

a.copper mesh grid.

b.glass slide.

c.plastic slide.

d.magnesium mesh grid.

back 65

Copper mesh grid

front 66

Which microscope is extremely valuable for examining different layers of specimens and often involves the use of shadow casting?

a.transmission electron microscope

b.scanning electron microscope

c.phase-contrast microscope

d.darkfield microscope

back 66

Transmission electron microscope

front 67

With a scanning electron microscope, objects are generally magnified

a.100 to 100,000x.

b.100 to 10,000x.

c.1000 to 100,000x.

d.1000 to 10,000x.

back 67

100 to 10,000X

front 68

With a transmission electron microscope, objects are generally magnified

a.1000 to 100,000x.

b.1000 to 10,000x.

c.10,000 to 1,000,000x.

d.10,000 to 100,000x.

back 68

10,000 to 1,000,000x

front 69

Before microorganisms are stained, MOST appear ________ when viewed with brightfield microscopy.

a.golden

b.green

c.colorless

d.hollow

back 69

colorless

front 70

The chromophore of basic dyes is a ________ and is ________ to MOST types of bacteria.

a.cation; attracted

b.anion; attracted

c.cation; not attracted

d.anion; not attracted

back 70

cation; attracted

front 71

Which one of the following is NOT a kind of staining technique?

a.simple

b.differential

c.special

d.selective

back 71

Selective

front 72

The process of fixing a slide attaches the microorganisms while simultaneously

a.illuminating the organisms.

b.staining the organisms.

c.killing the organisms.

d.magnifying the organisms.

back 72

Killing the organisms

front 73

In 1978, Carl Woese devised a system of classification that groups organisms into the domains Bacteria, Archaea, and

a.Animalia.

b.Eukaryotes.

c.Eukarya.

d.Protozoa.

back 73

Eukarya

front 74

What is the mordant in the Gram stain?

a.iodine

b.safranin

c.alcohol-acetone

d.crystal violet

back 74

iodine

front 75

Flagella are stained with

a.carbolfuchsin.

b.malachite green.

c.methylene blue.

d.crystal violet.

back 75

Carbolfuchsin

front 76

Capsules are stained using a(n)

a.negative stain.

b.Gram stain.

c.Schaeffer-Fulton stain.

d.acid-fast stain.

back 76

negative stain

front 77

Endospores are stained using a(n)

a.negative stain.

b.Gram stain.

c.Schaeffer-Fulton stain.

d.acid-fast stain.

back 77

Schaeffer-Fulton stain

front 78

What color are gram-negative bacteria at the completion of the Gram staining process?

a.pink

b.purple

c.colorless

d.brown

back 78

Pink

front 79

The appearance of Mycobacterium leprae after they are stained with an acid-fast stain is

a.purple.

b.red.

c.colorless.

d.brown.

back 79

Red

front 80

Bacteria that divide in multiple planes and form grapelike clusters are called

a.streptococci.

b.staphylococci.

c.coccobacilli.

d.vibrios.

back 80

Stphylococci

front 81

Bacteria divide by

a.binary fission.

b.spore formation.

c.mitosis.

d.budding.

back 81

Binary fission

front 82

Which of the following statements is TRUE for prokaryotes?

a.They generally lack organelles.

b.Their DNA is associated with histones.

c.Their cell walls are chemically simple.

d.Their DNA is enclosed in an internal membrane.

back 82

They generally lack organelles

front 83

How long are MOST bacteria?

a.0.2 to 2.0 µm

b.1.0 to 4.0 µm

c.2.0 to 8.0 µm

d.5.0 to 15.0 µm

back 83

2.0 to 8.0 µm

front 84

The word Bacillus may refer to

a.rod-shaped cells.

b.spherical cells.

c.a specific genus.

d.rod-shaped cells and a specific genus.

back 84

Rod-shaped cells and a specific genus

front 85

Some bacteria stain gram-positive and others stain gram-negative because of differences in the structure of their

a.cell wall.

b.capsule.

c.cell membrane.

d.endospore.

back 85

Cell wall

front 86

The bacterial cell wall is composed of

a.cellulose.

b.glucan.

c.chitin.

d.peptidoglycan.

back 86

Peptidoglycan

front 87

The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria contain

a.mannan.

b.teichoic acid.

c.cellulose.

d.chitin.

back 87

Teichoic acid

front 88

The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria contains

a.sterols.

b.mycolic acid.

c.teichoic acid.

d.lipopolysaccharide.

back 88

lipopolysaccharide

front 89

Acid-fast cell walls contain high concentrations of

a.teichoic acid.

b.peptidoglycan.

c.pseudomurein.

d.mycolic acid.

back 89

Mycolic acid

front 90

A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at one end of its cell is called

a.amphitrichous.

b.lophotrichous.

c.monotrichous.

d.peritrichous.

back 90

Lophotrichous

front 91

What structure protects pathogenic bacteria from phagocytosis?

a.capsule

b.endospore

c.flagellum

d.axial filament

back 91

Capsule

front 92

Spirochetes move by means of

a.axial filaments.

b.flagella.

c.pili.

d.fimbriae.

back 92

Axial filaments

front 93

Which of the following is NOT a part of a flagellum?

a.filament

b.hook

c.fimbriae

d.basal body

back 93

fimbriae

front 94

Proteins that distinguish among serovars of gram-negative bacteria are found in which structures?

a.fimbriae

b.pili

c.flagella

d.axial filaments

back 94

Flagella

front 95

Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA in bacteria are known as

a.Golgi complexes.

b.lysosomes.

c.plasmids.

d.ribosomes.

back 95

Plasmids

front 96

Inclusions of iron oxide in bacteria are found in structures known as

a.gas vacuoles.

b.magnetosomes.

c.endospores.

d.metachromatic granules.

back 96

Magnetosomes

front 97

Which of the following structures allows a cell to survive adverse environmental conditions?

a.capsule

b.carboxysome

c.endospore

d.gas vacuole

back 97

Endospores

front 98

Bacteria that divide in multiple planes and form grapelike clusters are called

a.streptococci.

b.staphylococci.

c.coccobacilli.

d.vibrios.

back 98

staphylococci

front 99

Prokaryotic ribosomes are composed of two subunits of what sizes?

a.20S + 50S

b.30S + 40S

c.30S + 50S

d.40S + 60S

back 99

30S + 50S

front 100

Which of the following contain 70S ribosomes?

a.prokaryotes

b.mitochondria

c.mitochondria and chloroplasts

d.prokaryotes, mitochondria, and
chloroplasts

back 100

Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

front 101

True or false: Most microorganisms are colorless unless they are photosynthetic

back 101

True

front 102

The building of complex organic molecules from simpler ones is called

a.catabolism.

b.anabolism.

c.photosynthesis.

d.oxidation.

back 102

Anabolism

front 103

Toxic hydrogen peroxide in some bacteria can be broken down into water and oxygen by the enzyme

a.superoxide dismutase.

b.peroxidase.

c.hydroxylase.

d.catalase.

back 103

Catalase

front 104

Inhibitors that fill the enzyme's active site and compete with the normal substrate are

a.noncompetitive.

b.allosteric.

c.competitive.

d.ribosomal.

back 104

Competitive

front 105

Enzymes increase the speed of a chemical

reaction by

a.lowering the energy of activation.

b.increasing the energy of activation.

c.changing the pH of the reaction.

d.increasing the temperature of the reaction.

back 105

Lowering the energy of activation.

front 106

Many apoenzymes are inactive by themselves and must be activated by

a.cofactors and/or coenzymes.

b.ATP.

c.holoenzymes.

d.substrates.

back 106

Cofactors and/or coenzymes

front 107

The addition of phosphate to a chemical compound is called

a.glycolysis.

b.oxidation.

c.reduction.

d.phosphorylation.

back 107

Phosphorylation

front 108

What process does the aerobic electron transport chain perform?

a.glycolysis

b.oxidative phosphorylation

c.photophosphorylation

d.substrate-level phosphorylation

back 108

Oxidative phosphrylation

front 109

A molecule that undergoes reduction

a.becomes phosphorylated.

b.loses a hydrogen atom.

c.gains one or more electrons.

d.loses one or more electrons.

back 109

Gains one or more electrons

front 110

The energy from catabolic reactions is used to produce

a.ADP.

b.ATP.

c.AMP.

d.phosphate.

back 110

ATP

front 111

In which of the following is light energy converted to ATP, which is then used to synthesize organic molecules?

a.photosynthesis

b.Krebs cycle

c.fermentation

d.glycolysis

back 111

Photosynthesis

front 112

In prokaryotes, how many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of one glucose via aerobic respiration?

a.2

b.4

c.34

d.38

back 112

38

front 113

The pentose phosphate pathway provides a means to break down glucose and

a.five-carbon sugars.

b.proteins.

c.lipids.

d.ATP.

back 113

Five-carbon sugars

front 114

________ use electrons from reduced inorganic compounds as a source of energy and CO2 as a source of carbon.

a.Photoautotrophs

b.Photoheterotrophs

c.Chemoautotrophs

d.Chemoheterotrophs

back 114

Chemoautotrophs

front 115

In lipid biosynthesis, glycerol is derived from dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed during

a.the Krebs cycle.

b.glycolysis.

c.the electron transport chain.

d.the Calvin-Benson cycle.

back 115

Glycolysis

front 116

If an amine group added to a precursor comes from a preexisting amino acid, the process is called

a.beta-oxidation.

b.amination.

c.transamination.

d.beta-reduction.

back 116

Transamination

front 117

Metabolic pathways that function in BOTH

anabolism and catabolism are called ________

pathways.

a.intermediate

b.reversible

c.redox

d.amphibolic

back 117

Amiphibolic

front 118

In fermentation,

a.the final electron acceptor is organic.

b.a large amount of ATP is produced.

c.oxygen is required.

d.an electron transport chain is required.

back 118

The final electron acceptor is organic

front 119

The optimum pH for MOST bacteria is near

a.1.

b.5.

c.7.

d.9.

back 119

7

front 120

A psychrophile has an optimal growth temperature of about

a.15°C.

b.25°C.

c.37°C.

d.100°C.

back 120

15 C

front 121

Organisms that require high salt concentrations for growth are called

a.thermophiles.

b.obligate halophiles.

c.acidophiles.

d.anaerobes.

back 121

Obligate halphophiles

front 122

What is/are the energy source(s) utilized by primary producers in the hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor?

a.light

b.hydrogen sulfide

c.organic molecules

d.carbon dioxide

back 122

Hydrogen sulfide

front 123

Addition of salts preserves foods because they

a.lower pH.

b.increase osmotic pressure.

c.create an isotonic environment.

d.lower osmotic pressure.

back 123

Increase osmotic pressure

front 124

Chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs derive their carbon from

a.carbon dioxide.

b.proteins.

c.lipids.

d.carbohydrates.

back 124

Carbon dioxide

front 125

Some microorganisms use gaseous nitrogen directly from the atmosphere in a process called

a.denitrification.

b.photosynthesis.

c.nitrogen fixation.

d.nitrogen synthesis.

back 125

Nitrogen fixation

front 126

An organism that uses oxygen when present but can grow without oxygen is called a(n)

a.obligate aerobe.

b.facultative anaerobe.

c.microaerophile.

d.aerotolerant anaerobe.

back 126

Facultative anaerobe

front 127

Which organism is killed by atmospheric oxygen?

a.facultative anaerobe

b.obligate aerobe

c.obligate anaerobe

d.aerotolerant anaerobe

back 127

Obligate aerobe

front 128

Toxic hydrogen peroxide in some bacteria can be broken down into water and oxygen by the enzyme

a.superoxide dismutase.

b.peroxidase.

c.hydroxylase.

d.catalase.

back 128

Catalase

front 129

Generation time can best be defined as

a.the length of time it takes for lag phase.

b.the duration of log phase.

c.the time it takes for a cell to divide.

d.how many generations a cell can divide.

back 129

the time it takes for a cell to divide.

front 130

Bacterial growth is usually graphed using ________ scales.

a.arithmetic

b.exponential

c.logarithmic (semi-logarithmic)

d.inverse

back 130

logarithmic (semi-logarithmic)

front 131

In which growth phase is there intense activity preparing for population growth, but no increase in population?

a.stationary phase

b.log phase

c.death phase

d.lag phase

back 131

Lag phase

front 132

Which of the following is NOT a possible reason why exponential growth stops?

a.accumulation of waste products

b.exhaustion of nutrients

c.harmful changes in pH

d.bacteria becoming dormant

back 132

bacteria becoming dormant

front 133

In the stationary phase,

a.the number of microbial deaths exceeds the number of new cells formed.

b.the number of microbial deaths is equal to the number of new cells formed.

c.new cells are no longer formed because of adverse environmental conditions.

d.cellular reproduction is most active.

back 133

the number of microbial deaths is equal to the number of new cells formed.

front 134

Which type of medium suppresses the growth of unwanted bacteria and encourages growth of desired microbes?

a.differential media

b.complex media

c.selective media

d.enrichment media

back 134

Selective media

front 135

Microbes that are introduced into a culture medium to initiate growth are called a(n)

a.inoculum.

b.culture.

c.specimen.

d.medium.

back 135

Inoculum

front 136

What is added to a medium when it is desirable to grow bacteria on a solid medium?

a.glucose

b.magnesium sulfate

c.sodium thioglycollate

d.agar

back 136

agar

front 137

A culture medium made of extracts from yeasts, meat, or plants is a ________ medium.

a.complex

b.selective

c.differential

d.chemically defined

back 137

Complex

front 138

Labs intended for highly infectious airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis, are classified as

a.BSL-1.

b.BSL-2.

c.BSL-3.

d.BSL-4.

back 138

BSL-3

front 139

A spectrophotometer can be used to measure

a.metabolic activity.

b.turbidity.

c.dry weight.

d.pathogenicity.

back 139

Turbidity

front 140

The method in which a measured volume of bacterial suspension is placed within a defined area on a microscope slide is called the

a.direct microscope count.

b.pour plate method.

c.spread plate method.

most probable number method.

back 140

Direct microscope count

front 141

Which process is used to ensure that plates contain 30 to 300 colonies when counted?

a.turbidity

b.serial dilution

c.filtration

d.pour plates

back 141

Serial dilution

front 142

Which is the best technique to use to measure the growth of filamentous organisms?

a.most probable number method

b.direct microscopic count

c.turbidity

d.dry weight

back 142

Dry weight

front 143

Which method is a statistical estimating technique used to determine the number of bacteria in a sample?

a.turbidity

b.spread plate method

c.most probable number method

d.pour plate method

back 143

Most probable number method

front 144

Starting with one bacterial cell, how many cells would you have after 10 generations?

a.10

b.20

c.200

d.1024

back 144

1024

front 145

Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT:

a) yeast
b) protozoan
c) bacterium
d) Cat
e) virus

back 145

Cat

Yeast and protozoan are both eukaryotic

front 146

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by:
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Francesco Redi
c) Rudolf Virchow
d) John Needham
e) Lazzaro Spallanzani

back 146

A) Louis Pasteur

front 147

The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism:
a) microbe
b) bacterium
c) virus
d) pathogen
e) infection

back 147

Pathogen: small # of microorganisms

front 148

Which physician is first associated with vaccination?
a) Ehrlich
b) Jenner
c) Lister
d) Koch
e) Escherich

back 148

Jenner

front 149

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the
a) genus
b) domain name
c) species
d) kingdom
e) family name

back 149

species

front 150

Which disease has been eliminated through the use of vaccines:
a) tuberculosis
b) measles
c) rubella
d) smallpox
e) infuenza

back 150

smallpox

front 151

Viruses are not considered living organisms because they
a) cannot reproduce by themselves
b) are structurally very simple
c) can only be visualized using an electron microscope.
d) are typically associated with disease
e) are ubiquitous in nature

back 151

a) cannot reproduce by themselves

front 152

If a microscope has an objective lens labeled 63X and an ocular lens of 10x what is the final magnification of this scope?

back 152

63X10=630