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Microbiology Test 2

1.

These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors.

tail fibers

2.

True or False: Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.

True

3.

Viruses with __________ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _________ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.

positive, negative

4.

The capsomers are made of

protein.

5.

Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?

blood agar

6.

Clostridium botulinum is made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding for the botulinum toxin. What term describes this process?

Lysogenic conversion

7.

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.

nucleus, cytoplasm

8.

Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a cell culture.

primary

9.

All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except

viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.

10.

Viruses have all the following except

metabolism.

11.

True or False: The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses has determined that there are only three orders of viruses.

False

12.

True or False: Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.

False

13.

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is

adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release.

14.

True or False: Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.

False

15.

Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called

pocks.

16.

Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms?

None of the choices are correct.

17.

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except

Measles virus.

18.

Which of the following viruses did D. Ivanovski and M. Beijerinck work with?

Tobacco Mosaic Virus

19.

How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host?

Budding or exocytosis

20.

True or False: Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.

False

21.

Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _____.

bacteriophages

22.

Virus capsids are made from subunits called

capsomeres.

23.

Uncoating of viral nucleic acid

All of the choices are correct.

24.

The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called

cytopathic effects.

25.

Satellite viruses are

dependent on other viruses for replication.

26.

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called

plaques.

27.

Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is

a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.

28.

True or False: The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions.

False

29.

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except

biochemical reactions.

30.

Which of the following represents a virus family name?

Herpesviridae

31.

Host cells of viruses include

All of the choices are correct.

32.

A(n) _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.

capsid

33.

True or False: Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.

True

34.

A naked virus does not have a(n) ________ .

envelope

35.

True or False: No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States.

True

36.

True or False: When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell.

True

37.

The core of every virus particle always contains

either DNA or RNA.

38.

Which of the following is correct
about viruses?

cannot be seen with a light microscope

39.

When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means

the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.

40.

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they

are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

41.

Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _______ , and the infectious RNA strands called ________ .

prions, viroids

42.

Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?

All of the choices are correct.

43.

T-even phages

infect Escherichia coli cells.

44.

Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called

latent

45.

True or False: Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections.

False

46.

Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produced against the virus.

Antibodies

47.

True or False: A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.

True

48.

The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a _____ relationship.

Mutualistic

49.

Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called

Saprobes

50.

The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the

Generation time

51.

What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?

Thioglycollate

52.

The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that

Are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2

53.

The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called

Endocytosis

54.

The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes,

Superoxide dismutase and catalase

55.

An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n)

Obligate aerobe

56.

Aerobic respiration is an example of

Chemoheterotrophy

57.

The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semi permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called

Facilitated diffusion

58.

True or False: A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion.

True

59.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the

Stationary phase

60.

True or False: Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 environment.

True

61.

True or False: Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.

False

62.

All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except

Psychrophiles

63.

A halophile would grow best in

Salt lakes

64.

An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an

Growth factor

65.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the

Log phase

66.

True or False: Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane.

True

67.

In _____ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.

Hypotonic

68.

True or False: Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.

False

69.

True or False: After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.

False

70.

Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic or salty environments, are called

Extremophiles

71.

When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size and differentiate between dead and live cells a ___ is used.

flow cytometer

72.

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37° C incubator and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?

Psychrophile

73.

The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called

Antibiosis

74.

True or False: The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that species' generation time.

True

75.

Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would

Shrivel

76.

Contractile vacuoles are

Used to expel excess water from cells

77.

Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.

Pathogens

78.

When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed

Phagocytosis

79.

An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a(n)

Aerobe

80.

True or False: Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body conditions.

False

81.

Calcium is required for bacteria because

It stabilizes the cell wall

82.

An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is

Magnesium

83.

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an

Facultative anaerobe

84.

An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-less environments is a(n)

Facultative anaerobe

85.

True or False: Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell.

True

86.

Growth factors

Cannot be synthesized by the organism

87.

The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semi permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called

Active transport

88.

Diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane is called

Osmosis

89.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the

Lag phase

90.

A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with

Oxygen

91.

Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism

Macronutrient

92.

The term facultative refers to

The ability to exist in a wide range of conditions

93.

Why are Archea as a group are not pathogens?

Because mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements

94.

The term phototroph refers to an organism that

Gets energy from sunlight

95.

True or False: Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.

False

96.

True or False Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy.

True

97.

What is a virus?

an infectious particle consisting of gene packaged in a protein coat

98.

What did Ivanoski and Beijerink do?

discovered and isolated tobacco mosaic virus

99.

Viruses have DNA ____(and/or)___ RNA

DNA or RNA NEVER BOTH

100.

What is the most abundant microbe on earth?

viruses

101.

Are viruses cellular or noncellular?

Noncellular meaning they are non living

102.

Can viruses metabolize?

No viruses cannot metabolize

103.

Are viruses capable of replicating without a cellular host?

No, viruses are obligate meaning they require a host to replicate

104.

Can viruses form their own structures and receptors?

No, they have no machinery for protein synthesis

105.

What is a capsid?

a viral protein coat

106.

What is the capsid together with the nucleic acid called?

nucleocapsid

107.

What are the identical protein subunits of a capsid called?

capsomeres

108.

Give some examples of enveloped viruses

HIV, Coronavirus, Yellow fever, Rubella, Hepatitis C

109.

What are the two structural capsid types

Helical - continuous helix of capsomers

Icosahedral - 3D, 20-sided with 12 corners

110.

Why can enveloped viruses not survive long outside of a host?

The lipid bilayer is prone to drying out

111.

What are the capsid and envelope responsible for?

transfer of the viral genetic material from one cell to another, resistance to chemical or physical inactivation

112.

What are spikes essential for?

for attachment of viruses to the host cell

113.

Give an example of a plant virus that is enveloped

Tomato spotted wilt virus

114.

_____________ viruses possess great adaptability and can change in a short time in order to invade the immune system

Enveloped

115.

What kind of virus uses bacteria as its host

bacteriophages

116.

What are the general phases in animal virus multiplication cycle

Adsorption

Penetration

Uncoating

Synthesis

Assembly

Release

117.

Give examples of DNA viruses

Papillomavirus, Herpesviruses, Epstein-Barr, Hepatitis B

118.

Give examples of RNA viruses

HIV, COVID, FLU, Measles, Rabies

119.

ssRNA genomes ready for immediate translation are

positive sense RNA

120.

ssRNA genomes that must be converted into proper form are

negative sense RNA

121.

what is needed to convert negative sense RNA to positive sense RNA

reverse transcriptase

122.

Family names of viruses end in

viridae EX: Herpesviridae

123.

Genus name of viruses ends in

-virus EX: Simplexvirus

124.

What is endocytosis

entire virus is engulfed and enclosed in a vacuole or vesicle

125.

What is fusion

envelope merges directly with membrane resulting in nucleocapsids entry into cytoplasm

126.

Where are DNA viruses assembled

the nucleus

127.

Where are RNA viruses assembled

the cytoplasm

128.

What are the two ways viruses can leave a host

Budding - sheds viruses gradually, cell is not immediately destroyed

Lysis - released when cell dies and ruptures

129.

Define Cytopathic effect (CPE)

virus induced specific damage to cell that alters its microscopic appearance

130.

Define persistent infections and give examples

cell harbors the virus and is not immediately lysed, Measles, Herpes simplex, Herpes zoster

131.

Define oncoviruses and give examples

Mammalian viruses capable of initiating tumors examples are Epstein Barr Virus, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV

132.

What are the stages of bacteriophage replication in order

Adsorption, Penetration, Replication, Assembly, Maturation, Lysis and Release

133.

What are the two life cycles of a bacteriophage

lytic and lysogenic

134.

What kind of phages undergo adsorption and penetration but don't replicate

temperate phages

135.

The viral genome inserts into bacterial genome and becomes an inactive __________.

prophage

136.

When a prophage is retained and copied during normal cell division resulting in the transfer of temperate phage genome to all host cell progeny is called?

lysogeny

137.

______________ can occur resulting in activation of lysogenic prophage followed by viral replication and cell lysis

Induction

138.

Lysogeny results in the spread of the virus without ___________ the host cell

killing

139.

What is lysogenic conversion

phage genes in the bacterial chromosome can cause the production of toxins or enzymes that cause pathology

140.

What methods can you use to grow viruses

cell (tissue) cultures

Birid embryos

Live animal inoculation

141.

True or False: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites

True

142.

What are prions

proteinaceous infectious particles - infectious misfolded proteins, contain no nucleic acid

143.

What are some prion diseases common in animals

Scrapie - in sheep and goats

Mad Cow Disease (Bovine spongiform encephalopathies)

Wasting disease - in elk

144.

Give examples of Human prion diseases

Kuru

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

Fatal familial insomnia (FFI)

145.

Describe Satellite viruses

dependent on other viruses for replication

146.

Describe viroids

tiny circular, single-stranded RNAs that are infectious pathogens. Have no protein coating, common in plants may also affect humans

147.

What are essential nutrients

must be provided to an organism can not acquire denovo

148.

96% of cell is composed of 6 elements name those elements

carbon

hydrogen

oxygen

phosphorous

sulfer

nitrogen

149.

Heterotroph

depend on other living things

150.

Autotroph

uses CO2 does not depend on other living things

151.

Chemotroph

gain energy from chemical compounds

152.

Phototroph

gain energy through photosynthesis

153.

Saprobes

free-living microorganisms that feed on organic detritus from dead organisms

154.

Parasites

derive nutrients from host

155.

Passive Transport

does not require energy, higher concentration to lower EX: diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion

156.

Active Transport

requires energy and carrier proteins EX: group translocation, bulk transport

157.

Isotonic

equal inside and out in both Bacteria and Humans

158.

Hypotonic

into cell causes; in Humans it causes it to burst or swell in Bacteria the wall prevents it from bursting

159.

Hypertonic

out of cell; in Humans causes it to shrink and become distorted in Bacteria shrinks cell membrane away from cell wall

160.

Endocytosis

bringing substances into the cell through a vesicle or phagosome

161.

Phagocytosis

ingests substances or cells

162.

Pinocytosis

ingests liquids

163.

What is a niche when referring to bacteria

the totality of adaptions organisms make to their habitat including factors such as pH, temperature, oxygen requirements, osmotic pressure, and barometric pressure

164.

psychrophiles

< 15 ℃

165.

mesophile

20 - 40 ℃

166.

thermophiles

> 45 ℃

167.

Enzymes that function at high temperatures or other harsh conditions are called:

extremozymes

168.

What does Thermoduric mean

survive for short time above maximum temperature for growth EX: are Bacillus, Microbacterium, Streptococcus

169.

enzymes that kill toxic oxygen products

superoxide, dismutase, catalase

170.

utilizes oxygen and can detoxify it

aerobe

171.

cannot grow without oxygen aerobe EX: Micrococcus luteus

Obligate aerobe

172.

utilizes O2 if it is available, but can also grow in the absence of O2 EX: Staphylococci

Facultative anaerobe

173.

requires only a small amount of oxygen Helicobacter pylori

Microaerophilic

174.

does not utilize oxygen

Anaerobe

175.

lacks the enzymes to detoxify O2 so can not survive in an O2 environment EX: Clostridium

Obligate anaerobe

176.

do not utilize O2 but can survive and grow in its presence EX: Lactobacilli

Aerotolerant anaerobes

177.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

example of facultative anaerobe Gram-negative coffee-bean "diplococci"

178.

Capnophile

grows best at higher CO2 tensions than normally present in the atmosphere EX: Haemophilus influenza

179.

require a high concentration of salt

Halophiles

180.

do not require high concentration of solute but can tolerate it when it occurs

Osmotolerant

181.

can survive under extreme pressure and will rupture if exposed to normal atmospheric pressure

Basophiles

182.

Biofilms

cooperative aggregate of microorganisms associated a surface and enclosed in a polymeric matrix

183.

quorum sensing

communicate and cooperate in the formation and functions of biofilms

184.

Beneficial biofilms

layers of normal microbiota lining the intestinal and respiratory mucosa help ward off infections by pathogens

185.

Harmful biofilms

form on teeth can contribute to dental and periodontal diseases, forms on wounds causing infections that can spread

186.

Microbial growth occurs at two levels growth at a cellular level with increase in ________ and increase in ____________.

size, population

187.

Division of bacterial cells occurs mainly through ______________

binary fission

188.

Time required for a complete fission cycle is called the ________________, or doubling time

generation

189.

Each new fission cycle increases the population by a factor of ______.

2

190.

Rate of population growth forumla

Nt = (Ni)2n

191.

What are the 4 stages of the population growth curve

Lag phase, Log (exponential) phase, Stationary phase, Death phase

192.

What stage is best for Gram staining

log (exponential) phase

193.

What stage is best for motility testing

log (exponential) phase

194.

What stage is best for endospore staining

death phase

195.

Define metabolism

all chemical and physical workings of a cell

196.

Define Anabolism

forms larger macromolecules from small molecules, biosynthesis, requires energy

197.

Define Catabolism

breaks larger molecules to form smaller molecules, biodegeneration, releases energy

198.

What is an enzyme

a biological catalyst

199.

Define exoenzymes and give examples

transported extracellularly, where they break down large food molecules or harmful chemicals, play a role in toxins EX: cellulase, amylase, penicillinase

200.

Define endoenzymes

retained intracellularly and function there, play a role in metabolic pathways (most enzymes fall into this category)

201.

Define labile

chemically unstable enzymes

202.

Define denaturation

weak bonds that maintain the shape of the apoenzyme are broken

203.

Substances that resembles the normal substrate competes with the substrate for the active site

Competitive inhibition

204.

enzymes are regulated by the binding of molecules other than the substrate away from the active site

Noncompetitive inhibition

205.

What are the 3 linked pathways of catabolism

Glycolysis, Kreb's cycle, Electron transport chain

206.

Bioenergetics

study of the mechanisms of cellular energy release

207.

Aerobic respiration

glycolysis, the Kreb's cycle, respiratory chain (MOST ENERGY)

208.

Anaerobic respiration

glycolysis, the Kreb's cycle, respiratory chain; O2 is not the final electron acceptor

209.

Fermentation

glycolysis, organic compounds are the final electron acceptors (LEAST ENERGY)

210.

limiting factors intensify, cells die exponentially

Death phase

211.

grow at extreme acid pH

Acidophiles

212.

grow at extreme alkaline pH

Alkalinophiles