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Path week 5 Midterm

1.

The ________ is the study of causes or reasons for phenomena and identifies causal factors that, acting in concert, provoke a particular disease or injury

etiology

2.

The _________ is the time during which the first signs
and/or symptoms appear indicating the onset of the disease.

prodrome

3.

The ___________ is the test's ability to give the same
results in repeated measurements.

reliability

4.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about homeostasis?

Homeostasis is primarily controlled by the circulatory system.

5.

The Validity is the degree to which a measurement
reflects the true value of what it intends to measure.

true

6.

Which of the following is an example of a factor that
would affect the epidemiology of a particular disease?

Southeast asian etiology

7.

Risk Factors are not stressors, but conditions or
situations that increase the likelihood of encountering a
stressor.

true

8.

A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic
acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of
shock?

septic shock

9.

after sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient
develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is
most likely a consequence of

right sided heart failure

10.

Massive release of histamine with consequent
vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?

Anaphylactic

11.

The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI)
is_

ST-Segement Elevation

12.

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by

reduced cardiac output

13.

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to

pulmonary stenosis

14.

Carbon monoxide injures cells by

reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin

15.

Bacteria cause injury to cells by (Select all that apply.

-Producing destructive enzymes
-Evoking an immune reaction
-Producing endotoxins
-producing exotoxins

16.

Side effects of chemotherapy include (Select all that apply.)

-Anemia
-nausea
-bleeding
-infections

17.

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as

carcinomas

18.

Deficits in immune system function occur in cancer
due to (Select all that apply.)

-Chemotherapy
-cancer cells
-cancer metastasis
-bone marrow
-malnutrition

19.

Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring?

mutant tumor suppressor gene

20.

Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including

Burkitt lymphoma

21.

The effect of nitric oxide on systemic arterioles is

Vasodilation

22.

Positive inotropic drugs work by increasing (Select all
that apply.)

-Contractility,
-cardiac output,
-tissue perfusion,
-vascular resistance

23.

Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used ________ solutions that contain
electrolytes.

Crystaloid

24.

Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram-positive organisms that enter the body through the (Select all that apply.)

-Skin

-Genitourinary tract

-Gastrointestinal tract

-respiratory tract

25.

Progressive stage of shock is marked by
_________________.

hypotension and marked tissue hypoxia

26.

Which is true about Obstructive Shock?

- results from mechanical obstructions that prevent effective cardiac filling and stroke volume - common causes include pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, and tension pneumothorax- rapid management of underlying obstruction is required to prevent cardiovascular collapse

27.

The Primary cause of death in ARDS ( Acute
Respiratory Distress Syndrome ) is

sepsis syndrome

28.

Which one is true about Disseminated Intravascular
Coagulation?

It is both a bleeding and clotting disorder

29.

Which one is incorrect about Heart Failure?

most common cause of heart condition

30.

Which of the following escape rhythms originates in
Purkinje fibers (rate of 15 to 40 beats/min with abnormally wide QRS).?

Ventricular escape rhythm

31.

The ___________ is a completely disorganized and irregular trail rhythm accompanied by an irregular ventricular rythm

Arrhythmia/atrial arrhymia

32.

Aortic regurgitation is associated with

DIASTOLIC MURMUR

33.

Which one is true about biventricular heart failure?

it can only be Measured through Ejection Fraction

34.

Angina due to coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.

Prinzmetal variant

35.

Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative ofirreversible damage to myocardial cells?

Elevated CK-MB,
troponin l,
troponin T

36.

Constrictive pericarditis is associated
with

impaired cardiac filling

37.

A reduction in _________ production after birth
contributes to the heart's closure and constriction in
patent ductus arteriosus.

patent ductus arterioles

38.

Cor pulmonale refers to

right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension

39.

Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at

decreasing myocardial oxygen demands

40.

Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach) is
characterized by

Lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave

41.

A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P
waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38

Ventricular Escape Rhythm

42.

Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused
by (Select all that apply.)

Surgery
-High blood sugar
-corticosteroids
-low protein level

43.

Which of the following is not part of the category of
the Myeloid neoplasm?

none of the above

44.

The most common complication of leukemia and
chemotherapy is

infection

45.

Which is false about Chronic Myeloid Leukemia?

none of the above

46.

Which is false about Hodgkin's Disease?

it is more common than non-Hodgkin lymphoma

47.

A patient is diagnosed with stage IIA Hodgkin disease.
This patient's clinical stage was most likely determined
by (Select all that apply.)

Patient history,
CT scan,
physical examination

48.

This anemia is characterized by genetically determined defects of hemoglobin synthesis resulting in hemoglobin
instability and insolubility.

sickle cell anemia

49.

Which is false about Vascular Purpura?

Senile purpura is an intravascular blood discoloration.

50.

Which is false about secondary Polycythemia?

none of the above

51.

The patients with Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) are deficient in

factor IX

52.

Which of the following coagulation factors is not dependent on Vitamin K?

Everyhting except II, VII, IX, X and protein C and S

53.

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome Factor IX is an example of a(n)

Deficient Immune Response

54.

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder
that involves

impaired muscle function

55.

All the following stress-induced hormones increase

Deficient immune response

blood glucose except

aldosterone

56.

Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress
include all the following except

pupil constriction

57.

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result

permanent damage and death

58.

Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of.......WHAT?

Lack of Intrinsic Factor

59.

A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing.________?

Vitamin K deficiency bleeding

60.

A cause of thrombocytopenia includes

chemotherapy

61.

Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is due to

Release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells

62.

Respiratory acidosis is associated with

increased carbonic acid

63.

Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased
neuromuscular excitability?

Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesimia

64.

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes

air trapping

65.

Two primary acid-base disorders that are present
independently are referred to as

mixed acid base imbalance

66.

A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop

respiratory alkalosis

67.

Causes of metabolic acidosis include

tissue anoxia

68.

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous
nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of

Metabolic acid deficit

69.

Diarrhea causes......and is not just a lot of poop

-Dehydration
-electrolyte Imbalance
-Hypovolemia

70.

A person who experiences a panic attack and develops hyperventilation symptoms may experience

Numbness and tingling in the extremities

71.

The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have

Metabolic Acidosis

72.

The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is

bicarbonate

73.

The secondary hemostasis involves the formation of a
fibrin clot through intrinsic and extrinsic pathways and
coagulation.

true

74.

The Neurogenic Shock is the result of loss of
sympathetic activation of arteriolar skeletal muscle.

false

75.

What information about INR does the nurse
understand?

It standardizes extrinsic clotting pathway analysis

76.

What is involved in the release of plasminogen
activators? (Select all that apply.)

Factor XII
HMWK,
kallikrein,
thrombin

77.

Which involves bleeding associated with vascular or platelet defects? (Select all that apply.)

Bleeding that occurs immediately after trauma,
bleeding that involves skin or mucous membranes, bleeding that is brief in duration

78.

Which diseases may be associated with a bleeding
problem? (Select all that apply.)

-Renal failure,
-cirrhosis,
-systemic lupus erythematous,
-ovarian cancer

79.
  1. A male patient involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department with acute flank pain. What additional signs of bleeding may the patient exhibit? (Select all that apply.)

- Hematuria
-Melena
-Hematemesis
-Hemoptysis

80.

Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress
response include secretion of (Select all that apply.)

-catecholamines.
- ACTH.
-glucocorticoids.
-immune cytokines.

81.

The ___________ is inadequate adaptation
mechanisms or excessive allostatic load; resulting in an
inability to maintain homeostasis.

allostatic overload

82.

The effects of the stress response are influenced by all
the following, except; (select all that apply)

none of the above

83.

All these cellular responses are potentially reversible
except

necrosis

84.

The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is

dysplasia

85.

What roles does inflammation play in cancer
development? (Select all that apply.)

-Initiates carcinogenesis
-Causes direct DNA damage
-Contributes to angiogenesis
-Limits apoptosis

86.

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?

Systemic lupus erythematosus

87.

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused
by__________.

recipient antibodies

88.

Autoimmune diseases result from which of the
following? (Select all that apply.)

-. overactive immune function
-failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules
- environmental toxin exposure

89.

Which diseases are due to type IV hypersensitivity?
(Select all that apply.)

contact dermatitis and drug hypersensitivity

90.

Which is true about epiglottitis? (Select all that apply.)

-Is usually caused by H. influenza type B
-Can be caused by bacterial infection
-Usually occurs in children
-Is characterized by pain with swallowing

91.

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

carbonic acid

92.

The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52, PaCO2 = 30 mm Hg,
HCO3- = 24 mEq/L demonstrates

Respiratory Alkalosis

93.

Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of

β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

94.

Myocarditis should be suspected in a patient who
presents with

acute onset of left ventricular dysfunction

95.

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone
to

rupture

96.

Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of
thrombosis may present with which manifestations?
(Select all that apply.)

-unstable angina.
- MI.
-sudden cardiac arrest

97.

Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

98.

Hapten mechanisms are found in which medications?
(Select all that apply.)

Penicillin
d. Cephalosporins
e. Tetracycline

99.

Tissues are able to autoregulate their rate of blood flow
by controlling______________.

Vascular resistance

100.

Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment
syndrome?

Absent peripheral pulses

101.

Which changes in the circulatory system occur in the
older adult? (Select all that apply.)

- Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

-Decreased elasticity of vessel walls

102.

Blood flow is measured as a given number of which
measurements? (Select all that apply.)

centimeters per second

103.

A patient's ECG lacks recognizable waveforms and is
deemed to represent sinus arrest. What conditions could
have caused this condition? (Select all that apply.)

MI.
-electrical shock.
-electrolyte disturbance.
-acidosis.

104.

The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)
has which effects on the heart? (Select all that apply.)

causing constriction of arterioles and veins

105.

After evaluation, a child's asthma is characterized as
"extrinsic." This means that the asthma is

associated with specific allergic triggers

106.

Cystic fibrosis is associated with____________

Defective epithelial chloride ion transport

107.

Croup is characterized by__________

a barking cough

108.

108. COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes

air trapping

109.

When exposed to inhaled allergens, a patient with
asthma produces large quantities of

ige

110.

Lack of α antitrypsin in emphysema causes

destruction of alveolar tissue

111.

To best prevent emphysema, a patient is instructed to
stop smoking since cigarette smoke

impairs alpha1-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.

112.

When a client diagnosed with COPD type A asks,
"Why is my chest so big and round?," the nurse
responds that

"Loss of elastic tissue in your lungs allows your airways to close and trap air, which makes your chest round."

113.

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of

thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.

114.

An acute asthma attack is associated with which signs
and symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

- bronchoconstriction
- bronchial mucosal edema
- hypersecretion of mucus
- hypoxemia

115.

Which is false about Tricuspid Atresia?

none of the above

116.

Which is false regarding the Truncus Arteriosus?

surgery is not necessary for individuals with this condition.

117.

Widespread atelectasis, non-cardiogenic pulmonary
edema, and diffuse, fluffy alveolar infiltrates on chest
radiograph are characteristic of

acute respiratory distress syndrome.

118.

Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?

Absent breath sounds on the left

119.

A patient exhibiting respiratory distress as well as a
tracheal shift should be evaluated for

pneumothorax

120.

The organism that causes pulmonary tuberculosis is

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

121.

Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

122.

The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is

hypoxemia

123.

Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a

fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.

124.

Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function
primarily because of

weak muscles of respiration.

125.

Legionnaires disease is characterized by

presence of systemic illness.

126.

A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by

decreased residual volume

127.

The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.

sodium

128.

Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control
the release of

vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH) ( increased blood osmolality)

129.

The fraction of total body water (TBW) volume contained in the intracellular space in adults is

two thirds

130.

An increase in the resting membrane potential
(hyperpolarized) is associated with____

Hypokalemia

131.

Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include

Confusion, lethargy, coma, and perhaps seizures

132.

A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop

Hypercalcemia

133.

Clinical manifestations of severe symptomatic
hypophosphatemia are caused by

deficiency of ATP

134.

A known cause of hypokalemia is

pancreatitis

135.

Hyperaldosteronism causes

ECV excess and hypokalemia

136.

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of:

increased neuromuscular excitability.

137.

How is a patient hospitalized with a malignant tumor
that secretes parathyroid hormone-related peptide
monitored for the resulting electrolyte imbalance?

Serum calcium, bowel function, level of conciousness

138.

Which is false about Tetralogy of Fallot?

none of the above

139.

Which is false about the Coarctation of the Aorta?

-Most aortic coarctations are at or below the diaphragm

140.

Which is false about the Ventricular Septal Defect?

The signs and symptoms of a ventricular septal defect are most commonly detected in a baby following birth.

141.

All of the following about high output failure of the lymphatic system are true, EXCEPT:

Lymphedema is usually caused by high output failure.

142.

Which is true about Chronic Venous Insufficiency?

Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI) refers to an advanced stage of venous disease where the veins and muscle pump activity become incompetent.

143.

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of
Acute Arterial Occlusion?

purulence

144.

This kind of true aneurysm is recognized because it
possesses a balloon that has a stem and neck.

Saccular ("BERRY") aneurysm

145.

Which is false about Raynaud Syndrome?

Cold packs alleviate (reduce) the symptoms

146.

Which one is false about Thrombosis?

Thrombosis is solidification of stagnant blood.

147.

The __________ proposes that the net filtration is
equal to the combined forces fostering filtration minus
the combined forces opposing filtration

Starling's hypothesis

148.

Which is false about Von Willebrand Disease?

Functional vWF molecules usually occur as a monomers or dimers.

149.

In hepatic disease, the coagulopathies result from all
of the following, except;

hepatic disease leads to enhanced activity of clotting factors or increased platelet count

150.

Concerning the organization of the circulatory and
Lymphatic Systems in Geriatrics, which one is correct?
select all that apply

all of the above