Signs of________ swelling of the lower extremity, calf pain, and signs of thrombophlebitis. Signs of PE vary depending upon the size of the embolism and can include pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, tachypnea, and tachycardia. A large pulmonary embolism can result in hypotension, syncope, or hemodynamic collapse

a. VTE
b. DVT
c. PE
d. Pulmonary hypertension

b.

Pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, tachypnea, and tachycardia are all signs of
a. pulmonary hypertension
b. pneumothorax
c. pulmonary embolism
d. ARDS

c.

A nurse is hosting an education seminar on Pulmonary Embolism and knows the teaching has been successful when a colleague states:
a. a massive PA would have signs and symptoms of SOB,, dry cough, hemoptysis, diaphoresis and sudden chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration
b. I should reposition the patient before I call the provider if the patient begins to have tachypnea following the diagnosis of DVT

c. Massive PE is defined as a PE that causes 50% or more occlusion to the pulmonary capillary bed
d. all of the above

c.

when taking lovonox (enoxaparin), the nurse would monitor black tarry stools and heme-positive stools
a. t
b. f

a.

Lovenox (enoxoparin) is a
a. thrombolytic
b. anticoagulant
c. LMWH
d. antiplatelet

c.

A client who has increased ICP from a gunshot wound would show S&S such as vomiting (often projectile), dilated pupils (often non-reactive), decorticate/decerebrate posturing, and
a. hypertension/tachycardia
b. hypotension/tachycardia
c. hypertension/bradycardia
d. hypotension/bradycardia

c.

epidural hematoma is emergently treated by drilling burr holes in the skull to decrease ICP, Remove the clot, and control bleeding.
a. t
b. f

a.

A client with an electrical burn should be cooled down with water
a.t
b. f

b. f

A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client with cystic fibrosis and plans to take these actions: assess for lactose intolerance, shortness of breath, and leg swelling and monitor for joint pain. which medication is the nurse planning to give based on the outlined actions
a. mannitol
b. pancrelipase
c. gentamicin
d. albuterol

b.

which food should the nurse check for allergies? The nurses preparing to give pancrelipase and knows she needs to asses for allergies to lactulose and what food/food group?
a. eggs
b. gluten
c. shellfish
d. port protien

d.

a patient is taking pancrelipase, the nurse should educate the patient on proper instructions t takethe med, such as chewing the tablet and avoiding rinsing the mouth for at least two hours
a.true
b. false

b.

cystic fibrsis is an
a. autosomal dominant inheritance, in which only one copy of a defective gene (from either parent) is necessary to cause the condition;

b.autosomal recessive inheritance, in which two copies of a defective gene (one from each parent) are necessary to cause the condition;

c. X-linked inheritance, in which the defective gene is present on the female, or X-chromosome. X-linked inheritance may be dominant or recessive.

d. Multifactorial inheritance disorder, caused by a combination of environmental factors and mutations in multiple genes.

b.

_____may be used for pulmonary complications of cystic fibrosis.

a. azithromycin
b. baclofen
c. phenytoin
d. gentamicin

d

_____ are often done in clients with CF to regularly evaluate lung function and establish the severity of an exacerbation.
a. ABGs
b. CFTR
c. PEEP
D. PFT

d.

Stool fat and enzyme analysis based on a 72-hour stool sample should be done as an initial diagnostic tool and for all follow up appointments regarding a patient with CF

a. t

b. f

b.

A ruptured bronchial cyst may lead to a _____, causing the client to become dyspneic, tachycardic, tachypneic, and pale
a. pulmonary embolism
b. pneumothorax
c. pulmonary hypertension
d. CF induced DKA

b.

CPT is a mainstay of care for clients with CF. It is the cornerstone of ACT and helps remove and loosen secretions prior to nebulized medications.
a. t
b. f

a.

a nebulizer should be given prior to ACT to ensure expanded airflow for the client following the tiresome procedure
a. t
b. f

b.

most CF clients will obtain a short-term intravenous line for exacerbations
a. true
b. false

b.

a long-term central line should be used in a patient with cf having an exacerbation with access through a Huber needle that should be changed using

a. aeseptic technique q 5 days
b. sterile technique q 7 days
c. aseptic technique q 7 days
d. sterile technique q 7 days

d.

Clients with CF should be encouraged to eat a high-calorie and high-protein diet, and pancreatic enzymes should be administered after eating to decrease over-digestion and absorption
a. t
b. f

b.

Clients with CF should be encouraged to eat a high-calorie and high-protein diet, and pancreatic enzymes should be administered before eating to enhance digestion and absorption
a. f
b. t

b.

CF is screened in pregnancy with which tool
a. urinalysis
b. CBC
c. amniocentesis
d. DNA assay

c.

Amniocentesis is performed between the __ and __th week of gestation to detect neural tube defects and a chromosomal defects associated with congenital anomalies.
a. 20-30
b.15-18
c.14-20
d. 12-15

c.

Cor pulmonale (right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary congestion; edema results from increasing venous pressure) can be caused by CF
a. t
b. f

a.

It is crucial to remember that _____ has/have boxed warning for severe neutropenia, seizures, fatal myocarditis, bradycardia, and cardiac arrest.
a. Schizophrenia antipsychotics
b. risperidone
c.mannitol
d. haloperidol

b.

a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications that cause altered mental status, fever, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction.
a. Sepsis
b. Hepatic encephalopathy
c. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
d. serotonin syndrome

c.

____ is a dopamine agonist, which reverses the blockage of dopamine receptors.
a. paroxetine
b. dantrolene
c. sertraline
d. bromocriptine

d.

_____skeletal muscle relaxant that assists in treating muscle tightness and spasms associated with NMS
a. paroxetine
b. dantrolene
c. sertraline
d. bromocriptine

b.

Lorazepam is an antianxiety medication that can be used for acute management of violent behavior. This medication can be administered intramuscularly.

Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can be used for acute management of violent behavior. This medication can be administered intramuscularly.

Ziprasidone is a second-generation antipsychotic that can be used for acute management of violent behavior. This medication can be administered intramuscularly.

____is a specific test that screens clients for TD (tardive dyskinesia)
a. DM5
b. NDS Scale
c. AIMS
d. SDS

c.

The client should be monitored for changes in vital signs, tachycardia, and ECG changes, including prolonged QT interval, while taking haloperidol. There is a risk for cardiac arrest due to Torsades de Pointes.

A client who is taking haloperidol is at risk for cataracts, not glaucoma.
a. t
b. f

f.

A client who is taking haloperidol is at risk for ____, not pancreatitis, because the medication is metabolized mostly in the liver.
a. hepatic encephalopathy
b. cirrhosis
c. hepatitis
d. fatty liver disease

c.

______ refers to an acute disorder of attention and cognition, including memory and perception.

Delirium has an acute onset and a fluctuating course; it is characterized by inattention, distraction, disorganized thinking and/or a change in the level of consciousness. It is reversible, usually by treatment of underlying causes.

Postpartum psychosis develops within the first 2 to 3 weeks of the postpartum period.

Client is usually oriented in psychosis
a. t
b. f

a.

What would the nurse anticipate the doctor to prescribed the client if all other antipsychotic medications are unable to treat sever psychotic manifestations ?
a. haloperidol
b. risperidone
c. thioridazine
d. clozapine

d.

med for a schizophrenic pt experiencing SI

a. haloperidol
b. risperidone
c. thioridazine
d. clozapine

d.

diffusion damage to the alveolar capillary membrane is the main cause of ards

a. t

b. f

a.

which of the following is not a direct cause of ARDS
a. near drowning
b. pneumonia
c. lung contusion
d. toxic smoke
e. sepsis

e.

which of the following is a direct cause of ARDS
a. drugs
b. pancreatitis
c. aspiration pneumonia
d. sepsis
e.mx long bone fractures
f. transfusion assoc. lung injury
g. all of the above

c.

which pneumocyte is primarily involved in gas exchange?
a. type 1
b. type 2

a.

which pneumocyte is primarily involved in production of lung exchange?
a. type 1
b. type 2

b.

fluid from the interstitium accumulates in the alveoli and shit starts to accumulate. this includes edematous fluid which contains proteins, fibrin deposition occurs, cellular debris from the destruction of I/II pneumocytes, wbcs as they are recruited…and few rbs are collected. this event forms what is known as the ______
a. surfactant membrane
b. hyaline membrane
c. agranulocytosis
d. fibrinogen cascade

b.

_____occurs due to having to pass through a greater distance r/t formation of the hyaline membrane
a. hypercapnia
b. hypocapnia
c. hypoxemia
d. hyperoxia

c.

collapsing pressure and _______are directly proportional according to laplace law
a. radius of the alveoli
b. surface tension

b.

tachycardia, cyanosis, tachypnoea, and crackles on auscultation are all a consequence of
a. hypercapnia
b. hypocapnia
c. hypoxemia
d. hyperoxia

c.

when granulation tissue doesn’t resolve in the alveoli it can lead to fibrosis which causes compression of the vessels, rigid lungs, decreased lung compliance all contributing to __________
a. cystic fibrosis
b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c. restrictive lung disease
d. acute respiratory failure

c.

to rule out a cardiogenic source according to berlins criteria which components do not apply
a. bilateral opacities seen on imaging (ct, chest-x-ray, lung ultrasound, )
b.
c. ARF within 1 week of a known predisposing factor (with diagnosis)
c. p/f ratio <300
d. lab values showing VQ mismatch and or abnormal ABGs
e. non cardiogenic pulmonary edema with validation by ECHO, BNP, PCWP

d.

increased BNP is seen with ARDS
a. t
b. f

b.

Swanz Ganz Catheter is a definitive test to rule out cardiogenic causes in relation to diagnosing ARDS
a. t
b. f

a.

PCWP pulmonary capillary wedge pressure should be ___ in ARDS
a. <18
b. >18
c.>14
d.<14

a.