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MIDTERM: psychology

1.

Which of the following was mentioned as a skill to which psychology students would be exposed?

  1. critical thinking
  2. use of the scientific method
  3. critical evaluation of sources of information
  4. all of the above
no data
2.

Before psychology became a recognized academic discipline, matters of the mind were undertaken by those in ________.

  1. biology
  2. chemistry
  3. philosophy
  4. physics
no data
3.

In the scientific method, a hypothesis is a(n) ________.

  1. observation
  2. measurement
  3. test
  4. proposed explanation
no data
4.

Based on your reading, which theorist would have been most likely to agree with this statement: Perceptual phenomena are best understood as a combination of their components.

  1. William James
  2. Max Wertheimer
  3. Carl Rogers
  4. Noam Chomsky
no data
5.

________ is most well-known for proposing his hierarchy of needs.

  1. Noam Chomsky
  2. Carl Rogers
  3. Abraham Maslow
  4. Sigmund Freud
no data
6.

Rogers believed that providing genuineness, empathy, and ________ in the therapeutic environment for his clients was critical to their being able to deal with their problems.

  1. structuralism
  2. functionalism
  3. Gestalt
  4. unconditional positive regard
no data
7.

The operant conditioning chamber (aka ________ box) is a device used to study the principles of operant conditioning.

  1. Skinner
  2. Watson
  3. James
  4. Koffka
no data
8.

A researcher interested in how changes in the cells of the hippocampus (a structure in the brain related to learning and memory) are related to memory formation would be most likely to identify as a(n) ________ psychologist.

  1. biological
  2. health
  3. clinical
  4. social
no data
9.

An individual’s consistent pattern of thought and behavior is known as a(n) ________.

  1. psychosexual stage
  2. object permanence
  3. personality
  4. perception
no data
10.

.

In Milgram’s controversial study on obedience, nearly ________ of the participants were willing to administer what appeared to be lethal electrical shocks to another person because they were told to do so by an authority figure.

  1. 1/3
  2. 2/3
  3. 3/4
  4. 4/5
no data
11.

A researcher interested in what factors make an employee best suited for a given job would most likely identify as a(n) ________ psychologist.

  1. personality
  2. clinical
  3. social
  4. I-O
no data
12.

If someone wanted to become a psychology professor at a 4-year college, they would probably need a ________ degree in psychology.

  1. bachelor of science
  2. bachelor of art
  3. master’s
  4. PhD
no data
13.

The ________ places less emphasis on research and more emphasis on application of therapeutic skills.

  1. PhD
  2. PsyD
  3. postdoctoral training program
  4. dissertation
no data
14.

Which of the following degrees would be the minimum required to teach psychology courses in high school?

  1. PhD
  2. PsyD
  3. master’s degree
  4. bachelor’s degree
no data
15.

.

One would need at least a(n) ________ degree to serve as a school psychologist.

  1. associate’s
  2. bachelor’s
  3. master’s
  4. doctoral
no data
16.

Scientific hypotheses are ________ and falsifiable.

  1. observable
  2. original
  3. provable
  4. testable
no data
17.

________ are defined as observable realities.

  1. behaviors
  2. facts
  3. opinions
  4. theories
no data
18.

Scientific knowledge is ________.

  1. intuitive
  2. empirical
  3. permanent
  4. subjective
no data
19.

A major criticism of Freud’s early theories involves the fact that his theories ________.

  1. were too limited in scope
  2. were too outrageous
  3. were too broad
  4. were not testable
no data
20.

Sigmund Freud developed his theory of human personality by conducting in-depth interviews over an extended period of time with a few clients. This type of research approach is known as a(n): ________.

  1. archival research
  2. case study
  3. naturalistic observation
  4. survey
no data
21.

.

________ involves observing behavior in individuals in their natural environments.

  1. archival research
  2. case study
  3. naturalistic observation
  4. survey
no data
22.

The major limitation of case studies is ________.

  1. the superficial nature of the information collected in this approach
  2. the lack of control that the researcher has in this approach
  3. the inability to generalize the findings from this approach to the larger population
  4. the absence of inter-rater reliability
no data
23.

The benefit of naturalistic observation studies is ________.

  1. the honesty of the data that is collected in a realistic setting
  2. how quick and easy these studies are to perform
  3. the researcher’s capacity to make sure that data is collected as efficiently as possible
  4. the ability to determine cause and effect in this particular approach
no data
24.

Using existing records to try to answer a research question is known as ________.

  1. naturalistic observation
  2. survey research
  3. longitudinal research
  4. archival research
no data
25.

________ involves following a group of research participants for an extended period of time.

  1. archival research
  2. longitudinal research
  3. naturalistic observation
  4. cross-sectional research
no data
26.

A(n) ________ is a list of questions developed by a researcher that can be administered in paper form.

  1. archive
  2. case Study
  3. naturalistic observation
  4. survey
no data
27.

Longitudinal research is complicated by high rates of ________.

  1. deception
  2. observation
  3. attrition
  4. generalization
no data
28.

Height and weight are positively correlated. This means that:

  1. There is no relationship between height and weight.
  2. Usually, the taller someone is, the thinner they are.
  3. Usually, the shorter someone is, the heavier they are.
  4. As height increases, typically weight increases.
no data
29.

Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship between two variables?

  1. –.90
  2. –.50
  3. +.80
  4. +.25
no data
30.

Which statement best illustrates a negative correlation between the number of hours spent watching TV the week before an exam and the grade on that exam?

  1. Watching too much television leads to poor exam performance.
  2. Smart students watch less television.
  3. Viewing television interferes with a student’s ability to prepare for the upcoming exam.
  4. Students who watch more television perform more poorly on their exams.
no data
31.

The correlation coefficient indicates the weakest relationship when ________.

  1. it is closest to 0
  2. it is closest to -1
  3. it is positive
  4. it is negative
no data
32.

________ means that everyone in the population has the same likelihood of being asked to participate in the study.

  1. operationalizing
  2. placebo effect
  3. random assignment
  4. random sampling
no data
33.

The ________ is controlled by the experimenter, while the ________ represents the information collected and statistically analyzed by the experimenter.

  1. dependent variable; independent variable
  2. independent variable; dependent variable
  3. placebo effect; experimenter bias
  4. experiment bias; placebo effect
no data
34.

Researchers must ________ important concepts in their studies so others would have a clear understanding of exactly how those concepts were defined.

  1. randomly assign
  2. randomly select
  3. operationalize
  4. generalize
no data
35.

Sometimes, researchers will administer a(n) ________ to participants in the control group to control for the effects that participant expectation might have on the experiment.

  1. dependent variable
  2. independent variable
  3. statistical analysis
  4. placebo
no data
36.

________ is to animal research as ________ is to human research.

  1. informed consent; deception
  2. IACUC; IRB
  3. IRB; IACUC
  4. deception; debriefing
no data
37.

Researchers might use ________ when providing participants with the full details of the experiment could skew their responses.

  1. informed consent
  2. deception
  3. ethics
  4. debriefing
no data
38.

A person’s participation in a research project must be ________.

  1. random
  2. rewarded
  3. voluntary
  4. public
no data
39.

Before participating in an experiment, individuals should read and sign the ________ form.

  1. informed consent
  2. debriefing
  3. IRB
  4. ethics
no data
40.

A(n) ________ is a sudden, permanent change in a sequence of DNA.

  1. allele
  2. chromosome
  3. epigenetic
  4. mutation
no data
41.

________ refers to a person’s genetic makeup, while ________ refers to a person’s physical characteristics.

  1. Phenotype; genotype
  2. Genotype; phenotype
  3. DNA; gene
  4. Gene; DNA
no data
42.

________ is the field of study that focuses on genes and their expression.

  1. Social psychology
  2. Evolutionary psychology
  3. Epigenetics
  4. Behavioral neuroscience
no data
43.

Humans have ________ pairs of chromosomes.

  1. 15
  2. 23
  3. 46
  4. 78
no data
44.

The ________ receive(s) incoming signals from other neurons.

  1. soma
  2. terminal buttons
  3. myelin sheath
  4. dendrites
no data
45.

A(n) ________ facilitates or mimics the activity of a given neurotransmitter system.

  1. axon
  2. SSRI
  3. agonist
  4. antagonist
no data
46.

Multiple sclerosis involves a breakdown of the ________.

  1. soma
  2. myelin sheath
  3. synaptic vesicles
  4. dendrites
no data
47.

An action potential involves Na+ moving ________ the cell and K+ moving ________ the cell.

  1. inside; outside
  2. outside; inside
  3. inside; inside
  4. outside; outside
no data
48.

Our ability to make our legs move as we walk across the room is controlled by the ________ nervous system.

  1. autonomic
  2. somatic
  3. sympathetic
  4. parasympathetic
no data
49.

If your ________ is activated, you will feel relatively at ease.

  1. somatic nervous system
  2. sympathetic nervous system
  3. parasympathetic nervous system
  4. spinal cord
no data
50.

The central nervous system is comprised of ________.

  1. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
  2. organs and glands
  3. somatic and autonomic nervous systems
  4. brain and spinal cord
no data
51.

Sympathetic activation is associated with ________.

  1. pupil dilation
  2. storage of glucose in the liver
  3. increased heart rate
  4. both A and C
no data
52.

The ________ is a sensory relay station where all sensory information, except for smell, goes before being sent to other areas of the brain for further processing.

  1. amygdala
  2. hippocampus
  3. hypothalamus
  4. thalamus
no data
53.

Damage to the ________ disrupts one’s ability to comprehend language, but it leaves one’s ability to produce words intact.

  1. amygdala
  2. Broca’s Area
  3. Wernicke’s Area
  4. occipital lobe
no data
54.

A(n) ________ uses magnetic fields to create pictures of a given tissue.

  1. EEG
  2. MRI
  3. PET scan
  4. CT scan
no data
55.

Which of the following is not a structure of the forebrain?

  1. thalamus
  2. hippocampus
  3. amygdala
  4. substantia nigra
no data
56.

The two major hormones secreted from the pancreas are:

  1. estrogen and progesterone
  2. norepinephrine and epinephrine
  3. thyroxine and oxytocin
  4. glucagon and insulin
no data
57.

The ________ secretes messenger hormones that direct the function of the rest of the endocrine glands.

  1. ovary
  2. thyroid
  3. pituitary
  4. pancreas
no data
58.

The ________ gland secretes epinephrine.

  1. adrenal
  2. thyroid
  3. pituitary
  4. master
no data
59.

The ________ secretes hormones that regulate the body’s fluid levels.

  1. adrenal
  2. pituitary
  3. testes
  4. thyroid
no data
60.

The body’s biological clock is located in the ________.

  1. hippocampus
  2. thalamus
  3. hypothalamus
  4. pituitary gland
no data
61.

________ occurs when there is a chronic deficiency in sleep.

  1. jet lag
  2. rotating shift work
  3. circadian rhythm
  4. sleep debt
no data
62.

________ cycles occur roughly once every 24 hours.

  1. biological
  2. circadian
  3. rotating
  4. conscious
no data
63.

________ is one way in which people can help reset their biological clocks.

  1. Light-dark exposure
  2. coffee consumption
  3. alcohol consumption
  4. napping
no data
64.

Growth hormone is secreted by the ________ while we sleep.

  1. pineal gland
  2. thyroid
  3. pituitary gland
  4. pancreas
no data
65.

The ________ plays a role in controlling slow-wave sleep.

  1. hypothalamus
  2. thalamus
  3. pons
  4. both a and b
no data
66.

________ is a hormone secreted by the pineal gland that plays a role in regulating biological rhythms and immune function.

  1. growth hormone
  2. melatonin
  3. LH
  4. FSH
no data
67.

________ appears to be especially important for enhanced performance on recently learned tasks.

  1. melatonin
  2. slow-wave sleep
  3. sleep deprivation
  4. growth hormone
no data
68.

________ is(are) described as slow-wave sleep.

  1. stage 1
  2. stage 2
  3. stage 3 and stage 4
  4. REM sleep
no data
69.

Sleep spindles and K-complexes are most often associated with ________ sleep.

  1. stage 1
  2. stage 2
  3. stage 3 and stage 4
  4. REM
no data
70.

Symptoms of ________ may be improved by REM deprivation.

  1. schizophrenia
  2. Parkinson’s disease
  3. depression
  4. generalized anxiety disorder
no data
71.

The ________ content of a dream refers to the true meaning of the dream.

  1. latent
  2. manifest
  3. collective unconscious
  4. important
no data
72.

________ is loss of muscle tone or control that is often associated with narcolepsy.

  1. RBD
  2. CPAP
  3. cataplexy
  4. insomnia
no data
73.

An individual may suffer from ________ if there is a disruption in the brain signals that are sent to the muscles that regulate breathing.

  1. central sleep apnea
  2. obstructive sleep apnea
  3. narcolepsy
  4. SIDS
no data
74.

The most common treatment for ________ involves the use of amphetamine-like medications.

  1. sleep apnea
  2. RBD
  3. SIDS
  4. narcolepsy
no data
75.

.

________ is another word for sleepwalking.

  1. insomnia
  2. somnambulism
  3. cataplexy
  4. narcolepsy
no data
76.

.

________ occurs when a drug user requires more and more of a given drug in order to experience the same effects of the drug.

  1. withdrawal
  2. psychological dependence
  3. tolerance
  4. reuptake
no data
77.

Cocaine blocks the reuptake of ________.

  1. GABA
  2. glutamate
  3. acetylcholine
  4. dopamine
no data
78.

________ refers to drug craving.

  1. psychological dependence
  2. antagonism
  3. agonism
  4. physical dependence
no data
79.

LSD affects ________ neurotransmission.

  1. dopamine
  2. serotonin
  3. acetylcholine
  4. norepinephrine
no data
80.

________ is most effective in individuals that are very open to the power of suggestion.

  1. hypnosis
  2. meditation
  3. mindful awareness
  4. cognitive therapy
no data
81.

.

________ has its roots in religious practice.

  1. hypnosis
  2. meditation
  3. cognitive therapy
  4. behavioral therapy
no data
82.

Meditation may be helpful in ________.

  1. pain management
  2. stress control
  3. treating the flu
  4. both a and b
no data
83.

Research suggests that cognitive processes, such as learning, may be affected by ________.

  1. hypnosis
  2. meditation
  3. mindful awareness
  4. progressive relaxation
no data
84.

________ refers to the minimum amount of stimulus energy required to be detected 50% of the time.

  1. absolute threshold
  2. difference threshold
  3. just noticeable difference
  4. transduction
no data
85.

Decreased sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as ________.

  1. transduction
  2. difference threshold
  3. sensory adaptation
  4. inattentional blindness
no data
86.

________ involves the conversion of sensory stimulus energy into neural impulses.

  1. sensory adaptation
  2. inattentional blindness
  3. difference threshold
  4. transduction
no data
87.

________ occurs when sensory information is organized, interpreted, and consciously experienced.

  1. sensation
  2. perception
  3. transduction
  4. sensory adaptation
no data
88.

Which of the following correctly matches the pattern in our perception of color as we move from short wavelengths to long wavelengths?

  1. red to orange to yellow
  2. yellow to orange to red
  3. yellow to red to orange
  4. orange to yellow to red
no data
89.

The visible spectrum includes light that ranges from about ________.

  1. 400–700 nm
  2. 200–900 nm
  3. 20–20000 Hz
  4. 10–20 dB
no data
90.

The electromagnetic spectrum includes ________.

  1. radio waves
  2. x-rays
  3. infrared light
  4. all of the above
no data
91.

The audible range for humans is ________.

  1. 380–740 Hz
  2. 10–20 dB
  3. less than 300 dB
  4. 20-20,000 Hz
no data
92.

The quality of a sound that is affected by frequency, amplitude, and timing of the sound wave is known as ________.

  1. pitch
  2. tone
  3. electromagnetic
  4. timbre
no data
93.

The ________ is a small indentation of the retina that contains cones.

  1. optic chiasm
  2. optic nerve
  3. fovea
  4. iris
no data
94.

.

________ operate best under bright light conditions.

  1. cones
  2. rods
  3. retinal ganglion cells
  4. striate cortex
no data
95.

________ depth cues require the use of both eyes.

  1. monocular
  2. binocular
  3. linear perspective
  4. accommodating
no data
96.

If you were to stare at a green dot for a relatively long period of time and then shift your gaze to a blank white screen, you would see a ________ negative afterimage.

  1. blue
  2. yellow
  3. black
  4. red
no data
97.

Hair cells located near the base of the basilar membrane respond best to ________ sounds.

  1. low-frequency
  2. high-frequency
  3. low-amplitude
  4. high-amplitude
no data
98.

The three ossicles of the middle ear are known as ________.

  1. malleus, incus, and stapes
  2. hammer, anvil, and stirrup
  3. pinna, cochlea, and utricle
  4. both a and b
no data
99.

Hearing aids might be effective for treating ________.

  1. Ménière's disease
  2. sensorineural hearing loss
  3. conductive hearing loss
  4. interaural time differences
no data
100.

Cues that require two ears are referred to as ________ cues.

  1. monocular
  2. monaural
  3. binocular
  4. binaural
no data
101.

Chemical messages often sent between two members of a species to communicate something about reproductive status are called ________.

  1. hormones
  2. pheromones
  3. Merkel’s disks
  4. Meissner’s corpuscles
no data
102.

Which taste is associated with monosodium glutamate?

  1. sweet
  2. bitter
  3. umami
  4. sour
no data
103.

________ serve as sensory receptors for temperature and pain stimuli.

  1. free nerve endings
  2. Pacinian corpuscles
  3. Ruffini corpuscles
  4. Meissner’s corpuscles
no data
104.

Which of the following is involved in maintaining balance and body posture?

  1. auditory nerve
  2. nociceptors
  3. olfactory bulb
  4. vestibular system
no data
105.

According to the principle of ________, objects that occur close to one another tend to be grouped together.

  1. similarity
  2. good continuation
  3. proximity
  4. closure
no data
106.

Our tendency to perceive things as complete objects rather than as a series of parts is known as the principle of ________.

  1. closure
  2. good continuation
  3. proximity
  4. similarity
no data
107.

According to the law of ________, we are more likely to perceive smoothly flowing lines rather than choppy or jagged lines.

  1. closure
  2. good continuation
  3. proximity
  4. similarity
no data
108.

The main point of focus in a visual display is known as the ________.

  1. closure
  2. perceptual set
  3. ground
  4. figure
no data
109.

Which of the following is an example of a reflex that occurs at some point in the development of a human being?

  1. child riding a bike
  2. teen socializing
  3. infant sucking on a nipple
  4. toddler walking
no data
110.

Learning is best defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior that ________.

  1. is innate
  2. occurs as a result of experience
  3. is found only in humans
  4. occurs by observing others
no data
111.

Two forms of associative learning are ________ and ________.

  1. classical conditioning; operant conditioning
  2. classical conditioning; Pavlovian conditioning
  3. operant conditioning; observational learning
  4. operant conditioning; learning conditioning
no data
112.

In ________ the stimulus or experience occurs before the behavior and then gets paired with the behavior.

  1. associative learning
  2. observational learning
  3. operant conditioning
  4. classical conditioning
no data
113.

A stimulus that does not initially elicit a response in an organism is a(n) ________.

  1. unconditioned stimulus
  2. neutral stimulus
  3. conditioned stimulus
  4. unconditioned response
no data
114.

.

In Watson and Rayner’s experiments, Little Albert was conditioned to fear a white rat, and then he began to be afraid of other furry white objects. This demonstrates ________.

  1. higher order conditioning
  2. acquisition
  3. stimulus discrimination
  4. stimulus generalization
no data
115.

Extinction occurs when ________.

  1. the conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus
  2. the unconditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with a conditioned stimulus
  3. the neutral stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus
  4. the neutral stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with a conditioned stimulus
no data
116.

In Pavlov’s work with dogs, the psychic secretions were ________.

  1. unconditioned responses
  2. conditioned responses
  3. unconditioned stimuli
  4. conditioned stimuli
no data
117.

________ is when you take away a pleasant stimulus to stop a behavior.

  1. positive reinforcement
  2. negative reinforcement
  3. positive punishment
  4. negative punishment
no data
118.

Which of the following is not an example of a primary reinforcer?

  1. food
  2. money
  3. water
  4. sex
no data
119.

.

Rewarding successive approximations toward a target behavior is ________.

  1. shaping
  2. extinction
  3. positive reinforcement
  4. negative reinforcement
no data
120.

Slot machines reward gamblers with money according to which reinforcement schedule?

  1. fixed ratio
  2. variable ratio
  3. fixed interval
  4. variable interval
no data
121.

The person who performs a behavior that serves as an example is called a ________.

  1. teacher
  2. model
  3. instructor
  4. coach
no data
122.

In Bandura’s Bobo doll study, when the children who watched the aggressive model were placed in a room with the doll and other toys, they ________.

  1. ignored the doll
  2. played nicely with the doll
  3. played with tinker toys
  4. kicked and threw the doll
no data
123.

Which is the correct order of steps in the modeling process?

  1. attention, retention, reproduction, motivation
  2. motivation, attention, reproduction, retention
  3. attention, motivation, retention, reproduction
  4. motivation, attention, retention, reproduction
no data
124.

.

Who proposed observational learning?

  1. Ivan Pavlov
  2. John Watson
  3. Albert Bandura
  4. B. F. Skinner
no data
125.

Cognitive psychology is the branch of psychology that focuses on the study of ________.

  1. human development
  2. human thinking
  3. human behavior
  4. human society
no data
126.

Which of the following is an example of a prototype for the concept of leadership on an athletic team?

  1. the equipment manager
  2. the scorekeeper
  3. the team captain
  4. the quietest member of the team
no data
127.

Which of the following is an example of an artificial concept?

  1. mammals
  2. a triangle’s area
  3. gemstones
  4. teachers
no data
128.

.

An event schema is also known as a cognitive ________.

  1. stereotype
  2. concept
  3. script
  4. prototype
no data
129.

________ provides general principles for organizing words into meaningful sentences.

  1. Linguistic determinism
  2. Lexicon
  3. Semantics
  4. Syntax
no data
130.

________ are the smallest unit of language that carry meaning.

  1. Lexicon
  2. Phonemes
  3. Morphemes
  4. Syntax
no data
131.

The meaning of words and phrases is determined by applying the rules of ________.

  1. lexicon
  2. phonemes
  3. overgeneralization
  4. semantics
no data
132.

________ is (are) the basic sound units of a spoken language.

  1. Syntax
  2. Phonemes
  3. Morphemes
  4. Grammar
no data
133.

A specific formula for solving a problem is called ________.

  1. an algorithm
  2. a heuristic
  3. a mental set
  4. trial and error
no data
134.

A mental shortcut in the form of a general problem-solving framework is called ________.

  1. an algorithm
  2. a heuristic
  3. a mental set
  4. trial and error
no data
135.

Which type of bias involves becoming fixated on a single trait of a problem?

  1. anchoring bias
  2. confirmation bias
  3. representative bias
  4. availability bias
no data
136.

Which type of bias involves relying on a false stereotype to make a decision?

  1. anchoring bias
  2. confirmation bias
  3. representative bias
  4. availability bias
no data
137.

Fluid intelligence is characterized by ________.

  1. being able to recall information
  2. being able to create new products
  3. being able to understand and communicate with different cultures
  4. being able to see complex relationships and solve problems
no data
138.

Which of the following is not one of Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences?

  1. creative
  2. spatial
  3. linguistic
  4. musical
no data
139.

Which theorist put forth the triarchic theory of intelligence?

  1. Goleman
  2. Gardner
  3. Sternberg
  4. Steitz
no data
140.

When you are examining data to look for trends, which type of intelligence are you using most?

  1. practical
  2. analytical
  3. emotional
  4. creative
no data
141.

In order for a test to be normed and standardized it must be tested on ________.

  1. a group of same-age peers
  2. a representative sample
  3. children with mental disabilities
  4. children of average intelligence
no data
142.

The mean score for a person with an average IQ is ________.

  1. 70
  2. 130
  3. 85
  4. 100
no data
143.

Who developed the IQ test most widely used today?

  1. Sir Francis Galton
  2. Alfred Binet
  3. Louis Terman
  4. David Wechsler
no data
144.

The DSM-5 now uses ________ as a diagnostic label for what was once referred to as mental retardation.

  1. autism and developmental disabilities
  2. lowered intelligence
  3. intellectual disability
  4. cognitive disruption
no data
145.

Where does high intelligence come from?

  1. genetics
  2. environment
  3. both A and B
  4. neither A nor B
no data
146.

Arthur Jensen believed that ________.

  1. genetics was solely responsible for intelligence
  2. environment was solely responsible for intelligence
  3. intelligence level was determined by race
  4. IQ tests do not take socioeconomic status into account
no data
147.

What is a learning disability?

  1. a developmental disorder
  2. a neurological disorder
  3. an emotional disorder
  4. an intellectual disorder
no data
148.

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Poverty always affects whether individuals are able to reach their full intellectual potential.
  2. An individual’s intelligence is determined solely by the intelligence levels of his siblings.
  3. The environment in which an individual is raised is the strongest predictor of her future intelligence
  4. There are many factors working together to influence an individual’s intelligence level.
no data
149.

________ is a memory store with a phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, episodic buffer, and a central executive.

  1. sensory memory
  2. episodic memory
  3. working memory
  4. implicit memory
no data
150.

The storage capacity of long-term memory is ________.

  1. one or two bits of information
  2. seven bits, plus or minus two
  3. limited
  4. essentially limitless
no data
151.

The three functions of memory are ________.

  1. automatic processing, effortful processing, and storage
  2. encoding, processing, and storage
  3. automatic processing, effortful processing, and retrieval
  4. encoding, storage, and retrieval
no data
152.

This physical trace of memory is known as the ________.

  1. engram
  2. Lashley effect
  3. Deese-Roediger-McDermott Paradigm
  4. flashbulb memory effect
no data
153.

An exceptionally clear recollection of an important event is a (an) ________.

  1. engram
  2. arousal theory
  3. flashbulb memory
  4. equipotentiality hypothesis
no data
154.

________ is when our recollections of the past are done in a self-enhancing manner.

  1. stereotypical bias
  2. egocentric bias
  3. hindsight bias
  4. enhancement bias
no data
155.

Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is also known as ________.

  1. persistence
  2. misattribution
  3. transience
  4. blocking
no data
156.

The formulation of new memories is sometimes called ________, and the process of bringing up old memories is called ________.

  1. construction; reconstruction
  2. reconstruction; construction
  3. production; reproduction
  4. reproduction; production
no data
157.

When you are learning how to play the piano, the statement “Every good boy does fine” can help you remember the notes E, G, B, D, and F for the lines of the treble clef. This is an example of a (an) ________.

  1. jingle
  2. acronym
  3. acrostic
  4. acoustic
no data
158.

According to a study by Yogo and Fujihara (2008), if you want to improve your short-term memory, you should spend time writing about ________.

  1. your best possible future self
  2. a traumatic life experience
  3. a trivial topic
  4. your grocery list
no data
159.

The self-referencing effect refers to ________.

  1. making the material you are trying to memorize personally meaningful to you
  2. making a phrase of all the first letters of the words you are trying to memorize
  3. making a word formed by the first letter of each of the words you are trying to memorize
  4. saying words you want to remember out loud to yourself
no data
160.

Memory aids that help organize information for encoding are ________.

  1. mnemonic devices
  2. memory-enhancing strategies
  3. elaborative rehearsal
  4. effortful processing
no data