Chapter 24 The Digestive System
1) Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract
except the
A) stomach.
B) pharynx.
C)
esophagus.
D) bladder.
E) colon.
D) bladder.
2) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
A)
appendix
B) pancreas
C) spleen
D) colon
E) esophagus
B) pancreas
3) Digestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of
indigestible residue.
B) mechanical breakdown of food.
C)
chemical breakdown of food.
D) mechanical and chemical breakdown
of food.
E) release of water, acids, enzymes and buffers by organs.
D) mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
4) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive
system?
A) mechanical processing
B) absorption
C)
secretion
D) ingestion
E) filtration
E) filtration
5) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term
submucosal plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural
network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity
of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing
blood vessels
B) sensory neural network
6) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the
digestive tract are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular
movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) churning movements.
E) mastication.
C) peristalsis.
7) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of
the
A) serosa.
B) adventitia.
C) muscularis
mucosa.
D) mucosa.
E) submucosa.
D) mucosa.
8) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term
myenteric plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural
network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity
of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing
blood vessels
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
9) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal
lumen and moves epithelial
pleats and folds.
A)
mucosa
B) submucosa
C) submucosal neural plexus
D)
muscularis mucosa
E) adventitia
D) muscularis mucosa
10) The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that
suspend the visceral organs and
carry nerves, lymphatics, and
blood vessels.
A) serosa
B) adventitia
C)
mesenteries
D) fibrosa
E) lamina propria
C) mesenteries
11) Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic
postganglionic fibers can be found in the
A) mucosa.
B)
serosa.
C) adventitia.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E)
lamina propria.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
12) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle
in the muscularis externa is the
A) mucosa.
B)
submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) myenteric
plexus.
E) submucosal neural plexus.
D) myenteric plexus.
13) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the
A)
mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis.
D)
adventitia.
E) serosa.
B) submucosa.
14) The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the
digestive epithelium is the
A) lamina propria.
B) muscularis
mucosae.
C) submucosa.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E)
myenteric plexus.
A) lamina propria.
15) A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of
the following except in the
A) anal canal.
B)
esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) oropharynx.
E) oral cavity.
C) stomach.
16) A feature of the digestive tract wall that increases surface area
available for absorption is the
A) transitional cells.
B)
circular folds.
C) elastic cells.
D) rugae.
E)
muscularis mucosa.
B) circular folds.
17) The ________ supports all but 25 cm of the small intestine and
provides stability and limited
movement.
A) falciform
ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D)
lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
C) mesentery proper
18) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides
padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen?
A)
falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery
proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
B) greater omentum
19) Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of
indigestible materials?
A) small intestine
B)
esophagus
C) large intestine
D) stomach
E) anus
C) large intestine
20) The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the
viscera are called
A) peritoneal sheets.
B)
mesenteries.
C) ascites.
D) the diaphragm.
E) the
dorsal and ventral frenulums.
B) mesenteries.
21) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the
liver?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C)
mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
D) lesser omentum
22) All of the following contain mucous cells in the epithelium
except the
A) stomach.
B) transverse colon.
C)
esophagus.
D) small intestine.
E) large intestine.
C) esophagus.
23) The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.
A) simple
squamous
B) stratified squamous
C) pseudostratified
D)
stratified columnar
E) transitional
B) stratified squamous
24) The greater omentum is
A) the entrance to the
stomach.
B) attached to the stomach at the lesser
curvature.
C) important in the digestion of fats.
D) a fatty
sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
E) a
sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.
D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
25) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus
would
A) increase intestinal motility.
B) decrease
intestinal motility.
C) increase gastric secretion.
D)
decrease gastric secretion.
E) interfere with both intestinal
motility and gastric secretion.
B) decrease intestinal motility.
26) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order
from the lumen to the deepest
layer.
1. lamina
propria
2. muscularis externa
3. submucosa
4. digestive
(mucous) epithelium
5. serosa
6. muscularis mucosae
A)
5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4
B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5
C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2,
5
D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3
E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5
B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5
27) Which accessory organ of the digestive system does not produce
any enzymes or digestive secretions?
A) pancreas
B)
gallbladder
C) liver
D) salivary glands
E) teeth
E) teeth
28) The movement of nutrients from the digestive tract lumen across
the epithelium is called
A) chemical digestion.
B)
absorption.
C) secretion.
D) reabsorption.
E) ingestion.
B) absorption.
29) The process of defecation eliminates
A) a bolus.
B)
chyme.
C) feces.
D) ascites.
E) bile.
C) feces.
30) Becky is experiencing indigestion and pain. The doctor also notes
ascites formation in her
abdomen. What is ascites?
A)
buildup of bile in the bile duct
B) gallstones blocking the
cystic duct
C) inflammation of the appendix
D) buildup of
peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity
E) buildup of
pancreatic juice in the pancreas
D) buildup of peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity
31) The mesocolon is
A) a section of the large intestines
between the sigmoid colon and the rectum.
B) a thick mesenteric
sheet associated with the small intestines.
C) a ligament that
suspends the liver from the diaphragm.
D) a serous membrane that
lines the peritoneal cavity.
E) a mesentery associated with a
portion of the large intestine.
E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.
32) Hormones are released from the mucosa layer by these
cells?
A) enteroendocrine cells
B) Kupffer cells
C)
Paneth cells
D) serous cells
E) mucus cells
A) enteroendocrine cells
33) The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following
except
A) sensory analysis of material before swallowing.
B)
mechanical processing of food.
C) lubrication.
D) absorption
of monosaccharides.
E) digestion of carbohydrates.
D) absorption of monosaccharides.
34) ________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral
cavity.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six
to Ten
C) Three
35) The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of
the second upper molar.
A) submaxillary
B)
submandibular
C) parotid
D) sublingual
E) vestibular
C) parotid
36) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx
prematurely is the
A) uvula.
B) pharyngeal arch.
C)
palatoglossal arch.
D) palatopharyngeal arch.
E) epiglottis.
A) uvula.
37) Functions of the tongue include all of the following
except
A) mechanical processing of food.
B) manipulation of
food.
C) sensory analysis of food.
D) aiding in
speech.
E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.
E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.
38) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar
to that of bone called
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C)
dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.
C) dentin.
39) The part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is
the
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp
cavity.
E) periodontium.
D) pulp cavity.
40) The root of a tooth is covered by
A) enamel.
B)
cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) the root canal.
B) cement.
41) The crown of a tooth is covered by
A) enamel.
B)
cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.
A) enamel.
42) ________ are also known as canines.
A) Premolars
B)
Incisors
C) Molars
D) Secondary teeth
E) Cuspids
E) Cuspids
43) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would
A)
occur when too much protein is ingested.
B) cause mumps.
C)
interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.
D) prevent
emulsification of lipids.
E) inhibit the secretion of saliva from
other glands.
C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.
44) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results
from
A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) hormonal
stimulation.
C) parasympathetic stimulation.
D) myenteric
reflexes.
E) hunger.
C) parasympathetic stimulation.
45) In most cases, the mumps is a viral infection of the ________
glands.
A) mandibular
B) sublingual
C) parotid
D)
submandibular
E) lingual
C) parotid
46) The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane
in the floor of the
mouth.
A) mandibular
B)
sublingual
C) lingual
D) submandibular
E) parotid
B) sublingual
47) Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large
amounts of salivary amylase?
A) mandibular
B)
sublingual
C) lingual
D) submandibular
E) parotid
E) parotid
48) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called
the
A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) fauces.
D)
vestibule.
E) frenulum.
D) vestibule.
49) The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is
the
A) vestibule.
B) gingiva.
C) alveolus.
D)
uvula.
E) faux.
B) gingiva.
50) The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the
underlying epithelium is the
A) uvula.
B) faux.
C)
lingual frenulum.
D) labial frenulum.
E) glossal septum.
C) lingual frenulum.
51) The uvula is located at the
A) posterior of the
tongue.
B) margin of the vestibule.
C) base of a
tooth.
D) posterior margin of the soft palate.
E) margin of
the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx.
D) posterior margin of the soft palate.
52) ________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or
clipping.
A) Canines
B) Premolars
C) Cuspids
D)
Incisors
E) Molars
D) Incisors
53) ________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and
slashing.
A) Incisors
B) Bicuspids
C) Premolars
D)
Cuspids
E) Molars
D) Cuspids
54) ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges
that are adapted for crushing and grinding.
A) Molars
B)
Cuspids
C) Eye teeth
D) Canines
E) Dentins
A) Molars
55) Within the oral cavity, both mechanical and chemical ________
begin.
A) mastication
B) deglutition
C)
digestion
D) ingestion
E) secretions
C) digestion
56) The dangling process that aids in keeping food out of the
nasopharynx is known as the
A) palatine tonsil.
B)
pharyngeal tonsil.
C) soft palate.
D) tongue.
E) uvula.
E) uvula.
57) The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity.
A)
gingivae
B) pharyngeal
C) digestive
D) buccal
E) lingual
D) Buccal
58) The first teeth to appear are the ________ teeth.
A)
provisional
B) transitory
C) transitional
D)
temporary
E) deciduous
E) deciduous
59) There are normally a total of ________ deciduous teeth.
A)
18
B) 20
C) 25
D) 28
E) 32
B) 20
60) There are normally a total of ________ permanent teeth.
A)
20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 32
E) 34
D) 32
61) The technical term for chewing is
A) mastication.
B)
deglutition.
C) peristalsis.
D) segmentation.
E) borborygmus.
A) mastication.
62) Which structure is not found in the oral cavity?
A) palatine
tonsil
B) palatoglossal arch
C) conchae
D)
gingivae
E) uvula
C) conchae
63) The oral mucosa in much of the oral cavity such as the roof of
the mouth and the surface of
the tongue is comprised of ________
epithelium.
A) keratinized stratified squamous
B)
nonkeratinized stratified squamous
C) keratinized simple
squamous
D) nonkeratinized simple squamous
E) goblet cell
A) keratinized stratified squamous
64) The location of the palatine tonsil in the oral cavity is
A)
under the tongue on both sides.
B) inferior to the lingual
frenulum.
C) posterior to the raphe.
D) between the
palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches.
E) superior to the uvula.
D) between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches.
65) Hillary could not suckle milk properly due to the inability to
protrude her tongue. The
physician diagnosed her with
A)
mumps.
B) gastritis.
C) diverticulitis.
D)
glossopharyngitis.
E) ankyloglossia.
E) ankyloglossia.
66) Intrinsic and extrinsic movements of the tongue are controlled by
the ________ cranial
nerves.
A) vagus
B)
hypoglossal
C) facial
D) accessory
E) trochlear
B) hypoglossal
67) Which salivary gland produces a mucous rich secretion that acts
as a buffer and lubricant?
A) parotid
B) sublingual
C)
submandibular
D) lingual
E) palatine
B) sublingual
68) Each tooth is held in the alveolar socket by the
A)
cement.
B) roots.
C) periodontal ligament.
D) alveolar
tendon.
E) apical foramen.
C) periodontal ligament.
69) Which of the following is not a pharyngeal muscle involved in
swallowing?
A) pharyngeal constrictor muscle
B)
palatopharyngeus
C) stylopharyngeus
D) omohyoid
E) palatal
D) omohyoid
70) The epithelium lining the oropharynx is
A) simple
squamous.
B) simple cuboidal.
C) simple columnar.
D)
stratified squamous.
E) pseudostratified squamous.
D) stratified squamous.
71) Upon swallowing, food moves from the mouth directly into
the
A) oral vestibule.
B) buccal cavity.
C) sublingual
space.
D) oropharynx.
E) oral mucosae.
D) oropharynx.
72) The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of
the GI tract. These include
A) epithelium of mucosa is stratified
squamous.
B) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar.
C)
muscularis externa has some skeletal muscle.
D) epithelium of
mucosa is stratified squamous and simple columnar.
E) epithelium
of mucosa is simple columnar and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.
C) muscularis externa has some skeletal muscle.
73) During deglutition, which of the following phases is
first?
A) buccal
B) pharyngeal
C) gastric
D)
esophageal
E) enteric
A) buccal
74) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in
A)
mastication.
B) moving the tongue.
C) swallowing.
D)
esophageal peristalsis.
E) opening the cardiac sphincter.
C) swallowing.
75) Which of the following statements is not true of
swallowing?
A) The buccal phase is a voluntary phase.
B)
Breathing stops during the pharyngeal phase.
C) Primary
peristaltic waves are controlled by the facial nerves.
D)
Secondary peristaltic waves are needed if the bolus is dry.
E)
The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to allow the bolus to enter the stomach.
C) Primary peristaltic waves are controlled by the facial nerves.
76) Functions of the stomach include all of the following
except
A) storage of ingested food.
B) denaturation of
proteins.
C) initiation of protein digestion.
D) absorption
of triglycerides.
E) mechanical breakdown of food.
D) absorption of triglycerides.
77) Parietal cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B)
gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) enteropeptidase.
D) hydrochloric acid.
78) Chief cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C)
mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) intrinsic factor.
A) pepsinogen.
79) G cells of the stomach secrete
A) cholecystokinin.
B)
secretin.
C) gastrin.
D) enteropeptidase.
E) pepsin.
C) gastrin.
80) To which region of the stomach does the esophagus
connect?
A) fundus
B) cardia
C) body
D)
antrum
E) pyloric part
B) cardia
81) The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for
food and secretions is the
A) body.
B) antrum.
C)
pyloric part.
D) cardia.
E) fundus.
A) body.
82) The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is
the
A) antrum.
B) fundus.
C) body.
D)
cardia.
E) pyloric part.
E) pyloric part.
83) The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are
called
A) cardia.
B) papillae.
C) rugae.
D)
plicae.
E) villi.
C) rugae.
84) The stomach secretes the hormone ghrelin which functions
to
A) inhibit hunger.
B) initiate secretion of gastric juice
containing enzymes and acid.
C) regulate the digestion of
lipids.
D) stimulate hunger.
E) stimulate secretion of mucus
from submucosal glands.
D) stimulate hunger.
85) Gastric pits are
A) ridges in the body of the
stomach.
B) involved in absorption of liquids from the
stomach.
C) openings into gastric glands.
D) acid scars in
the esophagus.
E) hollows where proteins are stored.
C) openings into gastric glands.
86) The enzyme pepsin digests
A) carbohydrates.
B)
proteins.
C) lipids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.
B) proteins.
87) An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that
coagulates milk proteins is
A) pepsin.
B) trypsin.
C)
gastrin.
D) rennin.
E) cholecystokinin.
D) rennin.
88) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term
gastrin?
A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter
duodenum
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C)
stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) causes
gallbladder to contract
E) stimulates gastric secretion
E) stimulates gastric secretion
89) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion,
A) the
stomach responds to distention.
B) secretin inhibits parietal and
chief cells.
C) CNS sensory or cognitive activation increases
neural stimulation of the stomach.
D) the intestinal reflex
inhibits gastric emptying.
E) the gastroileal reflex decreases
production of gastric juice.
C) CNS sensory or cognitive activation increases neural stimulation of the stomach.
90) The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by
the
A) sight, thought, or smell of food.
B) entry of food
into the stomach.
C) entry of chyme into the small
intestine.
D) entry of chyme into the large intestine.
E)
release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine.
B) entry of food into the stomach.
91) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric
digestion except that it
A) precedes the gastric phase.
B)
functions to control the rate of gastric emptying.
C) involves
both neural and endocrine reflexes.
D) helps ensure that the
functions of the small intestine proceed with relative
efficiency.
E) begins when chyme enters the small intestine.
A) precedes the gastric phase.
92) Distension of the gastric wall leads to secretion of histamines
from the lamina propria. This is an example of ________
response.
A) neural
B) local
C) muscular
D)
hormonal
E) antagonistic
B) local
93) Mary had her stomach mostly removed to try to overcome obesity.
As a result, you would expect Mary to be at risk for
A) protein
malnutrition.
B) abnormal erythropoiesis.
C)
diarrhea.
D) dehydration.
E) an ulcer.
B) abnormal erythropoiesis.
94) All of the following are true of the lining of the stomach except
that it
A) has a simple columnar epithelium.
B) is covered
by a thick, viscous mucus.
C) is constantly being
replaced.
D) contains gastric pits.
E) recycles bile.
E) recycles bile.
95) The stomach is different from other digestive organs in that
it
A) has folds in the mucosa.
B) has three layers of muscle
in the muscularis externa.
C) secretes digestive juice.
D)
moves by peristalsis.
E) secretes digestive hormones.
B) has three layers of muscle in the muscularis externa.
96) Match the gastric phase on the left (1-3) with the correct
description on the right (4-6):
1. intestinal phase 4. prepares
stomach for arrival of food
2. gastric phase 5. stomach empties
and decreases secretions
3. cephalic phase 6. stomach secretes
juice and mixes food into chyme
A) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and
6
B) 1 and 6; 2 and 4; 3 and 5
C) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and
6
D) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4
97) Put the following steps of stomach acid production in the correct
order starting with the
reaction that requires an enzyme.
1.
Carbonic acid dissociates.
2. Chloride ion combines with H+ in
the gastric lumen.
3. Water and CO2 combine to form carbonic
acid.
4. H+ and bicarbonate ion are transported into the gastric
lumen.
5. Cl- diffuses into the gastric lumen.
A) 3, 1, 2,
5, 4
B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
C) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
D) 4, 5, 1, 2,
3
E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
98) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal
cells would result in
A) a lower pH during gastric
digestion.
B) a higher pH during gastric digestion.
C)
decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells.
D) increased
protein digestion in the stomach.
E) decreased gastrin production
B) a higher pH during gastric digestion.
99) D cells release ________, which inhibits the release of
gastrin.
A) inhibin
B) ghrelin
C) leptin
D)
somatostatin
E) pepsin
D) somatostatin
100) Which is not a reason the stomach is acidic?
A) Kills
microorganisms.
B) Emulsification of lipids.
C) Denatures
proteins.
D) Helps break down plant cell walls and connective
tissue in meat.
E) Activates pepsin.
B) Emulsification of lipids.
101) Leptin is to satiety as ________ is to hunger.
A)
Gastrin
B) Pepsin
C) Ghrelin
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
C) Ghrelin
102) Which of the following is true regarding digestion and
absorption in the stomach?
A) Carbohydrate digestion begins in
the stomach.
B) Small proteins can be absorbed with the help of
pepsin.
C) Lipid digestion begins in the stomach.
D) Protein
digestion begins in the stomach.
E) Digestion is complete after
chyme moves out of the stomach.
D) Protein digestion begins in the stomach.
103) Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of
gastric activity?
A) submucosal neural plexus
B) myenteric
plexus
C) vagus nerve
D) CNS
E) hypoglossal nerve
E) hypoglossal nerve
104) Stimulation of gastric stretch receptors causes all of the
following except
A) a decrease in myenteric plexus
stimulation.
B) an increase in histamine release.
C) an
increase in gastrin secretion.
D) an increase in submucosal
neural plexus stimulation.
E) an increase in acid production.
A) a decrease in myenteric plexus stimulation.
113) The fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms
the
A) hepatic portal vein.
B) porta hepatis.
C) bile
duct.
D) common pancreatic duct.
E) bile canaliculus.
C) bile duct.
114) In the center of a liver lobule there is a
A) hepatic
duct.
B) portal area.
C) sinusoid.
D) central
vein.
E) portal vein.
D) central vein.
115) The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of
A)
islets of Langerhans.
B) pancreatic crypts.
C) pancreatic
acini.
D) pancreatic lobules.
E) triads.
C) pancreatic acini.
116) Each of the following is a function of the liver except
A)
synthesis and secretion of bile.
B) antibody production.
C)
synthesis of plasma proteins.
D) inactivation of toxins.
E)
storage of glycogen and iron reserves.
B) antibody production.
117) The basic functional units of the liver are the
A)
hepatocytes.
B) stellate macrophages.
C) lobules.
D)
portal areas.
E) bile canaliculi.
C) lobules.
118) ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series
of irregular plates
converging toward a central vein.
A)
Stellate macrophages
B) Hepatocytes
C) Bile
canaliculi
D) Portal areas
E) Hepatic ducts
B) Hepatocytes
119) The structure that marks the division between the right and left
lobes of the liver is the
A) lesser omentum.
B) greater
omentum.
C) falciform ligament.
D) ligamentum teres.
E)
hepatic ligament.
C) falciform ligament.
120) Bile is stored in the
A) liver.
B) duodenum.
C)
pancreas.
D) gallbladder.
E) appendix.
D) gallbladder.
121) A proenzyme secreted by the pancreas is
A)
trypsinogen.
B) amylase.
C) carboxypeptidase.
D)
lipase.
E) bile
A) trypsinogen.
122) Which of the following has an association with the fetal
umbilical vein?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater
omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
A) falciform ligament
123) Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad
found at the edges of a liver lobule?
A) hepatic artery
B)
bile duct
C) central vein
D) hepatic portal vein
C) central vein
124) Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with
digestion of
A) proteins.
B) fats.
C)
disaccharides.
D) complex carbohydrates.
E) vitamins.
B) fats.
125) The essential functions of the liver include all of the
following except
A) metabolic regulation.
B) hematological
regulation.
C) bile production.
D) albumin production for
blood osmotic pressure.
E) hormonal regulation.
E) hormonal regulation.
126) Match the proenzyme on the left (1-3) with the correct enzyme
activator on the right (4-6).
1. pepsinogen 4.
enteropeptidase
2. trypsinogen 5. hydrochloric acid
3.
procarboxypeptidase 6. trypsin
A) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and
4
B) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6
C) 1 and 4; 2 and 6; 3 and
5
D) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6
127) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin
would affect all of the following except
A) relaxation of the
hepatopancreatic sphincter.
B) the composition of pancreatic
secretions.
C) the delivery of bile.
D) digestion of lipids
and proteins.
E) absorption of water in the large intestines.
E) absorption of water in the large intestines.
128) An obstruction of the bile duct often results in
A)
undigested fat in the feces.
B) a decrease in production of
pancreatic juice.
C) inability to digest protein.
D)
cirrhosis of the liver.
E) hepatitis.
A) undigested fat in the feces.
129) If the pancreatic duct was obstructed, you would expect to see
elevated blood levels of
A) bilirubin.
B) amylase.
C)
cholecystokinin.
D) secretin.
E) gastrin.
B) amylase.
130) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the
following symptoms would
you expect to observe in Tom?
A)
jaundice
B) elevated levels of blood glucose
C) impaired
digestion of protein
D) blood in the feces
E) overproduction
of blood plasma albumin
A) jaundice
131) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a
fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in bicarbonate
ion.
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that
contains only amylase.
B) rich in bicarbonate ion.
132) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas
secretes a fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in
bicarbonate.
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that
contains only amylase.
A) rich in enzymes.
133) Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a
condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by connective
tissue. Which of the following signs would you not expect to observe
in Tony?
A) increased clotting time
B) jaundice
C)
portal hypertension and ascites
D) decrease in plasma protein
production
E) impaired erythropoiesis
E) impaired erythropoiesis
134) Bile salts aid in the digestion of fats by ________ large fat
droplets.
A) dehydrating
B) anabolizing
C)
binding
D) combining
E) emulsifying
E) emulsifying
135) Your patient with liver failure has a firm, rounded abdomen due
to accumulation of fluid.
This is known clinically as
A)
hepatitis C.
B) ascites.
C) hepatitis B.
D)
cirrhosis.
E) gastritis.
B) ascites.
136) Pancreatic juice enters the small intestine at the
A)
hepatic duct.
B) ileocecal valve.
C) duodenal
papilla.
D) pyloric sphincter.
E) cystic duct.
C) duodenal papilla.
137) Identify the incorrect pairing.
A) gallbladder; stores
bile
B) esophagus; transports material to stomach
C)
pancreas; secretes amylases
D) liver; produces intrinsic
factor
E) stomach; has an alkaline lining
D) liver; produces intrinsic factor
138) A blood clot blocking flow through the liver might cause
A)
gallstones.
B) cirrhosis.
C) portal hypertension.
D)
jaundice.
E) hepatitis C.
C) portal hypertension.
139) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term
pancreatic juice?
A) produced by endocrine tissue
B)
produced by pancreatic islets
C) rich in bile
D) rich in
insulin and glucagon produced by pancreatic islets
E) alkaline
mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells
E) alkaline mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells
140) Which of the following enzymes is not produced by the
pancreas?
A) alpha-amylase
B) rennin
C) lipase
D)
nucleases
E) peptidases
B) rennin
141) Which is not true of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Their primary
site of action is the pancreas.
B) The majority are
proteases.
C) Most are secreted as proenzymes.
D) They
digest carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E)
They are produced by exocrine tissue.
A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas.
142) Which of the following is not a lobe of the liver?
A)
left
B) right
C) quadrate
D) caudate
E) sigmoid
E) sigmoid
143) Inflammation of the gallbladder is termed
A)
cirrhosis.
B) hepatitis.
C) gastritis.
D)
cystitis.
E) cholecystitis.
E) cholecystitis.
144) Circular folds and intestinal villi
A) increase the surface
area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
B) carry products of
digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood
capillaries.
C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small
intestine.
D) secrete digestive enzymes.
E) produce hormones.
A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
145) Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of
the
A) duodenum.
B) jejunum.
C) ileum.
D)
pancreas.
E) liver.
A) duodenum.
146) The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the
A)
duodenum and the jejunum.
B) duodenum and the pylorus.
C)
bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
D) duodenum and the pancreatic
duct.
E) duodenum and the bile duct.
C) bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
147) The villi are most developed in the
A) stomach.
B)
duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) gallbladder.
E) cecum.
C) jejunum.
148) Peyer's patches are characteristic of the
A)
stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) ileum.
E) colon.
D) ileum.
149) All of the following enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the
small intestine except
A) the circular folds.
B) the
villi.
C) the microvilli.
D) intestinal movements.
E) rugae.
E) rugae.
150) The middle segment of the small intestine is the
A)
ileum.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) pylorus.
E) cecum.
C) jejunum.
151) The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is
the
A) haustrum.
B) appendix.
C) ileum.
D)
duodenum.
E) jejunum.
C) ileum.
152) Circular folds are
A) ridges in the wall of the
stomach.
B) pleats in the lining of the small intestine.
C)
fingerlike projections on the surface of the mucosa of the small
intestine.
D) sacculations in the colon.
E) abnormal
structures formed by excessive pressure in the small intestine.
B) pleats in the lining of the small intestine.
153) An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucin production by the
submucosal duodenal glands is
A) secretin.
B)
cholecystokinin.
C) enterocrinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.
C) enterocrinin.
154) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a
watery, bicarbonate-rich
fluid is
A) enterocrinin.
B)
secretin.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.
B) secretin.
155) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin
from the pancreatic islet cells is
A) enterocrinin.
B)
enteropeptidase.
C) secretin.
D) cholecystokinin.
E)
gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).
156) An intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion
is
A) secretin.
B) cholecystokinin.
C)
enteropeptidase.
D) gastrin.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).
D) gastrin.
157) The gastroileal reflex
A) empties the duodenum.
B)
promotes gastric secretion.
C) decreases peristaltic
activity.
D) moves some chyme to the colon.
E) is relayed
through the CNS.
D) moves some chyme to the colon.
158) A surgical procedure to promote rapid weight loss is removal of
most of the
A) pancreas.
B) liver.
C) duodenum.
D)
jejunum.
E) ileum.
D) jejunum.
159) The part of the small intestine most likely to develop an ulcer
from exposure to gastric juice is the
A) pylorus.
B)
duodenum.
C) ileum.
D) cecum.
E) jejunum.
B) duodenum.
160) In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum,
the
A) blood levels of secretin rise.
B) blood levels of
cholecystokinin fall.
C) blood levels of gastrin rise.
D)
blood levels of enterocrinin fall.
E) liver releases enzymes for
chemical digestion.
A) blood levels of secretin rise.
161) Hydrochloric acid from the stomach is neutralized in the small
intestine by
A) water that was ingested with the food.
B)
bicarbonate from the pancreas.
C) trypsin.
D) bile from the
liver.
E) enzymes from the intestinal crypts.
B) bicarbonate from the pancreas.
162) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term
cholecystokinin (CCK)?
A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter
duodenum
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C)
stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) causes
gallbladder to contract
E) stimulates gastric secretion
D) causes gallbladder to contract
163) The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the
A) large
intestines.
B) cecum.
C) small intestines.
D)
stomach.
E) colon.
C) small intestines.
164) Place the following structures in order as food passes into
them.
1. cecum
2. duodenum
3. ileum
4.
jejunum
5. stomach
A) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B) 5, 1, 2, 4,
3
C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
165) Brush border enzymes are found in the
A) circular
folds.
B) villi.
C) microvilli.
D) plicae
circularis.
E) rugae.
C) microvilli.
166) Which of the following is true regarding the production of
intestinal juice?
A) Most of the fluid is actively transported
into the lumen.
B) The pancreas is the source for most of the
intestinal juice.
C) Intestinal juice is produced following
activation by motilin.
D) Local reflexes and parasympathetic
stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice.
E) The
cephalic phase of gastric secretion produces intestinal juice.
D) Local reflexes and parasympathetic stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice.
167) Motility in the small intestines is controlled in part by all of
the following except
A) VIP.
B) motilin.
C) vagus
nerve.
D) myenteric reflexes.
E) gastroenteric reflexes.
A) VIP.
168) Which reflex is stimulated by stretch receptors in the stomach
to increase motility and
secretions along the small
intestines?
A) cephalic reflex
B) gastroileal reflex
C)
enterogastric reflex
D) gastrocolic reflex
E) gastroenteric reflex
E) gastroenteric reflex
177) Powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each
day in the colon are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular
movements.
C) haustral churning.
D) defecation.
E) mass movements.
E) mass movements.
178) Functions of the large intestine include
A) absorption of
bile salts.
B) secretion of vitamins.
C) reabsorption of
water and compaction of feces.
D) production of gas to move waste
toward the rectum.
E) most of the chemical breakdown of food.
C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces.
179) At the hepatic flexure, the colon becomes the
A) ascending
colon.
B) transverse colon.
C) descending colon.
D)
sigmoid colon.
E) rectum.
B) transverse colon.
180) Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is
the
A) anus.
B) anal canal.
C) rectum.
D) sigmoid
colon.
E) rectal column.
C) rectum.
181) Haustra are
A) expansible pouches of the colon.
B)
strips of muscle in the colon.
C) glands in the large intestine
that secrete mucus.
D) the source of colon hormones.
E)
compact feces stored in the rectum.
A) expansible pouches of the colon.
182) The teniae coli are
A) tears of the colon.
B)
longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall.
C) ridges
in the mucosa of the colon.
D) polyps that obstruct the sigmoid
colon.
E) tumors normally confined in the sigmoid colon.
B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall.
183) At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the
A) ascending
colon.
B) transverse colon.
C) descending colon.
D)
sigmoid colon.
E) rectum.
C) descending colon.
184) The pouchlike structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal
valve is the
A) appendix.
B) sigmoid colon.
C)
rectum.
D) haustra.
E) cecum.
E) cecum.
185) A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial
surface of the cecum is the
A) haustra.
B) pancreas.
C)
gallbladder.
D) appendix.
E) ileum.
D) appendix.
186) The defecation reflex involves
A) sympathetic
nerves.
B) relaxation of both the internal and external anal
sphincters.
C) conscious control of both the internal and
external anal sphincters.
D) relaxation of the ileocecal valve to
move feces into the rectum.
E) parasympathetic nerve control from
sacral nerves.
B) relaxation of both the internal and external anal sphincters.
187) Which is not part of the large intestine?
A) cecum
B)
sigmoid colon
C) ileum
D) transverse colon
E) rectum
C) ileum
188) Which of these digestive structures is not necessary for
life?
A) stomach
B) small intestines
C) colon
D)
liver
E) pancreas
C) colon
189) Which of the following is not found in the large
intestines?
A) villi
B) intestinal crypts
C) intestinal
glands
D) mucous cells
E) simple columnar epithelium
A) villi
190) The enzyme amylase digests
A) peptides.
B)
polysaccharides.
C) disaccharides.
D) triglycerides.
E) nucleotides.
B) polysaccharides.
191) An enzyme that digests proteins into peptides is
A)
lipase.
B) amylase.
C) nuclease.
D) maltase.
E) trypsin.
E) trypsin.
192) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the
A) mouth.
B)
esophagus.
C) stomach
D) duodenum.
E) ileum.
A) mouth.
193) If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of
glucose and galactose, this carbohydrate is probably
A)
sucrose.
B) maltose.
C) lactose.
D) cellulose.
E) glycogen.
C) lactose.
194) Which of the following is false concerning the process known as
cotransport?
A) Only neutral compounds such as sugars are
transported.
B) More than one molecule or ion is moved through
the cell membrane at one time.
C) ATP is not required by the
transport protein.
D) Molecules can be moved against a
concentration gradient.
E) Molecules are moved in the same direction.
A) Only neutral compounds such as sugars are transported.
195) Products of fat digestion are transported initially by
A)
capillaries.
B) veins.
C) lymphatic vessels.
D) the
interstitial fluid.
E) the arterioles.
C) lymphatic vessels.
196) The absorption of some sugars in the small intestine
involves
A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C)
cotransport.
D) phagocytosis.
E) pinocytosis.
C) cotransport.
197) Absorption of glucose from the gut lumen depends on all of the
following except
A) the sodium-potassium pump in the basolateral
membrane of the epithelial cell.
B) cotransporter proteins in the
apical membrane of the epithelial cell.
C) higher sodium ion
concentration in the lumen than in the epithelial cell.
D)
sodium-linked cotransport.
E) emulsification forming small micelles.
E) emulsification forming small micelles.
198) Which of the following is true regarding lactose
intolerance?
A) The stomach produces inadequate amounts of
lactase.
B) Lactose-intolerant infants cannot digest dairy fat
and are at risk of starvation.
C) The person cannot digest any
type of monosaccharide.
D) The intestinal crypts are not
producing the enzyme lactase.
E) The enzyme maltase begins to
digest lactose.
D) The intestinal crypts are not producing the enzyme lactase.
199) Sucrose is hydrolyzed by sucrase into glucose and
A)
glucose.
B) lactose.
C) fructose.
D) maltose.
E) galactose.
C) fructose.
200) Complexes of fatty acids, monoglycerides, and bile salts are
called
A) chylomicrons.
B) countertransporters.
C)
vesicles.
D) micelles.
E) varicosities.
D) micelles.
201) Triglycerides, steroids, phospholipids and fat-soluble vitamins
that are coated with proteins are called
A) lacteals.
B)
chylomicrons.
C) vesicles.
D) micelles.
E) bile salts.
B) chylomicrons.
202) Chemical protein digestion begins in the
A) mouth.
B)
esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) duodenum.
E) cecum.
C) stomach.
203) Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme?
A)
amylase
B) lipase
C) bile
D) pepsin
E) trypsin
C) bile
2) Which type of salivary glands produces glycoproteins called
mucins? (Figure 24-9)
A) parotid
B) submandibular
C)
sublingual
D) buccal
E) lingual
B) submandibular
3) Name the region of the stomach that connects to the esophagus.
(Figure 24-12)
A) cardia
B) body
C) fundus
D)
pyloric part
E) duodenum
A) cardia
4) Chyme in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of what hormones in
the digestive tract?
(Figure 24-23)
A) Gastrin and
leptin
B) VIP and GIP
C) Gastrin and GIP
D) Leptin and
Ghrelin
E) GIP, VIP, CCK, and secretin
E) GIP, VIP, CCK, and secretin
5) What stimulates stretch receptors in the rectum? (Figure
24-26)
A) release of mucus into the rectum
B) gastrin
release by the stomach
C) a high water content in the
feces
D) feces causing distension in the rectum
E) high
concentrations of urobilins and stercobilins in the feces
D) feces causing distension in the rectum