5) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term submucosal plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels

B) sensory neural network

6) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) churning movements.
E) mastication.

C) peristalsis.

7) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the
A) serosa.
B) adventitia.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) mucosa.
E) submucosa.

D) mucosa.

8) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels

D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa

9) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial
pleats and folds.
A) mucosa
B) submucosa
C) submucosal neural plexus
D) muscularis mucosa
E) adventitia

D) muscularis mucosa

10) The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and
carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.
A) serosa
B) adventitia
C) mesenteries
D) fibrosa
E) lamina propria

C) mesenteries

11) Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the
A) mucosa.
B) serosa.
C) adventitia.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E) lamina propria.

D) submucosal neural plexus.

12) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) myenteric plexus.
E) submucosal neural plexus.

D) myenteric plexus.

13) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis.
D) adventitia.
E) serosa.

B) submucosa.

14) The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the
A) lamina propria.
B) muscularis mucosae.
C) submucosa.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E) myenteric plexus.

A) lamina propria.

15) A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following except in the
A) anal canal.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) oropharynx.
E) oral cavity.

C) stomach.

16) A feature of the digestive tract wall that increases surface area available for absorption is the
A) transitional cells.
B) circular folds.
C) elastic cells.
D) rugae.
E) muscularis mucosa.

B) circular folds.

17) The ________ supports all but 25 cm of the small intestine and provides stability and limited
movement.
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

C) mesentery proper

18) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

B) greater omentum

19) Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials?
A) small intestine
B) esophagus
C) large intestine
D) stomach
E) anus

C) large intestine

20) The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called
A) peritoneal sheets.
B) mesenteries.
C) ascites.
D) the diaphragm.
E) the dorsal and ventral frenulums.

B) mesenteries.

21) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

D) lesser omentum

22) All of the following contain mucous cells in the epithelium except the
A) stomach.
B) transverse colon.
C) esophagus.
D) small intestine.
E) large intestine.

C) esophagus.

23) The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.
A) simple squamous
B) stratified squamous
C) pseudostratified
D) stratified columnar
E) transitional

B) stratified squamous

24) The greater omentum is
A) the entrance to the stomach.
B) attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature.
C) important in the digestion of fats.
D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
E) a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.

D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.

25) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would
A) increase intestinal motility.
B) decrease intestinal motility.
C) increase gastric secretion.
D) decrease gastric secretion.
E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.

B) decrease intestinal motility.

26) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest
layer.
1. lamina propria
2. muscularis externa
3. submucosa
4. digestive (mucous) epithelium
5. serosa
6. muscularis mucosae
A) 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4
B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5
C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5
D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3
E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5

B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5

27) Which accessory organ of the digestive system does not produce any enzymes or digestive secretions?
A) pancreas
B) gallbladder
C) liver
D) salivary glands
E) teeth

E) teeth

28) The movement of nutrients from the digestive tract lumen across the epithelium is called
A) chemical digestion.
B) absorption.
C) secretion.
D) reabsorption.
E) ingestion.

B) absorption.

29) The process of defecation eliminates
A) a bolus.
B) chyme.
C) feces.
D) ascites.
E) bile.

C) feces.

30) Becky is experiencing indigestion and pain. The doctor also notes ascites formation in her
abdomen. What is ascites?
A) buildup of bile in the bile duct
B) gallstones blocking the cystic duct
C) inflammation of the appendix
D) buildup of peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity
E) buildup of pancreatic juice in the pancreas

D) buildup of peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity

31) The mesocolon is
A) a section of the large intestines between the sigmoid colon and the rectum.
B) a thick mesenteric sheet associated with the small intestines.
C) a ligament that suspends the liver from the diaphragm.
D) a serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity.
E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.

E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.

32) Hormones are released from the mucosa layer by these cells?
A) enteroendocrine cells
B) Kupffer cells
C) Paneth cells
D) serous cells
E) mucus cells

A) enteroendocrine cells

33) The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following except
A) sensory analysis of material before swallowing.
B) mechanical processing of food.
C) lubrication.
D) absorption of monosaccharides.
E) digestion of carbohydrates.

D) absorption of monosaccharides.

34) ________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six to Ten

C) Three

35) The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar.
A) submaxillary
B) submandibular
C) parotid
D) sublingual
E) vestibular

C) parotid

36) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the
A) uvula.
B) pharyngeal arch.
C) palatoglossal arch.
D) palatopharyngeal arch.
E) epiglottis.

A) uvula.

37) Functions of the tongue include all of the following except
A) mechanical processing of food.
B) manipulation of food.
C) sensory analysis of food.
D) aiding in speech.
E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.

E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.

38) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.

C) dentin.

39) The part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp cavity.
E) periodontium.

D) pulp cavity.

40) The root of a tooth is covered by
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) the root canal.

B) cement.

41) The crown of a tooth is covered by
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.

A) enamel.

42) ________ are also known as canines.
A) Premolars
B) Incisors
C) Molars
D) Secondary teeth
E) Cuspids

E) Cuspids

43) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would
A) occur when too much protein is ingested.
B) cause mumps.
C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.
D) prevent emulsification of lipids.
E) inhibit the secretion of saliva from other glands.

C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.

44) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from
A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) hormonal stimulation.
C) parasympathetic stimulation.
D) myenteric reflexes.
E) hunger.

C) parasympathetic stimulation.

45) In most cases, the mumps is a viral infection of the ________ glands.
A) mandibular
B) sublingual
C) parotid
D) submandibular
E) lingual

C) parotid

46) The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the
mouth.
A) mandibular
B) sublingual
C) lingual
D) submandibular
E) parotid

B) sublingual

47) Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large amounts of salivary amylase?
A) mandibular
B) sublingual
C) lingual
D) submandibular
E) parotid

E) parotid

48) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the
A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) fauces.
D) vestibule.
E) frenulum.

D) vestibule.

49) The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the
A) vestibule.
B) gingiva.
C) alveolus.
D) uvula.
E) faux.

B) gingiva.

50) The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the
A) uvula.
B) faux.
C) lingual frenulum.
D) labial frenulum.
E) glossal septum.

C) lingual frenulum.

51) The uvula is located at the
A) posterior of the tongue.
B) margin of the vestibule.
C) base of a tooth.
D) posterior margin of the soft palate.
E) margin of the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx.

D) posterior margin of the soft palate.

52) ________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping.
A) Canines
B) Premolars
C) Cuspids
D) Incisors
E) Molars

D) Incisors

53) ________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing.
A) Incisors
B) Bicuspids
C) Premolars
D) Cuspids
E) Molars

D) Cuspids

54) ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.
A) Molars
B) Cuspids
C) Eye teeth
D) Canines
E) Dentins

A) Molars

55) Within the oral cavity, both mechanical and chemical ________ begin.
A) mastication
B) deglutition
C) digestion
D) ingestion
E) secretions

C) digestion

56) The dangling process that aids in keeping food out of the nasopharynx is known as the
A) palatine tonsil.
B) pharyngeal tonsil.
C) soft palate.
D) tongue.
E) uvula.

E) uvula.

57) The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity.
A) gingivae
B) pharyngeal
C) digestive
D) buccal
E) lingual

D) Buccal

58) The first teeth to appear are the ________ teeth.
A) provisional
B) transitory
C) transitional
D) temporary
E) deciduous

E) deciduous

59) There are normally a total of ________ deciduous teeth.
A) 18
B) 20
C) 25
D) 28
E) 32

B) 20

60) There are normally a total of ________ permanent teeth.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 32
E) 34

D) 32

61) The technical term for chewing is
A) mastication.
B) deglutition.
C) peristalsis.
D) segmentation.
E) borborygmus.

A) mastication.

62) Which structure is not found in the oral cavity?
A) palatine tonsil
B) palatoglossal arch
C) conchae
D) gingivae
E) uvula

C) conchae

63) The oral mucosa in much of the oral cavity such as the roof of the mouth and the surface of
the tongue is comprised of ________ epithelium.
A) keratinized stratified squamous
B) nonkeratinized stratified squamous
C) keratinized simple squamous
D) nonkeratinized simple squamous
E) goblet cell

A) keratinized stratified squamous

64) The location of the palatine tonsil in the oral cavity is
A) under the tongue on both sides.
B) inferior to the lingual frenulum.
C) posterior to the raphe.
D) between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches.
E) superior to the uvula.

D) between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches.

65) Hillary could not suckle milk properly due to the inability to protrude her tongue. The
physician diagnosed her with
A) mumps.
B) gastritis.
C) diverticulitis.
D) glossopharyngitis.
E) ankyloglossia.

E) ankyloglossia.

66) Intrinsic and extrinsic movements of the tongue are controlled by the ________ cranial
nerves.
A) vagus
B) hypoglossal
C) facial
D) accessory
E) trochlear

B) hypoglossal

67) Which salivary gland produces a mucous rich secretion that acts as a buffer and lubricant?
A) parotid
B) sublingual
C) submandibular
D) lingual
E) palatine

B) sublingual

68) Each tooth is held in the alveolar socket by the
A) cement.
B) roots.
C) periodontal ligament.
D) alveolar tendon.
E) apical foramen.

C) periodontal ligament.

69) Which of the following is not a pharyngeal muscle involved in swallowing?
A) pharyngeal constrictor muscle
B) palatopharyngeus
C) stylopharyngeus
D) omohyoid
E) palatal

D) omohyoid

70) The epithelium lining the oropharynx is
A) simple squamous.
B) simple cuboidal.
C) simple columnar.
D) stratified squamous.
E) pseudostratified squamous.

D) stratified squamous.

71) Upon swallowing, food moves from the mouth directly into the
A) oral vestibule.
B) buccal cavity.
C) sublingual space.
D) oropharynx.
E) oral mucosae.

D) oropharynx.

72) The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the GI tract. These include
A) epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous.
B) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar.
C) muscularis externa has some skeletal muscle.
D) epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous and simple columnar.
E) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.

C) muscularis externa has some skeletal muscle.

73) During deglutition, which of the following phases is first?
A) buccal
B) pharyngeal
C) gastric
D) esophageal
E) enteric

A) buccal

74) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in
A) mastication.
B) moving the tongue.
C) swallowing.
D) esophageal peristalsis.
E) opening the cardiac sphincter.

C) swallowing.

75) Which of the following statements is not true of swallowing?
A) The buccal phase is a voluntary phase.
B) Breathing stops during the pharyngeal phase.
C) Primary peristaltic waves are controlled by the facial nerves.
D) Secondary peristaltic waves are needed if the bolus is dry.
E) The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to allow the bolus to enter the stomach.

C) Primary peristaltic waves are controlled by the facial nerves.

76) Functions of the stomach include all of the following except
A) storage of ingested food.
B) denaturation of proteins.
C) initiation of protein digestion.
D) absorption of triglycerides.
E) mechanical breakdown of food.

D) absorption of triglycerides.

77) Parietal cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) enteropeptidase.

D) hydrochloric acid.

78) Chief cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) intrinsic factor.

A) pepsinogen.

79) G cells of the stomach secrete
A) cholecystokinin.
B) secretin.
C) gastrin.
D) enteropeptidase.
E) pepsin.

C) gastrin.

80) To which region of the stomach does the esophagus connect?
A) fundus
B) cardia
C) body
D) antrum
E) pyloric part

B) cardia

81) The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the
A) body.
B) antrum.
C) pyloric part.
D) cardia.
E) fundus.

A) body.

82) The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the
A) antrum.
B) fundus.
C) body.
D) cardia.
E) pyloric part.

E) pyloric part.

83) The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called
A) cardia.
B) papillae.
C) rugae.
D) plicae.
E) villi.

C) rugae.

84) The stomach secretes the hormone ghrelin which functions to
A) inhibit hunger.
B) initiate secretion of gastric juice containing enzymes and acid.
C) regulate the digestion of lipids.
D) stimulate hunger.
E) stimulate secretion of mucus from submucosal glands.

D) stimulate hunger.

85) Gastric pits are
A) ridges in the body of the stomach.
B) involved in absorption of liquids from the stomach.
C) openings into gastric glands.
D) acid scars in the esophagus.
E) hollows where proteins are stored.

C) openings into gastric glands.

86) The enzyme pepsin digests
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) lipids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.

B) proteins.

87) An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that coagulates milk proteins is
A) pepsin.
B) trypsin.
C) gastrin.
D) rennin.
E) cholecystokinin.

D) rennin.

88) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term gastrin?
A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) causes gallbladder to contract
E) stimulates gastric secretion

E) stimulates gastric secretion

89) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion,
A) the stomach responds to distention.
B) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells.
C) CNS sensory or cognitive activation increases neural stimulation of the stomach.
D) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying.
E) the gastroileal reflex decreases production of gastric juice.

C) CNS sensory or cognitive activation increases neural stimulation of the stomach.

90) The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the
A) sight, thought, or smell of food.
B) entry of food into the stomach.
C) entry of chyme into the small intestine.
D) entry of chyme into the large intestine.
E) release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine.

B) entry of food into the stomach.

91) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion except that it
A) precedes the gastric phase.
B) functions to control the rate of gastric emptying.
C) involves both neural and endocrine reflexes.
D) helps ensure that the functions of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency.
E) begins when chyme enters the small intestine.

A) precedes the gastric phase.

92) Distension of the gastric wall leads to secretion of histamines from the lamina propria. This is an example of ________ response.
A) neural
B) local
C) muscular
D) hormonal
E) antagonistic

B) local

93) Mary had her stomach mostly removed to try to overcome obesity. As a result, you would expect Mary to be at risk for
A) protein malnutrition.
B) abnormal erythropoiesis.
C) diarrhea.
D) dehydration.
E) an ulcer.

B) abnormal erythropoiesis.

94) All of the following are true of the lining of the stomach except that it
A) has a simple columnar epithelium.
B) is covered by a thick, viscous mucus.
C) is constantly being replaced.
D) contains gastric pits.
E) recycles bile.

E) recycles bile.

95) The stomach is different from other digestive organs in that it
A) has folds in the mucosa.
B) has three layers of muscle in the muscularis externa.
C) secretes digestive juice.
D) moves by peristalsis.
E) secretes digestive hormones.

B) has three layers of muscle in the muscularis externa.

96) Match the gastric phase on the left (1-3) with the correct description on the right (4-6):
1. intestinal phase 4. prepares stomach for arrival of food
2. gastric phase 5. stomach empties and decreases secretions
3. cephalic phase 6. stomach secretes juice and mixes food into chyme
A) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6
B) 1 and 6; 2 and 4; 3 and 5
C) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6
D) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4

E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4

97) Put the following steps of stomach acid production in the correct order starting with the
reaction that requires an enzyme.
1. Carbonic acid dissociates.
2. Chloride ion combines with H+ in the gastric lumen.
3. Water and CO2 combine to form carbonic acid.
4. H+ and bicarbonate ion are transported into the gastric lumen.
5. Cl- diffuses into the gastric lumen.
A) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
C) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

98) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in
A) a lower pH during gastric digestion.
B) a higher pH during gastric digestion.
C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells.
D) increased protein digestion in the stomach.
E) decreased gastrin production

B) a higher pH during gastric digestion.

99) D cells release ________, which inhibits the release of gastrin.
A) inhibin
B) ghrelin
C) leptin
D) somatostatin
E) pepsin

D) somatostatin

100) Which is not a reason the stomach is acidic?
A) Kills microorganisms.
B) Emulsification of lipids.
C) Denatures proteins.
D) Helps break down plant cell walls and connective tissue in meat.
E) Activates pepsin.

B) Emulsification of lipids.

101) Leptin is to satiety as ________ is to hunger.
A) Gastrin
B) Pepsin
C) Ghrelin
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin

C) Ghrelin

102) Which of the following is true regarding digestion and absorption in the stomach?
A) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach.
B) Small proteins can be absorbed with the help of pepsin.
C) Lipid digestion begins in the stomach.
D) Protein digestion begins in the stomach.
E) Digestion is complete after chyme moves out of the stomach.

D) Protein digestion begins in the stomach.

103) Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of gastric activity?
A) submucosal neural plexus
B) myenteric plexus
C) vagus nerve
D) CNS
E) hypoglossal nerve

E) hypoglossal nerve

104) Stimulation of gastric stretch receptors causes all of the following except
A) a decrease in myenteric plexus stimulation.
B) an increase in histamine release.
C) an increase in gastrin secretion.
D) an increase in submucosal neural plexus stimulation.
E) an increase in acid production.

A) a decrease in myenteric plexus stimulation.

113) The fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the
A) hepatic portal vein.
B) porta hepatis.
C) bile duct.
D) common pancreatic duct.
E) bile canaliculus.

C) bile duct.

114) In the center of a liver lobule there is a
A) hepatic duct.
B) portal area.
C) sinusoid.
D) central vein.
E) portal vein.

D) central vein.

115) The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of
A) islets of Langerhans.
B) pancreatic crypts.
C) pancreatic acini.
D) pancreatic lobules.
E) triads.

C) pancreatic acini.

116) Each of the following is a function of the liver except
A) synthesis and secretion of bile.
B) antibody production.
C) synthesis of plasma proteins.
D) inactivation of toxins.
E) storage of glycogen and iron reserves.

B) antibody production.

117) The basic functional units of the liver are the
A) hepatocytes.
B) stellate macrophages.
C) lobules.
D) portal areas.
E) bile canaliculi.

C) lobules.

118) ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of irregular plates
converging toward a central vein.
A) Stellate macrophages
B) Hepatocytes
C) Bile canaliculi
D) Portal areas
E) Hepatic ducts

B) Hepatocytes

119) The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the
A) lesser omentum.
B) greater omentum.
C) falciform ligament.
D) ligamentum teres.
E) hepatic ligament.

C) falciform ligament.

120) Bile is stored in the
A) liver.
B) duodenum.
C) pancreas.
D) gallbladder.
E) appendix.

D) gallbladder.

121) A proenzyme secreted by the pancreas is
A) trypsinogen.
B) amylase.
C) carboxypeptidase.
D) lipase.
E) bile

A) trypsinogen.

122) Which of the following has an association with the fetal umbilical vein?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

A) falciform ligament

123) Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad found at the edges of a liver lobule?
A) hepatic artery
B) bile duct
C) central vein
D) hepatic portal vein

C) central vein

124) Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of
A) proteins.
B) fats.
C) disaccharides.
D) complex carbohydrates.
E) vitamins.

B) fats.

125) The essential functions of the liver include all of the following except
A) metabolic regulation.
B) hematological regulation.
C) bile production.
D) albumin production for blood osmotic pressure.
E) hormonal regulation.

E) hormonal regulation.

126) Match the proenzyme on the left (1-3) with the correct enzyme activator on the right (4-6).
1. pepsinogen 4. enteropeptidase
2. trypsinogen 5. hydrochloric acid
3. procarboxypeptidase 6. trypsin
A) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4
B) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6
C) 1 and 4; 2 and 6; 3 and 5
D) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6

E) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6

127) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would affect all of the following except
A) relaxation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter.
B) the composition of pancreatic secretions.
C) the delivery of bile.
D) digestion of lipids and proteins.
E) absorption of water in the large intestines.

E) absorption of water in the large intestines.

128) An obstruction of the bile duct often results in
A) undigested fat in the feces.
B) a decrease in production of pancreatic juice.
C) inability to digest protein.
D) cirrhosis of the liver.
E) hepatitis.

A) undigested fat in the feces.

129) If the pancreatic duct was obstructed, you would expect to see elevated blood levels of
A) bilirubin.
B) amylase.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) secretin.
E) gastrin.

B) amylase.

130) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would
you expect to observe in Tom?
A) jaundice
B) elevated levels of blood glucose
C) impaired digestion of protein
D) blood in the feces
E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin

A) jaundice

131) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in bicarbonate ion.
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that contains only amylase.

B) rich in bicarbonate ion.

132) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in bicarbonate.
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that contains only amylase.

A) rich in enzymes.

133) Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by connective tissue. Which of the following signs would you not expect to observe in Tony?
A) increased clotting time
B) jaundice
C) portal hypertension and ascites
D) decrease in plasma protein production
E) impaired erythropoiesis

E) impaired erythropoiesis

134) Bile salts aid in the digestion of fats by ________ large fat droplets.
A) dehydrating
B) anabolizing
C) binding
D) combining
E) emulsifying

E) emulsifying

135) Your patient with liver failure has a firm, rounded abdomen due to accumulation of fluid.
This is known clinically as
A) hepatitis C.
B) ascites.
C) hepatitis B.
D) cirrhosis.
E) gastritis.

B) ascites.

136) Pancreatic juice enters the small intestine at the
A) hepatic duct.
B) ileocecal valve.
C) duodenal papilla.
D) pyloric sphincter.
E) cystic duct.

C) duodenal papilla.

137) Identify the incorrect pairing.
A) gallbladder; stores bile
B) esophagus; transports material to stomach
C) pancreas; secretes amylases
D) liver; produces intrinsic factor
E) stomach; has an alkaline lining

D) liver; produces intrinsic factor

138) A blood clot blocking flow through the liver might cause
A) gallstones.
B) cirrhosis.
C) portal hypertension.
D) jaundice.
E) hepatitis C.

C) portal hypertension.

139) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term pancreatic juice?
A) produced by endocrine tissue
B) produced by pancreatic islets
C) rich in bile
D) rich in insulin and glucagon produced by pancreatic islets
E) alkaline mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells

E) alkaline mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells

140) Which of the following enzymes is not produced by the pancreas?
A) alpha-amylase
B) rennin
C) lipase
D) nucleases
E) peptidases

B) rennin

141) Which is not true of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas.
B) The majority are proteases.
C) Most are secreted as proenzymes.
D) They digest carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E) They are produced by exocrine tissue.

A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas.

142) Which of the following is not a lobe of the liver?
A) left
B) right
C) quadrate
D) caudate
E) sigmoid

E) sigmoid

143) Inflammation of the gallbladder is termed
A) cirrhosis.
B) hepatitis.
C) gastritis.
D) cystitis.
E) cholecystitis.

E) cholecystitis.

144) Circular folds and intestinal villi
A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries.
C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) secrete digestive enzymes.
E) produce hormones.

A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.

145) Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the
A) duodenum.
B) jejunum.
C) ileum.
D) pancreas.
E) liver.

A) duodenum.

146) The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the
A) duodenum and the jejunum.
B) duodenum and the pylorus.
C) bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
D) duodenum and the pancreatic duct.
E) duodenum and the bile duct.

C) bile duct and the pancreatic duct.

147) The villi are most developed in the
A) stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) gallbladder.
E) cecum.

C) jejunum.

148) Peyer's patches are characteristic of the
A) stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) ileum.
E) colon.

D) ileum.

149) All of the following enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine except
A) the circular folds.
B) the villi.
C) the microvilli.
D) intestinal movements.
E) rugae.

E) rugae.

150) The middle segment of the small intestine is the
A) ileum.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) pylorus.
E) cecum.

C) jejunum.

151) The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the
A) haustrum.
B) appendix.
C) ileum.
D) duodenum.
E) jejunum.

C) ileum.

152) Circular folds are
A) ridges in the wall of the stomach.
B) pleats in the lining of the small intestine.
C) fingerlike projections on the surface of the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) sacculations in the colon.
E) abnormal structures formed by excessive pressure in the small intestine.

B) pleats in the lining of the small intestine.

153) An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucin production by the submucosal duodenal glands is
A) secretin.
B) cholecystokinin.
C) enterocrinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.

C) enterocrinin.

154) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich
fluid is
A) enterocrinin.
B) secretin.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.

B) secretin.

155) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is
A) enterocrinin.
B) enteropeptidase.
C) secretin.
D) cholecystokinin.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).

E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).

156) An intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion is
A) secretin.
B) cholecystokinin.
C) enteropeptidase.
D) gastrin.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).

D) gastrin.

157) The gastroileal reflex
A) empties the duodenum.
B) promotes gastric secretion.
C) decreases peristaltic activity.
D) moves some chyme to the colon.
E) is relayed through the CNS.

D) moves some chyme to the colon.

158) A surgical procedure to promote rapid weight loss is removal of most of the
A) pancreas.
B) liver.
C) duodenum.
D) jejunum.
E) ileum.

D) jejunum.

159) The part of the small intestine most likely to develop an ulcer from exposure to gastric juice is the
A) pylorus.
B) duodenum.
C) ileum.
D) cecum.
E) jejunum.

B) duodenum.

160) In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum, the
A) blood levels of secretin rise.
B) blood levels of cholecystokinin fall.
C) blood levels of gastrin rise.
D) blood levels of enterocrinin fall.
E) liver releases enzymes for chemical digestion.

A) blood levels of secretin rise.

161) Hydrochloric acid from the stomach is neutralized in the small intestine by
A) water that was ingested with the food.
B) bicarbonate from the pancreas.
C) trypsin.
D) bile from the liver.
E) enzymes from the intestinal crypts.

B) bicarbonate from the pancreas.

162) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term cholecystokinin (CCK)?
A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) causes gallbladder to contract
E) stimulates gastric secretion

D) causes gallbladder to contract

163) The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the
A) large intestines.
B) cecum.
C) small intestines.
D) stomach.
E) colon.

C) small intestines.

164) Place the following structures in order as food passes into them.
1. cecum
2. duodenum
3. ileum
4. jejunum
5. stomach
A) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

165) Brush border enzymes are found in the
A) circular folds.
B) villi.
C) microvilli.
D) plicae circularis.
E) rugae.

C) microvilli.

166) Which of the following is true regarding the production of intestinal juice?
A) Most of the fluid is actively transported into the lumen.
B) The pancreas is the source for most of the intestinal juice.
C) Intestinal juice is produced following activation by motilin.
D) Local reflexes and parasympathetic stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice.
E) The cephalic phase of gastric secretion produces intestinal juice.

D) Local reflexes and parasympathetic stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice.

167) Motility in the small intestines is controlled in part by all of the following except
A) VIP.
B) motilin.
C) vagus nerve.
D) myenteric reflexes.
E) gastroenteric reflexes.

A) VIP.

168) Which reflex is stimulated by stretch receptors in the stomach to increase motility and
secretions along the small intestines?
A) cephalic reflex
B) gastroileal reflex
C) enterogastric reflex
D) gastrocolic reflex
E) gastroenteric reflex

E) gastroenteric reflex

177) Powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular movements.
C) haustral churning.
D) defecation.
E) mass movements.

E) mass movements.

178) Functions of the large intestine include
A) absorption of bile salts.
B) secretion of vitamins.
C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces.
D) production of gas to move waste toward the rectum.
E) most of the chemical breakdown of food.

C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces.

179) At the hepatic flexure, the colon becomes the
A) ascending colon.
B) transverse colon.
C) descending colon.
D) sigmoid colon.
E) rectum.

B) transverse colon.

180) Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the
A) anus.
B) anal canal.
C) rectum.
D) sigmoid colon.
E) rectal column.

C) rectum.

181) Haustra are
A) expansible pouches of the colon.
B) strips of muscle in the colon.
C) glands in the large intestine that secrete mucus.
D) the source of colon hormones.
E) compact feces stored in the rectum.

A) expansible pouches of the colon.

182) The teniae coli are
A) tears of the colon.
B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall.
C) ridges in the mucosa of the colon.
D) polyps that obstruct the sigmoid colon.
E) tumors normally confined in the sigmoid colon.

B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall.

183) At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the
A) ascending colon.
B) transverse colon.
C) descending colon.
D) sigmoid colon.
E) rectum.

C) descending colon.

184) The pouchlike structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the
A) appendix.
B) sigmoid colon.
C) rectum.
D) haustra.
E) cecum.

E) cecum.

185) A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the
A) haustra.
B) pancreas.
C) gallbladder.
D) appendix.
E) ileum.

D) appendix.

186) The defecation reflex involves
A) sympathetic nerves.
B) relaxation of both the internal and external anal sphincters.
C) conscious control of both the internal and external anal sphincters.
D) relaxation of the ileocecal valve to move feces into the rectum.
E) parasympathetic nerve control from sacral nerves.

B) relaxation of both the internal and external anal sphincters.

187) Which is not part of the large intestine?
A) cecum
B) sigmoid colon
C) ileum
D) transverse colon
E) rectum

C) ileum

188) Which of these digestive structures is not necessary for life?
A) stomach
B) small intestines
C) colon
D) liver
E) pancreas

C) colon

189) Which of the following is not found in the large intestines?
A) villi
B) intestinal crypts
C) intestinal glands
D) mucous cells
E) simple columnar epithelium

A) villi

190) The enzyme amylase digests
A) peptides.
B) polysaccharides.
C) disaccharides.
D) triglycerides.
E) nucleotides.

B) polysaccharides.

191) An enzyme that digests proteins into peptides is
A) lipase.
B) amylase.
C) nuclease.
D) maltase.
E) trypsin.

E) trypsin.

192) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the
A) mouth.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach
D) duodenum.
E) ileum.

A) mouth.

193) If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of glucose and galactose, this carbohydrate is probably
A) sucrose.
B) maltose.
C) lactose.
D) cellulose.
E) glycogen.

C) lactose.

194) Which of the following is false concerning the process known as cotransport?
A) Only neutral compounds such as sugars are transported.
B) More than one molecule or ion is moved through the cell membrane at one time.
C) ATP is not required by the transport protein.
D) Molecules can be moved against a concentration gradient.
E) Molecules are moved in the same direction.

A) Only neutral compounds such as sugars are transported.

195) Products of fat digestion are transported initially by
A) capillaries.
B) veins.
C) lymphatic vessels.
D) the interstitial fluid.
E) the arterioles.

C) lymphatic vessels.

196) The absorption of some sugars in the small intestine involves
A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C) cotransport.
D) phagocytosis.
E) pinocytosis.

C) cotransport.

197) Absorption of glucose from the gut lumen depends on all of the following except
A) the sodium-potassium pump in the basolateral membrane of the epithelial cell.
B) cotransporter proteins in the apical membrane of the epithelial cell.
C) higher sodium ion concentration in the lumen than in the epithelial cell.
D) sodium-linked cotransport.
E) emulsification forming small micelles.

E) emulsification forming small micelles.

198) Which of the following is true regarding lactose intolerance?
A) The stomach produces inadequate amounts of lactase.
B) Lactose-intolerant infants cannot digest dairy fat and are at risk of starvation.
C) The person cannot digest any type of monosaccharide.
D) The intestinal crypts are not producing the enzyme lactase.
E) The enzyme maltase begins to digest lactose.

D) The intestinal crypts are not producing the enzyme lactase.

199) Sucrose is hydrolyzed by sucrase into glucose and
A) glucose.
B) lactose.
C) fructose.
D) maltose.
E) galactose.

C) fructose.

200) Complexes of fatty acids, monoglycerides, and bile salts are called
A) chylomicrons.
B) countertransporters.
C) vesicles.
D) micelles.
E) varicosities.

D) micelles.

201) Triglycerides, steroids, phospholipids and fat-soluble vitamins that are coated with proteins are called
A) lacteals.
B) chylomicrons.
C) vesicles.
D) micelles.
E) bile salts.

B) chylomicrons.

202) Chemical protein digestion begins in the
A) mouth.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) duodenum.
E) cecum.

C) stomach.

203) Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme?
A) amylase
B) lipase
C) bile
D) pepsin
E) trypsin

C) bile

2) Which type of salivary glands produces glycoproteins called mucins? (Figure 24-9)
A) parotid
B) submandibular
C) sublingual
D) buccal
E) lingual

B) submandibular

3) Name the region of the stomach that connects to the esophagus. (Figure 24-12)
A) cardia
B) body
C) fundus
D) pyloric part
E) duodenum

A) cardia

4) Chyme in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of what hormones in the digestive tract?
(Figure 24-23)
A) Gastrin and leptin
B) VIP and GIP
C) Gastrin and GIP
D) Leptin and Ghrelin
E) GIP, VIP, CCK, and secretin

E) GIP, VIP, CCK, and secretin

5) What stimulates stretch receptors in the rectum? (Figure 24-26)
A) release of mucus into the rectum
B) gastrin release by the stomach
C) a high water content in the feces
D) feces causing distension in the rectum
E) high concentrations of urobilins and stercobilins in the feces

D) feces causing distension in the rectum