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Chapter 24 The Digestive System

front 1

1) Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract except the
A) stomach.
B) pharynx.
C) esophagus.
D) bladder.
E) colon.

back 1

D) bladder.

front 2

2) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
A) appendix
B) pancreas
C) spleen
D) colon
E) esophagus

back 2

B) pancreas

front 3

3) Digestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) mechanical breakdown of food.
C) chemical breakdown of food.
D) mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
E) release of water, acids, enzymes and buffers by organs.

back 3

D) mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.

front 4

4) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) mechanical processing
B) absorption
C) secretion
D) ingestion
E) filtration

back 4

E) filtration

front 5

5) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term submucosal plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels

back 5

B) sensory neural network

front 6

6) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) churning movements.
E) mastication.

back 6

C) peristalsis.

front 7

7) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the
A) serosa.
B) adventitia.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) mucosa.
E) submucosa.

back 7

D) mucosa.

front 8

8) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels

back 8

D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa

front 9

9) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial
pleats and folds.
A) mucosa
B) submucosa
C) submucosal neural plexus
D) muscularis mucosa
E) adventitia

back 9

D) muscularis mucosa

front 10

10) The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and
carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.
A) serosa
B) adventitia
C) mesenteries
D) fibrosa
E) lamina propria

back 10

C) mesenteries

front 11

11) Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the
A) mucosa.
B) serosa.
C) adventitia.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E) lamina propria.

back 11

D) submucosal neural plexus.

front 12

12) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) myenteric plexus.
E) submucosal neural plexus.

back 12

D) myenteric plexus.

front 13

13) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis.
D) adventitia.
E) serosa.

back 13

B) submucosa.

front 14

14) The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the
A) lamina propria.
B) muscularis mucosae.
C) submucosa.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E) myenteric plexus.

back 14

A) lamina propria.

front 15

15) A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following except in the
A) anal canal.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) oropharynx.
E) oral cavity.

back 15

C) stomach.

front 16

16) A feature of the digestive tract wall that increases surface area available for absorption is the
A) transitional cells.
B) circular folds.
C) elastic cells.
D) rugae.
E) muscularis mucosa.

back 16

B) circular folds.

front 17

17) The ________ supports all but 25 cm of the small intestine and provides stability and limited
movement.
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

back 17

C) mesentery proper

front 18

18) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

back 18

B) greater omentum

front 19

19) Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials?
A) small intestine
B) esophagus
C) large intestine
D) stomach
E) anus

back 19

C) large intestine

front 20

20) The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called
A) peritoneal sheets.
B) mesenteries.
C) ascites.
D) the diaphragm.
E) the dorsal and ventral frenulums.

back 20

B) mesenteries.

front 21

21) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

back 21

D) lesser omentum

front 22

22) All of the following contain mucous cells in the epithelium except the
A) stomach.
B) transverse colon.
C) esophagus.
D) small intestine.
E) large intestine.

back 22

C) esophagus.

front 23

23) The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.
A) simple squamous
B) stratified squamous
C) pseudostratified
D) stratified columnar
E) transitional

back 23

B) stratified squamous

front 24

24) The greater omentum is
A) the entrance to the stomach.
B) attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature.
C) important in the digestion of fats.
D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
E) a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.

back 24

D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.

front 25

25) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would
A) increase intestinal motility.
B) decrease intestinal motility.
C) increase gastric secretion.
D) decrease gastric secretion.
E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.

back 25

B) decrease intestinal motility.

front 26

26) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest
layer.
1. lamina propria
2. muscularis externa
3. submucosa
4. digestive (mucous) epithelium
5. serosa
6. muscularis mucosae
A) 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4
B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5
C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5
D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3
E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5

back 26

B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5

front 27

27) Which accessory organ of the digestive system does not produce any enzymes or digestive secretions?
A) pancreas
B) gallbladder
C) liver
D) salivary glands
E) teeth

back 27

E) teeth

front 28

28) The movement of nutrients from the digestive tract lumen across the epithelium is called
A) chemical digestion.
B) absorption.
C) secretion.
D) reabsorption.
E) ingestion.

back 28

B) absorption.

front 29

29) The process of defecation eliminates
A) a bolus.
B) chyme.
C) feces.
D) ascites.
E) bile.

back 29

C) feces.

front 30

30) Becky is experiencing indigestion and pain. The doctor also notes ascites formation in her
abdomen. What is ascites?
A) buildup of bile in the bile duct
B) gallstones blocking the cystic duct
C) inflammation of the appendix
D) buildup of peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity
E) buildup of pancreatic juice in the pancreas

back 30

D) buildup of peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity

front 31

31) The mesocolon is
A) a section of the large intestines between the sigmoid colon and the rectum.
B) a thick mesenteric sheet associated with the small intestines.
C) a ligament that suspends the liver from the diaphragm.
D) a serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity.
E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.

back 31

E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.

front 32

32) Hormones are released from the mucosa layer by these cells?
A) enteroendocrine cells
B) Kupffer cells
C) Paneth cells
D) serous cells
E) mucus cells

back 32

A) enteroendocrine cells

front 33

33) The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following except
A) sensory analysis of material before swallowing.
B) mechanical processing of food.
C) lubrication.
D) absorption of monosaccharides.
E) digestion of carbohydrates.

back 33

D) absorption of monosaccharides.

front 34

34) ________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six to Ten

back 34

C) Three

front 35

35) The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar.
A) submaxillary
B) submandibular
C) parotid
D) sublingual
E) vestibular

back 35

C) parotid

front 36

36) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the
A) uvula.
B) pharyngeal arch.
C) palatoglossal arch.
D) palatopharyngeal arch.
E) epiglottis.

back 36

A) uvula.

front 37

37) Functions of the tongue include all of the following except
A) mechanical processing of food.
B) manipulation of food.
C) sensory analysis of food.
D) aiding in speech.
E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.

back 37

E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.

front 38

38) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.

back 38

C) dentin.

front 39

39) The part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp cavity.
E) periodontium.

back 39

D) pulp cavity.

front 40

40) The root of a tooth is covered by
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) the root canal.

back 40

B) cement.

front 41

41) The crown of a tooth is covered by
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.

back 41

A) enamel.

front 42

42) ________ are also known as canines.
A) Premolars
B) Incisors
C) Molars
D) Secondary teeth
E) Cuspids

back 42

E) Cuspids

front 43

43) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would
A) occur when too much protein is ingested.
B) cause mumps.
C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.
D) prevent emulsification of lipids.
E) inhibit the secretion of saliva from other glands.

back 43

C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.

front 44

44) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from
A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) hormonal stimulation.
C) parasympathetic stimulation.
D) myenteric reflexes.
E) hunger.

back 44

C) parasympathetic stimulation.

front 45

45) In most cases, the mumps is a viral infection of the ________ glands.
A) mandibular
B) sublingual
C) parotid
D) submandibular
E) lingual

back 45

C) parotid

front 46

46) The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the
mouth.
A) mandibular
B) sublingual
C) lingual
D) submandibular
E) parotid

back 46

B) sublingual

front 47

47) Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large amounts of salivary amylase?
A) mandibular
B) sublingual
C) lingual
D) submandibular
E) parotid

back 47

E) parotid

front 48

48) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the
A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) fauces.
D) vestibule.
E) frenulum.

back 48

D) vestibule.

front 49

49) The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the
A) vestibule.
B) gingiva.
C) alveolus.
D) uvula.
E) faux.

back 49

B) gingiva.

front 50

50) The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the
A) uvula.
B) faux.
C) lingual frenulum.
D) labial frenulum.
E) glossal septum.

back 50

C) lingual frenulum.

front 51

51) The uvula is located at the
A) posterior of the tongue.
B) margin of the vestibule.
C) base of a tooth.
D) posterior margin of the soft palate.
E) margin of the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx.

back 51

D) posterior margin of the soft palate.

front 52

52) ________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping.
A) Canines
B) Premolars
C) Cuspids
D) Incisors
E) Molars

back 52

D) Incisors

front 53

53) ________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing.
A) Incisors
B) Bicuspids
C) Premolars
D) Cuspids
E) Molars

back 53

D) Cuspids

front 54

54) ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.
A) Molars
B) Cuspids
C) Eye teeth
D) Canines
E) Dentins

back 54

A) Molars

front 55

55) Within the oral cavity, both mechanical and chemical ________ begin.
A) mastication
B) deglutition
C) digestion
D) ingestion
E) secretions

back 55

C) digestion

front 56

56) The dangling process that aids in keeping food out of the nasopharynx is known as the
A) palatine tonsil.
B) pharyngeal tonsil.
C) soft palate.
D) tongue.
E) uvula.

back 56

E) uvula.

front 57

57) The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity.
A) gingivae
B) pharyngeal
C) digestive
D) buccal
E) lingual

back 57

D) Buccal

front 58

58) The first teeth to appear are the ________ teeth.
A) provisional
B) transitory
C) transitional
D) temporary
E) deciduous

back 58

E) deciduous

front 59

59) There are normally a total of ________ deciduous teeth.
A) 18
B) 20
C) 25
D) 28
E) 32

back 59

B) 20

front 60

60) There are normally a total of ________ permanent teeth.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 28
D) 32
E) 34

back 60

D) 32

front 61

61) The technical term for chewing is
A) mastication.
B) deglutition.
C) peristalsis.
D) segmentation.
E) borborygmus.

back 61

A) mastication.

front 62

62) Which structure is not found in the oral cavity?
A) palatine tonsil
B) palatoglossal arch
C) conchae
D) gingivae
E) uvula

back 62

C) conchae

front 63

63) The oral mucosa in much of the oral cavity such as the roof of the mouth and the surface of
the tongue is comprised of ________ epithelium.
A) keratinized stratified squamous
B) nonkeratinized stratified squamous
C) keratinized simple squamous
D) nonkeratinized simple squamous
E) goblet cell

back 63

A) keratinized stratified squamous

front 64

64) The location of the palatine tonsil in the oral cavity is
A) under the tongue on both sides.
B) inferior to the lingual frenulum.
C) posterior to the raphe.
D) between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches.
E) superior to the uvula.

back 64

D) between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches.

front 65

65) Hillary could not suckle milk properly due to the inability to protrude her tongue. The
physician diagnosed her with
A) mumps.
B) gastritis.
C) diverticulitis.
D) glossopharyngitis.
E) ankyloglossia.

back 65

E) ankyloglossia.

front 66

66) Intrinsic and extrinsic movements of the tongue are controlled by the ________ cranial
nerves.
A) vagus
B) hypoglossal
C) facial
D) accessory
E) trochlear

back 66

B) hypoglossal

front 67

67) Which salivary gland produces a mucous rich secretion that acts as a buffer and lubricant?
A) parotid
B) sublingual
C) submandibular
D) lingual
E) palatine

back 67

B) sublingual

front 68

68) Each tooth is held in the alveolar socket by the
A) cement.
B) roots.
C) periodontal ligament.
D) alveolar tendon.
E) apical foramen.

back 68

C) periodontal ligament.

front 69

69) Which of the following is not a pharyngeal muscle involved in swallowing?
A) pharyngeal constrictor muscle
B) palatopharyngeus
C) stylopharyngeus
D) omohyoid
E) palatal

back 69

D) omohyoid

front 70

70) The epithelium lining the oropharynx is
A) simple squamous.
B) simple cuboidal.
C) simple columnar.
D) stratified squamous.
E) pseudostratified squamous.

back 70

D) stratified squamous.

front 71

71) Upon swallowing, food moves from the mouth directly into the
A) oral vestibule.
B) buccal cavity.
C) sublingual space.
D) oropharynx.
E) oral mucosae.

back 71

D) oropharynx.

front 72

72) The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the GI tract. These include
A) epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous.
B) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar.
C) muscularis externa has some skeletal muscle.
D) epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous and simple columnar.
E) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.

back 72

C) muscularis externa has some skeletal muscle.

front 73

73) During deglutition, which of the following phases is first?
A) buccal
B) pharyngeal
C) gastric
D) esophageal
E) enteric

back 73

A) buccal

front 74

74) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in
A) mastication.
B) moving the tongue.
C) swallowing.
D) esophageal peristalsis.
E) opening the cardiac sphincter.

back 74

C) swallowing.

front 75

75) Which of the following statements is not true of swallowing?
A) The buccal phase is a voluntary phase.
B) Breathing stops during the pharyngeal phase.
C) Primary peristaltic waves are controlled by the facial nerves.
D) Secondary peristaltic waves are needed if the bolus is dry.
E) The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to allow the bolus to enter the stomach.

back 75

C) Primary peristaltic waves are controlled by the facial nerves.

front 76

76) Functions of the stomach include all of the following except
A) storage of ingested food.
B) denaturation of proteins.
C) initiation of protein digestion.
D) absorption of triglycerides.
E) mechanical breakdown of food.

back 76

D) absorption of triglycerides.

front 77

77) Parietal cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) enteropeptidase.

back 77

D) hydrochloric acid.

front 78

78) Chief cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) intrinsic factor.

back 78

A) pepsinogen.

front 79

79) G cells of the stomach secrete
A) cholecystokinin.
B) secretin.
C) gastrin.
D) enteropeptidase.
E) pepsin.

back 79

C) gastrin.

front 80

80) To which region of the stomach does the esophagus connect?
A) fundus
B) cardia
C) body
D) antrum
E) pyloric part

back 80

B) cardia

front 81

81) The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the
A) body.
B) antrum.
C) pyloric part.
D) cardia.
E) fundus.

back 81

A) body.

front 82

82) The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the
A) antrum.
B) fundus.
C) body.
D) cardia.
E) pyloric part.

back 82

E) pyloric part.

front 83

83) The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called
A) cardia.
B) papillae.
C) rugae.
D) plicae.
E) villi.

back 83

C) rugae.

front 84

84) The stomach secretes the hormone ghrelin which functions to
A) inhibit hunger.
B) initiate secretion of gastric juice containing enzymes and acid.
C) regulate the digestion of lipids.
D) stimulate hunger.
E) stimulate secretion of mucus from submucosal glands.

back 84

D) stimulate hunger.

front 85

85) Gastric pits are
A) ridges in the body of the stomach.
B) involved in absorption of liquids from the stomach.
C) openings into gastric glands.
D) acid scars in the esophagus.
E) hollows where proteins are stored.

back 85

C) openings into gastric glands.

front 86

86) The enzyme pepsin digests
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) lipids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.

back 86

B) proteins.

front 87

87) An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that coagulates milk proteins is
A) pepsin.
B) trypsin.
C) gastrin.
D) rennin.
E) cholecystokinin.

back 87

D) rennin.

front 88

88) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term gastrin?
A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) causes gallbladder to contract
E) stimulates gastric secretion

back 88

E) stimulates gastric secretion

front 89

89) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion,
A) the stomach responds to distention.
B) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells.
C) CNS sensory or cognitive activation increases neural stimulation of the stomach.
D) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying.
E) the gastroileal reflex decreases production of gastric juice.

back 89

C) CNS sensory or cognitive activation increases neural stimulation of the stomach.

front 90

90) The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the
A) sight, thought, or smell of food.
B) entry of food into the stomach.
C) entry of chyme into the small intestine.
D) entry of chyme into the large intestine.
E) release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine.

back 90

B) entry of food into the stomach.

front 91

91) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion except that it
A) precedes the gastric phase.
B) functions to control the rate of gastric emptying.
C) involves both neural and endocrine reflexes.
D) helps ensure that the functions of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency.
E) begins when chyme enters the small intestine.

back 91

A) precedes the gastric phase.

front 92

92) Distension of the gastric wall leads to secretion of histamines from the lamina propria. This is an example of ________ response.
A) neural
B) local
C) muscular
D) hormonal
E) antagonistic

back 92

B) local

front 93

93) Mary had her stomach mostly removed to try to overcome obesity. As a result, you would expect Mary to be at risk for
A) protein malnutrition.
B) abnormal erythropoiesis.
C) diarrhea.
D) dehydration.
E) an ulcer.

back 93

B) abnormal erythropoiesis.

front 94

94) All of the following are true of the lining of the stomach except that it
A) has a simple columnar epithelium.
B) is covered by a thick, viscous mucus.
C) is constantly being replaced.
D) contains gastric pits.
E) recycles bile.

back 94

E) recycles bile.

front 95

95) The stomach is different from other digestive organs in that it
A) has folds in the mucosa.
B) has three layers of muscle in the muscularis externa.
C) secretes digestive juice.
D) moves by peristalsis.
E) secretes digestive hormones.

back 95

B) has three layers of muscle in the muscularis externa.

front 96

96) Match the gastric phase on the left (1-3) with the correct description on the right (4-6):
1. intestinal phase 4. prepares stomach for arrival of food
2. gastric phase 5. stomach empties and decreases secretions
3. cephalic phase 6. stomach secretes juice and mixes food into chyme
A) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6
B) 1 and 6; 2 and 4; 3 and 5
C) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6
D) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4

back 96

E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4

front 97

97) Put the following steps of stomach acid production in the correct order starting with the
reaction that requires an enzyme.
1. Carbonic acid dissociates.
2. Chloride ion combines with H+ in the gastric lumen.
3. Water and CO2 combine to form carbonic acid.
4. H+ and bicarbonate ion are transported into the gastric lumen.
5. Cl- diffuses into the gastric lumen.
A) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
C) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

back 97

E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

front 98

98) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in
A) a lower pH during gastric digestion.
B) a higher pH during gastric digestion.
C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells.
D) increased protein digestion in the stomach.
E) decreased gastrin production

back 98

B) a higher pH during gastric digestion.

front 99

99) D cells release ________, which inhibits the release of gastrin.
A) inhibin
B) ghrelin
C) leptin
D) somatostatin
E) pepsin

back 99

D) somatostatin

front 100

100) Which is not a reason the stomach is acidic?
A) Kills microorganisms.
B) Emulsification of lipids.
C) Denatures proteins.
D) Helps break down plant cell walls and connective tissue in meat.
E) Activates pepsin.

back 100

B) Emulsification of lipids.

front 101

101) Leptin is to satiety as ________ is to hunger.
A) Gastrin
B) Pepsin
C) Ghrelin
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin

back 101

C) Ghrelin

front 102

102) Which of the following is true regarding digestion and absorption in the stomach?
A) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach.
B) Small proteins can be absorbed with the help of pepsin.
C) Lipid digestion begins in the stomach.
D) Protein digestion begins in the stomach.
E) Digestion is complete after chyme moves out of the stomach.

back 102

D) Protein digestion begins in the stomach.

front 103

103) Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of gastric activity?
A) submucosal neural plexus
B) myenteric plexus
C) vagus nerve
D) CNS
E) hypoglossal nerve

back 103

E) hypoglossal nerve

front 104

104) Stimulation of gastric stretch receptors causes all of the following except
A) a decrease in myenteric plexus stimulation.
B) an increase in histamine release.
C) an increase in gastrin secretion.
D) an increase in submucosal neural plexus stimulation.
E) an increase in acid production.

back 104

A) a decrease in myenteric plexus stimulation.

front 105

113) The fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the
A) hepatic portal vein.
B) porta hepatis.
C) bile duct.
D) common pancreatic duct.
E) bile canaliculus.

back 105

C) bile duct.

front 106

114) In the center of a liver lobule there is a
A) hepatic duct.
B) portal area.
C) sinusoid.
D) central vein.
E) portal vein.

back 106

D) central vein.

front 107

115) The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of
A) islets of Langerhans.
B) pancreatic crypts.
C) pancreatic acini.
D) pancreatic lobules.
E) triads.

back 107

C) pancreatic acini.

front 108

116) Each of the following is a function of the liver except
A) synthesis and secretion of bile.
B) antibody production.
C) synthesis of plasma proteins.
D) inactivation of toxins.
E) storage of glycogen and iron reserves.

back 108

B) antibody production.

front 109

117) The basic functional units of the liver are the
A) hepatocytes.
B) stellate macrophages.
C) lobules.
D) portal areas.
E) bile canaliculi.

back 109

C) lobules.

front 110

118) ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of irregular plates
converging toward a central vein.
A) Stellate macrophages
B) Hepatocytes
C) Bile canaliculi
D) Portal areas
E) Hepatic ducts

back 110

B) Hepatocytes

front 111

119) The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the
A) lesser omentum.
B) greater omentum.
C) falciform ligament.
D) ligamentum teres.
E) hepatic ligament.

back 111

C) falciform ligament.

front 112

120) Bile is stored in the
A) liver.
B) duodenum.
C) pancreas.
D) gallbladder.
E) appendix.

back 112

D) gallbladder.

front 113

121) A proenzyme secreted by the pancreas is
A) trypsinogen.
B) amylase.
C) carboxypeptidase.
D) lipase.
E) bile

back 113

A) trypsinogen.

front 114

122) Which of the following has an association with the fetal umbilical vein?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm

back 114

A) falciform ligament

front 115

123) Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad found at the edges of a liver lobule?
A) hepatic artery
B) bile duct
C) central vein
D) hepatic portal vein

back 115

C) central vein

front 116

124) Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of
A) proteins.
B) fats.
C) disaccharides.
D) complex carbohydrates.
E) vitamins.

back 116

B) fats.

front 117

125) The essential functions of the liver include all of the following except
A) metabolic regulation.
B) hematological regulation.
C) bile production.
D) albumin production for blood osmotic pressure.
E) hormonal regulation.

back 117

E) hormonal regulation.

front 118

126) Match the proenzyme on the left (1-3) with the correct enzyme activator on the right (4-6).
1. pepsinogen 4. enteropeptidase
2. trypsinogen 5. hydrochloric acid
3. procarboxypeptidase 6. trypsin
A) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4
B) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6
C) 1 and 4; 2 and 6; 3 and 5
D) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4
E) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6

back 118

E) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6

front 119

127) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would affect all of the following except
A) relaxation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter.
B) the composition of pancreatic secretions.
C) the delivery of bile.
D) digestion of lipids and proteins.
E) absorption of water in the large intestines.

back 119

E) absorption of water in the large intestines.

front 120

128) An obstruction of the bile duct often results in
A) undigested fat in the feces.
B) a decrease in production of pancreatic juice.
C) inability to digest protein.
D) cirrhosis of the liver.
E) hepatitis.

back 120

A) undigested fat in the feces.

front 121

129) If the pancreatic duct was obstructed, you would expect to see elevated blood levels of
A) bilirubin.
B) amylase.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) secretin.
E) gastrin.

back 121

B) amylase.

front 122

130) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would
you expect to observe in Tom?
A) jaundice
B) elevated levels of blood glucose
C) impaired digestion of protein
D) blood in the feces
E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin

back 122

A) jaundice

front 123

131) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in bicarbonate ion.
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that contains only amylase.

back 123

B) rich in bicarbonate ion.

front 124

132) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in bicarbonate.
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that contains only amylase.

back 124

A) rich in enzymes.

front 125

133) Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by connective tissue. Which of the following signs would you not expect to observe in Tony?
A) increased clotting time
B) jaundice
C) portal hypertension and ascites
D) decrease in plasma protein production
E) impaired erythropoiesis

back 125

E) impaired erythropoiesis

front 126

134) Bile salts aid in the digestion of fats by ________ large fat droplets.
A) dehydrating
B) anabolizing
C) binding
D) combining
E) emulsifying

back 126

E) emulsifying

front 127

135) Your patient with liver failure has a firm, rounded abdomen due to accumulation of fluid.
This is known clinically as
A) hepatitis C.
B) ascites.
C) hepatitis B.
D) cirrhosis.
E) gastritis.

back 127

B) ascites.

front 128

136) Pancreatic juice enters the small intestine at the
A) hepatic duct.
B) ileocecal valve.
C) duodenal papilla.
D) pyloric sphincter.
E) cystic duct.

back 128

C) duodenal papilla.

front 129

137) Identify the incorrect pairing.
A) gallbladder; stores bile
B) esophagus; transports material to stomach
C) pancreas; secretes amylases
D) liver; produces intrinsic factor
E) stomach; has an alkaline lining

back 129

D) liver; produces intrinsic factor

front 130

138) A blood clot blocking flow through the liver might cause
A) gallstones.
B) cirrhosis.
C) portal hypertension.
D) jaundice.
E) hepatitis C.

back 130

C) portal hypertension.

front 131

139) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term pancreatic juice?
A) produced by endocrine tissue
B) produced by pancreatic islets
C) rich in bile
D) rich in insulin and glucagon produced by pancreatic islets
E) alkaline mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells

back 131

E) alkaline mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells

front 132

140) Which of the following enzymes is not produced by the pancreas?
A) alpha-amylase
B) rennin
C) lipase
D) nucleases
E) peptidases

back 132

B) rennin

front 133

141) Which is not true of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas.
B) The majority are proteases.
C) Most are secreted as proenzymes.
D) They digest carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E) They are produced by exocrine tissue.

back 133

A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas.

front 134

142) Which of the following is not a lobe of the liver?
A) left
B) right
C) quadrate
D) caudate
E) sigmoid

back 134

E) sigmoid

front 135

143) Inflammation of the gallbladder is termed
A) cirrhosis.
B) hepatitis.
C) gastritis.
D) cystitis.
E) cholecystitis.

back 135

E) cholecystitis.

front 136

144) Circular folds and intestinal villi
A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries.
C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) secrete digestive enzymes.
E) produce hormones.

back 136

A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.

front 137

145) Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the
A) duodenum.
B) jejunum.
C) ileum.
D) pancreas.
E) liver.

back 137

A) duodenum.

front 138

146) The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the
A) duodenum and the jejunum.
B) duodenum and the pylorus.
C) bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
D) duodenum and the pancreatic duct.
E) duodenum and the bile duct.

back 138

C) bile duct and the pancreatic duct.

front 139

147) The villi are most developed in the
A) stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) gallbladder.
E) cecum.

back 139

C) jejunum.

front 140

148) Peyer's patches are characteristic of the
A) stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) ileum.
E) colon.

back 140

D) ileum.

front 141

149) All of the following enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine except
A) the circular folds.
B) the villi.
C) the microvilli.
D) intestinal movements.
E) rugae.

back 141

E) rugae.

front 142

150) The middle segment of the small intestine is the
A) ileum.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) pylorus.
E) cecum.

back 142

C) jejunum.

front 143

151) The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the
A) haustrum.
B) appendix.
C) ileum.
D) duodenum.
E) jejunum.

back 143

C) ileum.

front 144

152) Circular folds are
A) ridges in the wall of the stomach.
B) pleats in the lining of the small intestine.
C) fingerlike projections on the surface of the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) sacculations in the colon.
E) abnormal structures formed by excessive pressure in the small intestine.

back 144

B) pleats in the lining of the small intestine.

front 145

153) An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucin production by the submucosal duodenal glands is
A) secretin.
B) cholecystokinin.
C) enterocrinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.

back 145

C) enterocrinin.

front 146

154) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich
fluid is
A) enterocrinin.
B) secretin.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.

back 146

B) secretin.

front 147

155) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is
A) enterocrinin.
B) enteropeptidase.
C) secretin.
D) cholecystokinin.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).

back 147

E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).

front 148

156) An intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion is
A) secretin.
B) cholecystokinin.
C) enteropeptidase.
D) gastrin.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).

back 148

D) gastrin.

front 149

157) The gastroileal reflex
A) empties the duodenum.
B) promotes gastric secretion.
C) decreases peristaltic activity.
D) moves some chyme to the colon.
E) is relayed through the CNS.

back 149

D) moves some chyme to the colon.

front 150

158) A surgical procedure to promote rapid weight loss is removal of most of the
A) pancreas.
B) liver.
C) duodenum.
D) jejunum.
E) ileum.

back 150

D) jejunum.

front 151

159) The part of the small intestine most likely to develop an ulcer from exposure to gastric juice is the
A) pylorus.
B) duodenum.
C) ileum.
D) cecum.
E) jejunum.

back 151

B) duodenum.

front 152

160) In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum, the
A) blood levels of secretin rise.
B) blood levels of cholecystokinin fall.
C) blood levels of gastrin rise.
D) blood levels of enterocrinin fall.
E) liver releases enzymes for chemical digestion.

back 152

A) blood levels of secretin rise.

front 153

161) Hydrochloric acid from the stomach is neutralized in the small intestine by
A) water that was ingested with the food.
B) bicarbonate from the pancreas.
C) trypsin.
D) bile from the liver.
E) enzymes from the intestinal crypts.

back 153

B) bicarbonate from the pancreas.

front 154

162) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term cholecystokinin (CCK)?
A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) causes gallbladder to contract
E) stimulates gastric secretion

back 154

D) causes gallbladder to contract

front 155

163) The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the
A) large intestines.
B) cecum.
C) small intestines.
D) stomach.
E) colon.

back 155

C) small intestines.

front 156

164) Place the following structures in order as food passes into them.
1. cecum
2. duodenum
3. ileum
4. jejunum
5. stomach
A) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

back 156

E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

front 157

165) Brush border enzymes are found in the
A) circular folds.
B) villi.
C) microvilli.
D) plicae circularis.
E) rugae.

back 157

C) microvilli.

front 158

166) Which of the following is true regarding the production of intestinal juice?
A) Most of the fluid is actively transported into the lumen.
B) The pancreas is the source for most of the intestinal juice.
C) Intestinal juice is produced following activation by motilin.
D) Local reflexes and parasympathetic stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice.
E) The cephalic phase of gastric secretion produces intestinal juice.

back 158

D) Local reflexes and parasympathetic stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice.

front 159

167) Motility in the small intestines is controlled in part by all of the following except
A) VIP.
B) motilin.
C) vagus nerve.
D) myenteric reflexes.
E) gastroenteric reflexes.

back 159

A) VIP.

front 160

168) Which reflex is stimulated by stretch receptors in the stomach to increase motility and
secretions along the small intestines?
A) cephalic reflex
B) gastroileal reflex
C) enterogastric reflex
D) gastrocolic reflex
E) gastroenteric reflex

back 160

E) gastroenteric reflex

front 161

177) Powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular movements.
C) haustral churning.
D) defecation.
E) mass movements.

back 161

E) mass movements.

front 162

178) Functions of the large intestine include
A) absorption of bile salts.
B) secretion of vitamins.
C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces.
D) production of gas to move waste toward the rectum.
E) most of the chemical breakdown of food.

back 162

C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces.

front 163

179) At the hepatic flexure, the colon becomes the
A) ascending colon.
B) transverse colon.
C) descending colon.
D) sigmoid colon.
E) rectum.

back 163

B) transverse colon.

front 164

180) Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the
A) anus.
B) anal canal.
C) rectum.
D) sigmoid colon.
E) rectal column.

back 164

C) rectum.

front 165

181) Haustra are
A) expansible pouches of the colon.
B) strips of muscle in the colon.
C) glands in the large intestine that secrete mucus.
D) the source of colon hormones.
E) compact feces stored in the rectum.

back 165

A) expansible pouches of the colon.

front 166

182) The teniae coli are
A) tears of the colon.
B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall.
C) ridges in the mucosa of the colon.
D) polyps that obstruct the sigmoid colon.
E) tumors normally confined in the sigmoid colon.

back 166

B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall.

front 167

183) At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the
A) ascending colon.
B) transverse colon.
C) descending colon.
D) sigmoid colon.
E) rectum.

back 167

C) descending colon.

front 168

184) The pouchlike structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the
A) appendix.
B) sigmoid colon.
C) rectum.
D) haustra.
E) cecum.

back 168

E) cecum.

front 169

185) A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the
A) haustra.
B) pancreas.
C) gallbladder.
D) appendix.
E) ileum.

back 169

D) appendix.

front 170

186) The defecation reflex involves
A) sympathetic nerves.
B) relaxation of both the internal and external anal sphincters.
C) conscious control of both the internal and external anal sphincters.
D) relaxation of the ileocecal valve to move feces into the rectum.
E) parasympathetic nerve control from sacral nerves.

back 170

B) relaxation of both the internal and external anal sphincters.

front 171

187) Which is not part of the large intestine?
A) cecum
B) sigmoid colon
C) ileum
D) transverse colon
E) rectum

back 171

C) ileum

front 172

188) Which of these digestive structures is not necessary for life?
A) stomach
B) small intestines
C) colon
D) liver
E) pancreas

back 172

C) colon

front 173

189) Which of the following is not found in the large intestines?
A) villi
B) intestinal crypts
C) intestinal glands
D) mucous cells
E) simple columnar epithelium

back 173

A) villi

front 174

190) The enzyme amylase digests
A) peptides.
B) polysaccharides.
C) disaccharides.
D) triglycerides.
E) nucleotides.

back 174

B) polysaccharides.

front 175

191) An enzyme that digests proteins into peptides is
A) lipase.
B) amylase.
C) nuclease.
D) maltase.
E) trypsin.

back 175

E) trypsin.

front 176

192) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the
A) mouth.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach
D) duodenum.
E) ileum.

back 176

A) mouth.

front 177

193) If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of glucose and galactose, this carbohydrate is probably
A) sucrose.
B) maltose.
C) lactose.
D) cellulose.
E) glycogen.

back 177

C) lactose.

front 178

194) Which of the following is false concerning the process known as cotransport?
A) Only neutral compounds such as sugars are transported.
B) More than one molecule or ion is moved through the cell membrane at one time.
C) ATP is not required by the transport protein.
D) Molecules can be moved against a concentration gradient.
E) Molecules are moved in the same direction.

back 178

A) Only neutral compounds such as sugars are transported.

front 179

195) Products of fat digestion are transported initially by
A) capillaries.
B) veins.
C) lymphatic vessels.
D) the interstitial fluid.
E) the arterioles.

back 179

C) lymphatic vessels.

front 180

196) The absorption of some sugars in the small intestine involves
A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C) cotransport.
D) phagocytosis.
E) pinocytosis.

back 180

C) cotransport.

front 181

197) Absorption of glucose from the gut lumen depends on all of the following except
A) the sodium-potassium pump in the basolateral membrane of the epithelial cell.
B) cotransporter proteins in the apical membrane of the epithelial cell.
C) higher sodium ion concentration in the lumen than in the epithelial cell.
D) sodium-linked cotransport.
E) emulsification forming small micelles.

back 181

E) emulsification forming small micelles.

front 182

198) Which of the following is true regarding lactose intolerance?
A) The stomach produces inadequate amounts of lactase.
B) Lactose-intolerant infants cannot digest dairy fat and are at risk of starvation.
C) The person cannot digest any type of monosaccharide.
D) The intestinal crypts are not producing the enzyme lactase.
E) The enzyme maltase begins to digest lactose.

back 182

D) The intestinal crypts are not producing the enzyme lactase.

front 183

199) Sucrose is hydrolyzed by sucrase into glucose and
A) glucose.
B) lactose.
C) fructose.
D) maltose.
E) galactose.

back 183

C) fructose.

front 184

200) Complexes of fatty acids, monoglycerides, and bile salts are called
A) chylomicrons.
B) countertransporters.
C) vesicles.
D) micelles.
E) varicosities.

back 184

D) micelles.

front 185

201) Triglycerides, steroids, phospholipids and fat-soluble vitamins that are coated with proteins are called
A) lacteals.
B) chylomicrons.
C) vesicles.
D) micelles.
E) bile salts.

back 185

B) chylomicrons.

front 186

202) Chemical protein digestion begins in the
A) mouth.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) duodenum.
E) cecum.

back 186

C) stomach.

front 187

203) Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme?
A) amylase
B) lipase
C) bile
D) pepsin
E) trypsin

back 187

C) bile

front 188

2) Which type of salivary glands produces glycoproteins called mucins? (Figure 24-9)
A) parotid
B) submandibular
C) sublingual
D) buccal
E) lingual

back 188

B) submandibular

front 189

3) Name the region of the stomach that connects to the esophagus. (Figure 24-12)
A) cardia
B) body
C) fundus
D) pyloric part
E) duodenum

back 189

A) cardia

front 190

4) Chyme in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of what hormones in the digestive tract?
(Figure 24-23)
A) Gastrin and leptin
B) VIP and GIP
C) Gastrin and GIP
D) Leptin and Ghrelin
E) GIP, VIP, CCK, and secretin

back 190

E) GIP, VIP, CCK, and secretin

front 191

5) What stimulates stretch receptors in the rectum? (Figure 24-26)
A) release of mucus into the rectum
B) gastrin release by the stomach
C) a high water content in the feces
D) feces causing distension in the rectum
E) high concentrations of urobilins and stercobilins in the feces

back 191

D) feces causing distension in the rectum