cdcs
(001) What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty.
2. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
directing policy and guidance for career field
The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and
perspectives
To be eligible for the Logistics Career Broadening Program, you must be a technical sergeant or master sergeant with less than how many years of time-in-service?
15
What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?
defense logistics agency (DLA) and AFMC
Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
one: enterprise view
In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) Integrated Processes, which is not a resource?
technology
Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all government agencies?
general services administration (GSA)
Local manufacture is a term that describes an item
fabricated by a maintenance activity on base
Which section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?
centralized repair facility (CRF)
Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?
decentralized materiel support (DMS)
Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back ordered parts in accordance with AFI 21–101?
decentralized materiel support (DMS)
Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process?
AFI 20-117 and AFMAN 20-118
(005) What best describes supply Class I items?
subsistence
(005) Which class of supply includes weapons?
2
(005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
5
What best describes supply Class III items?
petroleum, oil, and lubricants. (POL)
What best describes supply Class VI items?
personal demand items
Which class of supply consists of major end items?
7
Which class of supply consists of medical materiel?
8
What best describes supply Class X items?
material to support nonmilitary programs
What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?
supply-chain operations reference (SCOR)
Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities?
air force sustainment center
The Air Force Sustainment Center’s (AFSC) mission is to
sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America
How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of the Air Force Installation & Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)?
6
Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
miscellaneous file maintenance
Which type of reports provide information about the overall management of the supply system?
daily
Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication implements requirements and procedures for materiel managers and others who work within the supply system?
4140.01,DOD supply chain materiel management procedures
The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management Standards, does not pertain to which functional area?
safety
What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices?
defense logistics management standards
Which key on a keyboard do you press after typing in a word or phrase using the Find tool for research?
enter
What two entities make up the national stock number (NSN)?
federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN
How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management system?
4
Which code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain specific information?
record retrieval
Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?
4
What information prints out after processing an item record inquiry?
data element names
What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
R
Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as
one year or more
Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the national stock number (NSN) and transaction date?
stock number
Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records?
flight chief
Which chapter in Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23–123, Materiel Management Handbook, Volume 2, Part 2, identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system’s rejects created during processing?
seven
What letters, preceding the management code and phrase, readily identifies management notices?
MGT
Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?
D818
What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program?
D20
Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reasons only?
flight chief
Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?
terminal security monitors
Who is responsible for reviewing Part 8 of the D20 when an unauthorized user attempts to process a controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC)?
logistics manager
The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received?
15th
The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best describes the
supply management activity group-retail (SMAG-R)
When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer’s funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created?
revolving
Which is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)?
air force working capital fund (AFWCF)
Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment Activity Group-Supply (CSAG-S)?
`wholesale-managed items
The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program, or equipment and system that is not compliant with
standards
Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program?
quality assurance
Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits?
logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership
When the materiel management system does not process or update transactions as it should, which Air Force form is used to report the problem?
1815, difficulty report (DIREP) worksheet
Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management –retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports?
quality assurance
A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected
in the next scheduled release
Which analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?
trend analysis
Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?
special studies
Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management?
training
What section of the materiel management analysis program is tasked with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account’s effectiveness?
quality assurance
What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts?
analysis
Which is not an example of a source document?
reports
Which is not required when comparing information between the document control record (DCR) and source document?
nomenclature
How often does document control perform a validation of who is authorized to receipt for classified property?
semiannually
What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?
source documents with file indicator D
How long are transactions retained when documents are processed through the materiel management automated tracking system?
75 month
When does a document become delinquent after processing the information from the document control record (DCR) document?
6th calendar day
How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss document delinquent status?
daily
Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)?
consolidated transaction (M 19)
Which materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
daily document control
The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?
D04 and D06
What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?
ensure an item has been shipped
All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail?
shipment-suspense or shipped not credited
Which transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?
SSC
Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
R40
Which transaction identification code is used for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction?
1AM
What information is required to process an automated reverse-post (RVP) input?
transaction serial number, TTPC, and date
The materiel management system uses which issue request code to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?
.Transaction identification code (TRIC).
What one-position alpha code is used to indicate how the materiel management system accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control?
Demand code
Organizations may identify their issue requests to base supply using either a
stock number or part number
What letter is entered in position 8 on the AF Form 2005 for a part number request?
P
What is the next step in the ordering process after gathering and documenting data on the AF Form 2005?
enter data into materiel management system
What may be produced after processing an order request that notifies further actions are required?
management notice
Which management notice is the result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?
I004
An I007 management notice is produced when a
part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control
What transaction exception code is used to reprocess an issue request when the customer requests a backorder?
M
Which base-wide organization uses the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) to interface with materiel management system?
maintenance
What materiel management system output notifies the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) of changes in due-out status?
1SH
When the materiel management system detects an Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) transaction error, the image is
returned to IMDS CDB
What Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) entity is responsible for mission capable (MICAP) management?
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA).
When spares support is required, the Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA) is the primary interface for the
LRS
What response is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply when assets are immediately available?
positive status
Who confirms an end-item is not mission capable and verifies all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP request?
Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) base level
Who will the aircraft parts store (APS) or customer support liaison contact to verify a mission capable (MICAP) condition exists?
.Maintenance production superintendent
What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement?
Status.
What mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) code identifies the reason for terminating a MICAP condition?
Delete.
What is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a mission capability (MICAP) condition and allow MICAP reporting to be initiated?
Due-in.
What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting?
Upgrade.
What output is produced to report the applicable change of a mission capable (MICAP) condition each time transaction NOR is processed?
MICAP report (B9*).
Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination?
90
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to end the repair cycle process?
TIn
Which activity is responsible for providing repair cycle support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail?
maintenance
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record?
DFM
Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?
D23
What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities?
Ensure maintenance activities physically have all the DIFM items.
Within how many duty days from the date of issue will a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair be returned to the LRS?
4
How are time compliance technical order (TCTO) items identified on the item record?
numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4
What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function?
.DD Form 1574 (Yellow tag)
What is entered in the “remarks” block of the DD Form 1574 (yellow tag)?
Time compliance technical order (TCTO) number.
What code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM item indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and logistics readiness squadron (LRS)/materiel management activity?
.Action taken.
Which action taken code indicates an item is condemned?
9
What will the materiel management information technology system scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in as serviceable?
due-out
Where are serviceable condition returns forwarded after a “notice to stock” document is received?
appropriate storage facility
What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level?
shipment document
Time change assets are replaced on what type of schedule?
Calendar or hourly
Who appoints the time change manager?
Materiel management flight chief or equivalent.
Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by
Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC).
Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record?
Turnaround.
Where does Supply obtain data used to process turnaround transactions?
.Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.
Which management notice is produced reflecting stock awaiting disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process?
.I012
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received?
ISU
Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used?
LRS
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete supply point details?
FSP
Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation?
Q13
What transaction identifier code (TRIC) is processed when the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation?
ISU
Who will continuously monitor requirements supporting Air Force war plans and ensure the validity of all war reserve materiel (WRM) requirements?
MAJCOMs.
Who is responsible for physical materiel handling, receiving, storing, and processing of war reserve materiel (WRM) shipment requests?
Bases
Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed to a bare base location?
Initial flightline.
Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support flight operations and maintenance needs for a second and subsequent squadrons deployed to an austere base?
Follow-on flightline.
Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary?
60
Who will authorize allocation of readiness spares packages (RSP) to specific units/bases?
MAJCOM
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations?
1EB
In the master file, what format is readiness spares package (RSP) data authorization input records received from the major command (MAJCOM)?
XVF
What program performs the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation?
S05
What process involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets?
Care of supplies in storage (COSIS).
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets to users?
MSI.
What asset status flag reflects mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed?
D
The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability rests with the host and the
gaining major command (MAJCOM).
What transaction identification code (TRIC) do you use to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability?
1WD.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer assets between mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP) and war reserve materiel (WRM) detail records?
1KT.
What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM) detail record?
M
Which current listing/listings must be obtained prior to shipping out readiness spares package (RSP) assets?
R43 and/or R52.
What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments?
Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM).
What system is used to access the War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)?
Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability (LOGFAC).
Which listing provides a management product for special spares authorizations, assets, and products?
Special Spares Report (R34).
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is structured and executed under three principles transparency, predictability, and
equitability.
Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a materiel management unit type code (UTC)?
JFB
What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls?
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code (UTC) Reporting Tool (ART).
What code reflected in the operation plan (OPLAN) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and/or amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?
Unit type code (UTC).
What was established as the sole readiness reporting system for the Department of Defense?
Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).
What section stores small arms for mobility use?
.Individual protective equipment element.
What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?
serial
What Air Force (AF) Form will requesting individuals provide prior to being issued a weapon?
AF form 522
Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location?
.Accountable officer (AO) or commander.
At a minimum, how often are mobility assets inventoried?
.Annually.
Who performs warehouse validations prior to inventorying mobility assets?
Individual protective equipment personnel.
Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment?
B
Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains chemical warfare defense equipment?
C
What is available to allow Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel to put away, redistribute, ship, and mange shipment discrepancies within Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?
.Mobility dashboards.
Shelf life assets are tracked in ES-S Mobility by
Contract/lot number
What is used to determine bulk stock requirements and are the basis for placing mobility stock orders based on mission support requirements?
Mobility shopping list.
Which function in Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to view and update customer information and manage assets currently in possession by customers?
Issue items.
Which capability gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to check stock availability that is either on hand in mobility warehouse locations or in the possession of mobility customers?
.Mobility data query.
What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?
Electronic data interchange personal identifier (EDIPI).
What does Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility asset management programmatically search for and detect in relation to gas masks?
Expired service life dates
Where are the equipment requests forwarded after being reviewed and validated by the equipment accountability element (EAE)?
AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity
The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between the
equipment accountability element (EAE) and organization commanders.
What is used to determine which equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain?
.AS and configuration data
Which item describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force activities and individuals normally require to carry out their mission?
Allowance standards (AS).
What element within an allowance standard (AS) establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization?
.BOI.
Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies nonequipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) equipment items?
.NF1.
Which Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standard (AS) or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code (ASC)?
601.
Which Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) computer screen provides an automated method for submitting and evaluating allowance change requests?
TACR
Which FCI format within the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) is used to load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details?
1
Which turn-in method to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) is used to process the turnin before picking up the property?
Pre-degraded operations.
Which activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data (nonEAID) equipment turn-ins to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)?
P
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?
FET.
Which management listing helps ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?
Allowance source code (ASC) listing.
Which management listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?
Q10.
Which management listing provides visibility for high dollar value non-equipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) items?
R15, Organizational visibility listing
Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns?
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
Who mandated the Item Unique Identification (IUID) compliance process for equipment assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000?
Department of Defense (DOD).
Equipment accountability element (EAE) personnel use which method to conduct physical inventories?
Floor to book.
Who ensures chief financial officer (CFO) data is loaded in the applicable Materiel Management information technology system?
Equipment accountability element (EAE).
Which system is used to report any equipment item exceeding $100,000?
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset categories are defined in the –21 technical order (TO)?
Maintenance and safety protection (MSP) equipment, AME, and CPS equipment.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?
1XA.
Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?
. R25.
How often must you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner Robins Air Logistics Complex (WR-ALC)?
annually
Who works hand-in-hand with the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) to support mission requirements?
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity.
Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate for the current and past four quarters?
. Average percent of base repair (PBR).
What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?
Requisition objective (RO).
Which stock leveling term identifies quantities required to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or unpredictable increases in demands?
. Safety level quantity (SLQ).
What must be established anytime stock is authorized for nonexpendable (equipment) items?
adjustment level
When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?
A
Which type of adjusted stock level (ASL) is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns?
Fixed
Which materiel management system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels (ASL)?
r35
Which stock level is derived from a mathematical technique used to determine the lowest total variable costs to order and hold inventory?
Economic order quantity (EOQ).
Which materiel management system listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation?
R47.
Which technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and locate assets?
.Radio frequency identification (RFID).
What process has the overall goal to have the capability to provide users with timely and accurate information on the location, movement, status, and identity of units, personnel, equipment, materiel, and supplies?
Total asset visibility (TAV).
What document identification code (DIC) indicates a denial to a redistribution order (RDO) sent by Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item managers (IM)?
B7*.
Which shipment exception (SEX) code is used for do not ship—assets frozen?
1
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a special requisition (SPR)?
SPR
Program control uses which system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?
Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).
Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned?
Requisitioning activity
What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition?
.Address code.
How often are requisition exception (REX) codes reviewed and validated?
Semiannually.
Which requisition exception (REX) code is assigned under program control due to military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status?
1.
Which code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply (SOS) has cancelled a requisition?
REX1
Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?
Exception/other.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to request an improved estimated availability date or estimated shipment date for priority 01–08 requisitions?
AFC
What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition?
C
Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items is reported on Air Force Form
1667
Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many calendar days?
7
Which listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?
.D18 and R01.
How often are urgency of need (UND) C due-outs validated?
monthly
Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on retail materiel management system due-in details?
Due-in/due-out (DIT).
What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by off-line action?
ZC
How many days will local purchase (LP) items appear on the listing after the vendor bill is received and processed for billed-not-received (BNR) transactions?
7
Which detail is created by the materiel management system whenever a referral order is honored and a credit is given to the shipping base?
shipped not credited
Which interactive query screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) provides the option to select more or less information to include in a search?
Search Selection Menu.
Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) allows users to locate manufacturer names for the code entered?
CAGE
Which system provides Air Force personnel with on-line cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management data for Air Force-managed or user items?
D043A
Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPB) are normally identified and published in
–4 series of technical orders (TO).
Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the IPB
Group assembly parts list
The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL input establishes what type of record(s)?
Repair cycle and constant records.
An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator?
X
What transaction identification code (TRIC) establishes the part number record?
FIC or 1AA
What purpose does the part number detail record serve?
Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file.
What noncataloged (NC) number position indicates which Air Logistics Complex (ALC) assigned the number?
position 7
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change the stock number; expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD), equipment management code (EMC), routing identifier (RID), and budget code on the item record?
FCU
What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record?
32
For internal records, what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields?
FID
What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG) information?
D043B
Which code identifies the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution grouping (I&SG) are substituted or issued?
order of use
What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items?
FIS
Who must justify in writing the request to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items?
Major command
Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?
Production date.
Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on the assets?
Inspector
Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated the form?
B
Which operation includes verifying identity, security classification, condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property?
Inspection operations
Who is responsible for overseeing the Care of Supplies in Storage (COSIS) program?
Chief inspector
What three things are used to identify an item?
Reference number, stock number, and item description.
Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?
DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.
Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?
Updates inspection data.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?
FCC
An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
customer failed to cancel the due-out.
Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program of all items in storage?
Inspector
When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required?
Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments
Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?
Major command (MAJCOM).
(608) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?
Between 32 and 50°F.
At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other facilities?
50
What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE).
The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
storage space
What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?
Storage areas.
When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what storage factor?
Item quantity
What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?
D
Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
left to right and front to rear
What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?
*
What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?
Bar-coded labels.
Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
10
How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse location parameter input prepared?
1
What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a warehouse is in the best condition for an inventory?
Prepare the warehouse area.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location?
. FCS.
The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called
honeycombing.
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be
obliterated.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?
FIC
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to manually transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?
TRM
What routing identifier code (RIC) is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?
JBR
What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product?
Safety data sheet (SDS).
As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception (IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned?
Monthly
Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of
100°F.
What type of material storage is best used for items such as pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?
Low hazard
When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?
. FCC.
Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
Two
Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?
Producing organization
Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and confidential materiel?
B
Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP?
Materiel management flight chief inspector.
Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility?
Department of Defense (DOD) activity
As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be changed for classified storage?
Annually
How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record?
Type cargo code 3.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?
MSI, C.
If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package?
Materiel management inspector
What markings on an item provides proof that a functional check was done?
. Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature.
As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced?
. Semiannually
What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonextendable shelf-life?
Type I.
How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?
15 to 45
What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?
FCD with suspect flag S.
What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materiel was procured to prevent reoccurrence?
Risk-based approach
Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel?
Joint Discrepancy Reporting System.
The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,
model, and manufacturer’s name
At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes?
Daily
The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count
begins.
Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory?
Accountable officer
When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the
physical count quantity.
When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?
Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).
What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file?
Annotated 1GP notice.
An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than
$100.
To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount image contains a research indicator of
. AR.
At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed?
Monthly.
Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the inventory analysis?
M10.
Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in?
Maintenance personnel.
Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property?
Report of survey.
Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept custodial responsibility for government property under their control?
Property custodian.
Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve, protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and supplies for operational requirements?
Supply discipline
The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be
XB3.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the initial master bench stock details?
2BS.
Once the date of last demand has exceeded how many days are bench stock items recommended for deletion?
270.
Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks?
M04
How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?
Annually
Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel?
Least handling is the best handling
Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation?
Advanced planning.
What can increase productivity and utilization of warehouse space in addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety?
Storage aids systems
Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?
10
Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible?
Palletize.
Which element within the logistic readiness squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons?
Mobility.
What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?
Sensitive items.
Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled material is done according to
AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program
Who is responsible for training logistics readiness squadron (LRS) personnel who will handle controlled materiel?
Chief inspector.
Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items?
Security manager.
What color of ink is used to stamp or write “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items?
Red
Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements?
Item manager
Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?
. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team
What item must be loaded in the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES-S) system for all individuals who receive parts from the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)?
Customer record
Which report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets?
Items Not Received by Customer
The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility (EVA) component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force
owned assets
What legacy systems can the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S) query and view orders in?
Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K
In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three main areas of the Order Selection Page?
Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC
What type of audits does the Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information for?
Internal and external.
What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel?
. Stock control system (SCS).
Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user?
TRACKER
Which supports repair execution and item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?
Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.
The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?
24
How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before they are deleted?
10 days
How can users request access to the logistics, installations & mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)?
Via the Air Force Portal