front 1 (001) What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)? | back 1 b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty. |
front 2 2. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for | back 2 directing policy and guidance for career field |
front 3 The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and | back 3 perspectives |
front 4 To be eligible for the Logistics Career Broadening Program, you must be a technical sergeant or master sergeant with less than how many years of time-in-service? | back 4 15 |
front 5 What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)? | back 5 defense logistics agency (DLA) and AFMC |
front 6 Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force? | back 6 one: enterprise view |
front 7 In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) Integrated Processes, which is not a resource? | back 7 technology |
front 8 Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all government agencies? | back 8 general services administration (GSA) |
front 9 Local manufacture is a term that describes an item | back 9 fabricated by a maintenance activity on base |
front 10 Which section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility? | back 10 centralized repair facility (CRF) |
front 11 Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers? | back 11 decentralized materiel support (DMS) |
front 12 Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back ordered parts in accordance with AFI 21–101? | back 12 decentralized materiel support (DMS) |
front 13 Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process? | back 13 AFI 20-117 and AFMAN 20-118 |
front 14 (005) What best describes supply Class I items? | back 14 subsistence |
front 15 (005) Which class of supply includes weapons? | back 15 2 |
front 16 (005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition? | back 16 5 |
front 17 What best describes supply Class III items? | back 17 petroleum, oil, and lubricants. (POL) |
front 18 What best describes supply Class VI items? | back 18 personal demand items |
front 19 Which class of supply consists of major end items? | back 19 7 |
front 20 Which class of supply consists of medical materiel? | back 20 8 |
front 21 What best describes supply Class X items? | back 21 material to support nonmilitary programs |
front 22 What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure? | back 22 supply-chain operations reference (SCOR) |
front 23 Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities? | back 23 air force sustainment center |
front 24 The Air Force Sustainment Center’s (AFSC) mission is to | back 24 sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America |
front 25 How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of the Air Force Installation & Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)? | back 25 6 |
front 26 Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations? | back 26 miscellaneous file maintenance |
front 27 Which type of reports provide information about the overall management of the supply system? | back 27 daily |
front 28 Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication implements requirements and procedures for materiel managers and others who work within the supply system? | back 28 4140.01,DOD supply chain materiel management procedures |
front 29 The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management Standards, does not pertain to which functional area? | back 29 safety |
front 30 What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices? | back 30 defense logistics management standards |
front 31 Which key on a keyboard do you press after typing in a word or phrase using the Find tool for research? | back 31 enter |
front 32 What two entities make up the national stock number (NSN)? | back 32 federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN |
front 33 How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management system? | back 33 4 |
front 34 Which code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain specific information? | back 34 record retrieval |
front 35 Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry? | back 35 4 |
front 36 What information prints out after processing an item record inquiry? | back 36 data element names |
front 37 What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number? | back 37 R |
front 38 Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as | back 38 one year or more |
front 39 Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the national stock number (NSN) and transaction date? | back 39 stock number |
front 40 Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records? | back 40 flight chief |
front 41 Which chapter in Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23–123, Materiel Management Handbook, Volume 2, Part 2, identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system’s rejects created during processing? | back 41 seven |
front 42 What letters, preceding the management code and phrase, readily identifies management notices? | back 42 MGT |
front 43 Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner? | back 43 D818 |
front 44 What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program? | back 44 D20 |
front 45 Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reasons only? | back 45 flight chief |
front 46 Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process? | back 46 terminal security monitors |
front 47 Who is responsible for reviewing Part 8 of the D20 when an unauthorized user attempts to process a controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC)? | back 47 logistics manager |
front 48 The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received? | back 48 15th |
front 49 The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best describes the | back 49 supply management activity group-retail (SMAG-R) |
front 50 When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer’s funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created? | back 50 revolving |
front 51 Which is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)? | back 51 air force working capital fund (AFWCF) |
front 52 Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment Activity Group-Supply (CSAG-S)? | back 52 `wholesale-managed items |
front 53 The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program, or equipment and system that is not compliant with | back 53 standards |
front 54 Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program? | back 54 quality assurance |
front 55 Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits? | back 55 logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership |
front 56 When the materiel management system does not process or update transactions as it should, which Air Force form is used to report the problem? | back 56 1815, difficulty report (DIREP) worksheet |
front 57 Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management –retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports? | back 57 quality assurance |
front 58 A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected | back 58 in the next scheduled release |
front 59 Which analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms? | back 59 trend analysis |
front 60 Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem? | back 60 special studies |
front 61 Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management? | back 61 training |
front 62 What section of the materiel management analysis program is tasked with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account’s effectiveness? | back 62 quality assurance |
front 63 What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts? | back 63 analysis |
front 64 Which is not an example of a source document? | back 64 reports |
front 65 Which is not required when comparing information between the document control record (DCR) and source document? | back 65 nomenclature |
front 66 How often does document control perform a validation of who is authorized to receipt for classified property? | back 66 semiannually |
front 67 What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file? | back 67 source documents with file indicator D |
front 68 How long are transactions retained when documents are processed through the materiel management automated tracking system? | back 68 75 month |
front 69 When does a document become delinquent after processing the information from the document control record (DCR) document? | back 69 6th calendar day |
front 70 How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss document delinquent status? | back 70 daily |
front 71 Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)? | back 71 consolidated transaction (M 19) |
front 72 Which materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database? | back 72 daily document control |
front 73 The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers? | back 73 D04 and D06 |
front 74 What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program? | back 74 ensure an item has been shipped |
front 75 All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail? | back 75 shipment-suspense or shipped not credited |
front 76 Which transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail? | back 76 SSC |
front 77 Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details? | back 77 R40 |
front 78 Which transaction identification code is used for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction? | back 78 1AM |
front 79 What information is required to process an automated reverse-post (RVP) input? | back 79 transaction serial number, TTPC, and date |
front 80 The materiel management system uses which issue request code to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction? | back 80 .Transaction identification code (TRIC). |
front 81 What one-position alpha code is used to indicate how the materiel management system accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control? | back 81 Demand code |
front 82 Organizations may identify their issue requests to base supply using either a | back 82 stock number or part number |
front 83 What letter is entered in position 8 on the AF Form 2005 for a part number request? | back 83 P |
front 84 What is the next step in the ordering process after gathering and documenting data on the AF Form 2005? | back 84 enter data into materiel management system |
front 85 What may be produced after processing an order request that notifies further actions are required? | back 85 management notice |
front 86 Which management notice is the result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status? | back 86 I004 |
front 87 An I007 management notice is produced when a | back 87 part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control |
front 88 What transaction exception code is used to reprocess an issue request when the customer requests a backorder? | back 88 M |
front 89 Which base-wide organization uses the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) to interface with materiel management system? | back 89 maintenance |
front 90 What materiel management system output notifies the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) of changes in due-out status? | back 90 1SH |
front 91 When the materiel management system detects an Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) transaction error, the image is | back 91 returned to IMDS CDB |
front 92 What Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) entity is responsible for mission capable (MICAP) management? | back 92 Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA). |
front 93 When spares support is required, the Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA) is the primary interface for the | back 93 LRS |
front 94 What response is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply when assets are immediately available? | back 94 positive status |
front 95 Who confirms an end-item is not mission capable and verifies all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP request? | back 95 Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) base level |
front 96 Who will the aircraft parts store (APS) or customer support liaison contact to verify a mission capable (MICAP) condition exists? | back 96 .Maintenance production superintendent |
front 97 What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement? | back 97 Status. |
front 98 What mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) code identifies the reason for terminating a MICAP condition? | back 98 Delete. |
front 99 What is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a mission capability (MICAP) condition and allow MICAP reporting to be initiated? | back 99 Due-in. |
front 100 What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting? | back 100 Upgrade. |
front 101 What output is produced to report the applicable change of a mission capable (MICAP) condition each time transaction NOR is processed? | back 101 MICAP report (B9*). |
front 102 Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination? | back 102 90 |
front 103 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to end the repair cycle process? | back 103 TIn |
front 104 Which activity is responsible for providing repair cycle support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail? | back 104 maintenance |
front 105 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record? | back 105 DFM |
front 106 Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation? | back 106 D23 |
front 107 What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities? | back 107 Ensure maintenance activities physically have all the DIFM items. |
front 108 Within how many duty days from the date of issue will a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair be returned to the LRS? | back 108 4 |
front 109 How are time compliance technical order (TCTO) items identified on the item record? | back 109 numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4 |
front 110 What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function? | back 110 .DD Form 1574 (Yellow tag) |
front 111 What is entered in the “remarks” block of the DD Form 1574 (yellow tag)? | back 111 Time compliance technical order (TCTO) number. |
front 112 What code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM item indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and logistics readiness squadron (LRS)/materiel management activity? | back 112 .Action taken. |
front 113 Which action taken code indicates an item is condemned? | back 113 9 |
front 114 What will the materiel management information technology system scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in as serviceable? | back 114 due-out |
front 115 Where are serviceable condition returns forwarded after a “notice to stock” document is received? | back 115 appropriate storage facility |
front 116 What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level? | back 116 shipment document |
front 117 Time change assets are replaced on what type of schedule? | back 117 Calendar or hourly |
front 118 Who appoints the time change manager? | back 118 Materiel management flight chief or equivalent. |
front 119 Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by | back 119 Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC). |
front 120 Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record? | back 120 Turnaround. |
front 121 Where does Supply obtain data used to process turnaround transactions? | back 121 .Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag. |
front 122 Which management notice is produced reflecting stock awaiting disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process? | back 122 .I012 |
front 123 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received? | back 123 ISU |
front 124 Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used? | back 124 LRS |
front 125 Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete supply point details? | back 125 FSP |
front 126 Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation? | back 126 Q13 |
front 127 What transaction identifier code (TRIC) is processed when the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation? | back 127 ISU |
front 128 Who will continuously monitor requirements supporting Air Force war plans and ensure the validity of all war reserve materiel (WRM) requirements? | back 128 MAJCOMs. |
front 129 Who is responsible for physical materiel handling, receiving, storing, and processing of war reserve materiel (WRM) shipment requests? | back 129 Bases |
front 130 Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed to a bare base location? | back 130 Initial flightline. |
front 131 Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support flight operations and maintenance needs for a second and subsequent squadrons deployed to an austere base? | back 131 Follow-on flightline. |
front 132 Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary? | back 132 60 |
front 133 Who will authorize allocation of readiness spares packages (RSP) to specific units/bases? | back 133 MAJCOM |
front 134 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations? | back 134 1EB |
front 135 In the master file, what format is readiness spares package (RSP) data authorization input records received from the major command (MAJCOM)? | back 135 XVF |
front 136 What program performs the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation? | back 136 S05 |
front 137 What process involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets? | back 137 Care of supplies in storage (COSIS). |
front 138 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets to users? | back 138 MSI. |
front 139 What asset status flag reflects mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed? | back 139 D |
front 140 The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability rests with the host and the | back 140 gaining major command (MAJCOM). |
front 141 What transaction identification code (TRIC) do you use to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability? | back 141 1WD. |
front 142 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer assets between mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP) and war reserve materiel (WRM) detail records? | back 142 1KT. |
front 143 What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM) detail record? | back 143 M |
front 144 Which current listing/listings must be obtained prior to shipping out readiness spares package (RSP) assets? | back 144 R43 and/or R52. |
front 145 What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments? | back 145 Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM). |
front 146 What system is used to access the War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)? | back 146 Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability (LOGFAC). |
front 147 Which listing provides a management product for special spares authorizations, assets, and products? | back 147 Special Spares Report (R34). |
front 148 The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is structured and executed under three principles transparency, predictability, and | back 148 equitability. |
front 149 Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a materiel management unit type code (UTC)? | back 149 JFB |
front 150 What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls? | back 150 Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code (UTC) Reporting Tool (ART). |
front 151 What code reflected in the operation plan (OPLAN) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and/or amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking? | back 151 Unit type code (UTC). |
front 152 What was established as the sole readiness reporting system for the Department of Defense? | back 152 Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS). |
front 153 What section stores small arms for mobility use? | back 153 .Individual protective equipment element. |
front 154 What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms? | back 154 serial |
front 155 What Air Force (AF) Form will requesting individuals provide prior to being issued a weapon? | back 155 AF form 522 |
front 156 Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location? | back 156 .Accountable officer (AO) or commander. |
front 157 At a minimum, how often are mobility assets inventoried? | back 157 .Annually. |
front 158 Who performs warehouse validations prior to inventorying mobility assets? | back 158 Individual protective equipment personnel. |
front 159 Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment? | back 159 B |
front 160 Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains chemical warfare defense equipment? | back 160 C |
front 161 What is available to allow Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel to put away, redistribute, ship, and mange shipment discrepancies within Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility? | back 161 .Mobility dashboards. |
front 162 Shelf life assets are tracked in ES-S Mobility by | back 162 Contract/lot number |
front 163 What is used to determine bulk stock requirements and are the basis for placing mobility stock orders based on mission support requirements? | back 163 Mobility shopping list. |
front 164 Which function in Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to view and update customer information and manage assets currently in possession by customers? | back 164 Issue items. |
front 165 Which capability gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to check stock availability that is either on hand in mobility warehouse locations or in the possession of mobility customers? | back 165 .Mobility data query. |
front 166 What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility? | back 166 Electronic data interchange personal identifier (EDIPI). |
front 167 What does Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility asset management programmatically search for and detect in relation to gas masks? | back 167 Expired service life dates |
front 168 Where are the equipment requests forwarded after being reviewed and validated by the equipment accountability element (EAE)? | back 168 AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity |
front 169 The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between the | back 169 equipment accountability element (EAE) and organization commanders. |
front 170 What is used to determine which equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain? | back 170 .AS and configuration data |
front 171 Which item describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force activities and individuals normally require to carry out their mission? | back 171 Allowance standards (AS). |
front 172 What element within an allowance standard (AS) establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization? | back 172 .BOI. |
front 173 Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies nonequipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) equipment items? | back 173 .NF1. |
front 174 Which Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standard (AS) or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code (ASC)? | back 174 601. |
front 175 Which Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) computer screen provides an automated method for submitting and evaluating allowance change requests? | back 175 TACR |
front 176 Which FCI format within the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) is used to load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details? | back 176 1 |
front 177 Which turn-in method to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) is used to process the turnin before picking up the property? | back 177 Pre-degraded operations. |
front 178 Which activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data (nonEAID) equipment turn-ins to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)? | back 178 P |
front 179 Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another? | back 179 FET. |
front 180 Which management listing helps ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances? | back 180 Allowance source code (ASC) listing. |
front 181 Which management listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions? | back 181 Q10. |
front 182 Which management listing provides visibility for high dollar value non-equipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) items? | back 182 R15, Organizational visibility listing |
front 183 Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns? | back 183 Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). |
front 184 Who mandated the Item Unique Identification (IUID) compliance process for equipment assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000? | back 184 Department of Defense (DOD). |
front 185 Equipment accountability element (EAE) personnel use which method to conduct physical inventories? | back 185 Floor to book. |
front 186 Who ensures chief financial officer (CFO) data is loaded in the applicable Materiel Management information technology system? | back 186 Equipment accountability element (EAE). |
front 187 Which system is used to report any equipment item exceeding $100,000? | back 187 Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). |
front 188 Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset categories are defined in the –21 technical order (TO)? | back 188 Maintenance and safety protection (MSP) equipment, AME, and CPS equipment. |
front 189 Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail? | back 189 1XA. |
front 190 Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets? | back 190 . R25. |
front 191 How often must you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner Robins Air Logistics Complex (WR-ALC)? | back 191 annually |
front 192 Who works hand-in-hand with the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) to support mission requirements? | back 192 Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity. |
front 193 Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate for the current and past four quarters? | back 193 . Average percent of base repair (PBR). |
front 194 What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations? | back 194 Requisition objective (RO). |
front 195 Which stock leveling term identifies quantities required to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or unpredictable increases in demands? | back 195 . Safety level quantity (SLQ). |
front 196 What must be established anytime stock is authorized for nonexpendable (equipment) items? | back 196 adjustment level |
front 197 When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used? | back 197 A |
front 198 Which type of adjusted stock level (ASL) is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns? | back 198 Fixed |
front 199 Which materiel management system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels (ASL)? | back 199 r35 |
front 200 Which stock level is derived from a mathematical technique used to determine the lowest total variable costs to order and hold inventory? | back 200 Economic order quantity (EOQ). |
front 201 Which materiel management system listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation? | back 201 R47. |
front 202 Which technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and locate assets? | back 202 .Radio frequency identification (RFID). |
front 203 What process has the overall goal to have the capability to provide users with timely and accurate information on the location, movement, status, and identity of units, personnel, equipment, materiel, and supplies? | back 203 Total asset visibility (TAV). |
front 204 What document identification code (DIC) indicates a denial to a redistribution order (RDO) sent by Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item managers (IM)? | back 204 B7*. |
front 205 Which shipment exception (SEX) code is used for do not ship—assets frozen? | back 205 1 |
front 206 Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a special requisition (SPR)? | back 206 SPR |
front 207 Program control uses which system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition? | back 207 Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS). |
front 208 Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned? | back 208 Requisitioning activity |
front 209 What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition? | back 209 .Address code. |
front 210 How often are requisition exception (REX) codes reviewed and validated? | back 210 Semiannually. |
front 211 Which requisition exception (REX) code is assigned under program control due to military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status? | back 211 1. |
front 212 Which code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply (SOS) has cancelled a requisition? | back 212 REX1 |
front 213 Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested? | back 213 Exception/other. |
front 214 Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to request an improved estimated availability date or estimated shipment date for priority 01–08 requisitions? | back 214 AFC |
front 215 What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition? | back 215 C |
front 216 Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items is reported on Air Force Form | back 216 1667 |
front 217 Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many calendar days? | back 217 7 |
front 218 Which listings are used to perform due-out review and validation? | back 218 .D18 and R01. |
front 219 How often are urgency of need (UND) C due-outs validated? | back 219 monthly |
front 220 Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on retail materiel management system due-in details? | back 220 Due-in/due-out (DIT). |
front 221 What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by off-line action? | back 221 ZC |
front 222 How many days will local purchase (LP) items appear on the listing after the vendor bill is received and processed for billed-not-received (BNR) transactions? | back 222 7 |
front 223 Which detail is created by the materiel management system whenever a referral order is honored and a credit is given to the shipping base? | back 223 shipped not credited |
front 224 Which interactive query screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) provides the option to select more or less information to include in a search? | back 224 Search Selection Menu. |
front 225 Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) allows users to locate manufacturer names for the code entered? | back 225 CAGE |
front 226 Which system provides Air Force personnel with on-line cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management data for Air Force-managed or user items? | back 226 D043A |
front 227 Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPB) are normally identified and published in | back 227 –4 series of technical orders (TO). |
front 228 Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the IPB | back 228 Group assembly parts list |
front 229 The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL input establishes what type of record(s)? | back 229 Repair cycle and constant records. |
front 230 An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator? | back 230 X |
front 231 What transaction identification code (TRIC) establishes the part number record? | back 231 FIC or 1AA |
front 232 What purpose does the part number detail record serve? | back 232 Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file. |
front 233 What noncataloged (NC) number position indicates which Air Logistics Complex (ALC) assigned the number? | back 233 position 7 |
front 234 Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change the stock number; expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD), equipment management code (EMC), routing identifier (RID), and budget code on the item record? | back 234 FCU |
front 235 What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record? | back 235 32 |
front 236 For internal records, what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields? | back 236 FID |
front 237 What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG) information? | back 237 D043B |
front 238 Which code identifies the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution grouping (I&SG) are substituted or issued? | back 238 order of use |
front 239 What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items? | back 239 FIS |
front 240 Who must justify in writing the request to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items? | back 240 Major command |
front 241 Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier? | back 241 Production date. |
front 242 Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on the assets? | back 242 Inspector |
front 243 Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated the form? | back 243 B |
front 244 Which operation includes verifying identity, security classification, condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property? | back 244 Inspection operations |
front 245 Who is responsible for overseeing the Care of Supplies in Storage (COSIS) program? | back 245 Chief inspector |
front 246 What three things are used to identify an item? | back 246 Reference number, stock number, and item description. |
front 247 Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair? | back 247 DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag. |
front 248 Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair? | back 248 Updates inspection data. |
front 249 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change? | back 249 FCC |
front 250 An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the | back 250 customer failed to cancel the due-out. |
front 251 Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program of all items in storage? | back 251 Inspector |
front 252 When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required? | back 252 Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments |
front 253 Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed? | back 253 Major command (MAJCOM). |
front 254 (608) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained? | back 254 Between 32 and 50°F. |
front 255 At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other facilities? | back 255 50 |
front 256 What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage? | back 256 Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE). |
front 257 The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the | back 257 storage space |
front 258 What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible? | back 258 Storage areas. |
front 259 When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what storage factor? | back 259 Item quantity |
front 260 What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D? | back 260 D |
front 261 Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from | back 261 left to right and front to rear |
front 262 What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location? | back 262 * |
front 263 What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation? | back 263 Bar-coded labels. |
front 264 Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations? | back 264 10 |
front 265 How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse location parameter input prepared? | back 265 1 |
front 266 What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a warehouse is in the best condition for an inventory? | back 266 Prepare the warehouse area. |
front 267 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location? | back 267 . FCS. |
front 268 The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called | back 268 honeycombing. |
front 269 Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be | back 269 obliterated. |
front 270 Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change? | back 270 FIC |
front 271 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to manually transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? | back 271 TRM |
front 272 What routing identifier code (RIC) is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? | back 272 JBR |
front 273 What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product? | back 273 Safety data sheet (SDS). |
front 274 As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception (IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned? | back 274 Monthly |
front 275 Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of | back 275 100°F. |
front 276 What type of material storage is best used for items such as pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries? | back 276 Low hazard |
front 277 When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue? | back 277 . FCC. |
front 278 Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories? | back 278 Two |
front 279 Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes? | back 279 Producing organization |
front 280 Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and confidential materiel? | back 280 B |
front 281 Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP? | back 281 Materiel management flight chief inspector. |
front 282 Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility? | back 282 Department of Defense (DOD) activity |
front 283 As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be changed for classified storage? | back 283 Annually |
front 284 How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record? | back 284 Type cargo code 3. |
front 285 What transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a detail record to maintenance for testing? | back 285 MSI, C. |
front 286 If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package? | back 286 Materiel management inspector |
front 287 What markings on an item provides proof that a functional check was done? | back 287 . Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature. |
front 288 As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced? | back 288 . Semiannually |
front 289 What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonextendable shelf-life? | back 289 Type I. |
front 290 How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing? | back 290 15 to 45 |
front 291 What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record? | back 291 FCD with suspect flag S. |
front 292 What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materiel was procured to prevent reoccurrence? | back 292 Risk-based approach |
front 293 Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel? | back 293 Joint Discrepancy Reporting System. |
front 294 The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number, | back 294 model, and manufacturer’s name |
front 295 At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes? | back 295 Daily |
front 296 The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count | back 296 begins. |
front 297 Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory? | back 297 Accountable officer |
front 298 When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the | back 298 physical count quantity. |
front 299 When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions? | back 299 Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14). |
front 300 What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file? | back 300 Annotated 1GP notice. |
front 301 An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than | back 301 $100. |
front 302 To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount image contains a research indicator of | back 302 . AR. |
front 303 At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed? | back 303 Monthly. |
front 304 Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the inventory analysis? | back 304 M10. |
front 305 Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in? | back 305 Maintenance personnel. |
front 306 Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property? | back 306 Report of survey. |
front 307 Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept custodial responsibility for government property under their control? | back 307 Property custodian. |
front 308 Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve, protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and supplies for operational requirements? | back 308 Supply discipline |
front 309 The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be | back 309 XB3. |
front 310 What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the initial master bench stock details? | back 310 2BS. |
front 311 Once the date of last demand has exceeded how many days are bench stock items recommended for deletion? | back 311 270. |
front 312 Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks? | back 312 M04 |
front 313 How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated? | back 313 Annually |
front 314 Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel? | back 314 Least handling is the best handling |
front 315 Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation? | back 315 Advanced planning. |
front 316 What can increase productivity and utilization of warehouse space in addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety? | back 316 Storage aids systems |
front 317 Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips? | back 317 10 |
front 318 Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible? | back 318 Palletize. |
front 319 Which element within the logistic readiness squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons? | back 319 Mobility. |
front 320 What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations? | back 320 Sensitive items. |
front 321 Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled material is done according to | back 321 AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program |
front 322 Who is responsible for training logistics readiness squadron (LRS) personnel who will handle controlled materiel? | back 322 Chief inspector. |
front 323 Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items? | back 323 Security manager. |
front 324 What color of ink is used to stamp or write “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items? | back 324 Red |
front 325 Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements? | back 325 Item manager |
front 326 Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities? | back 326 . Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team |
front 327 What item must be loaded in the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES-S) system for all individuals who receive parts from the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)? | back 327 Customer record |
front 328 Which report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets? | back 328 Items Not Received by Customer |
front 329 The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility (EVA) component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force | back 329 owned assets |
front 330 What legacy systems can the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S) query and view orders in? | back 330 Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K |
front 331 In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three main areas of the Order Selection Page? | back 331 Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC |
front 332 What type of audits does the Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information for? | back 332 Internal and external. |
front 333 What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel? | back 333 . Stock control system (SCS). |
front 334 Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user? | back 334 TRACKER |
front 335 Which supports repair execution and item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair? | back 335 Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System. |
front 336 The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours? | back 336 24 |
front 337 How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before they are deleted? | back 337 10 days |
front 338 How can users request access to the logistics, installations & mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)? | back 338 Via the Air Force Portal |