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chapters 11 and 12

front 1

Microbiological contaminants are best described as

back 1

unwanted microbes present on or in a substance.

front 2

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following, except:

back 2

hydrogen peroxide.

front 3

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

back 3

bacterial endospores

front 4

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is:

back 4

sterilization.

front 5

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is:

back 5

sanitization.

front 6

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is:

back 6

disinfection.

front 7

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is:

back 7

antisepsis

front 8

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is:

back 8

degermation.

front 9

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?

back 9

sporicide

front 10

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

back 10

cells in a culture die at a constant rate

front 11

Sterilization is achieved by:

back 11

steam autoclave.

front 12

Dry heat:

back 12

is less efficient than moist heat.

front 13

Endospores can be killed by:

A. dry heat at 170° C for 2 hours.

B. incineration.

C. glutaldehyde for 3 or more hours.

D. ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.

back 13

All of the choices are correct.

front 14

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are:

back 14

121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.

front 15

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by:

back 15

pasteurization.

front 16

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?

A.ground beef and other meat and poultry

B. human tissues such as heart valves and skin

C. operating room air

D. surgical gloves

back 16

All of the choices are correct.

front 17

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from:

back 17

air

front 18

Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?

back 18

Tincture of iodine

front 19

All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except:

back 19

Chloramines.

front 20

. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are:

back 20

vegetative bacteria and fungi.

front 21

All of the following pertain to hypochlorites, except:

back 21

found in iodophors.

front 22

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?

back 22

aqueous glutaraldehyde

front 23

Iodophors include:

back 23

Betadine.

front 24

The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites is:

back 24

Chlorhexidine.

front 25

Alcohols:

A. denature proteins when in a 50–95% solution.

B. are used to disinfect items by soaking.

C. are skin degerming agents.

D. at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids.

back 25

All of the choices are correct.

front 26

Which is mismatched?

A. Sodium hypochlorite - chlorine

B. Iodophor - iodine

C. Benzalkonium chloride - quaternary ammonium compound

D. Merthiolate - silver E. Formalin - formaldehyde

back 26

D. Merthiolate - silver E. Formalin - formaldehyde

front 27

All of the following are correct about iodophors, except:

back 27

this formulation allows a quick release of free iodine.

front 28

The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is:

back 28

ethylene oxide.

front 29

The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is:

back 29

Hydrogen peroxide.

front 30

All the following are correct about detergents, except:

back 30

they are active in the presence of organic matter.

front 31

Ethylene oxide is:

back 31

sporicidal.

front 32

Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

back 32

. chloramines

front 33

Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?

back 33

hydrogen peroxide

front 34

Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?

back 34

glutaraldehyde

front 35

All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except:

back 35

the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.

front 36

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except:

back 36

it makes the food less nutritious.

front 37

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization, except:

back 37

lyophilization.

front 38

Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal infections?

back 38

silver nitrate

front 39

Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?

back 39

Pseudomonas

front 40

All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except:

back 40

it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.

front 41

Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?

back 41

Alcohol

front 42

Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation to inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is:

back 42

Disinfection

front 43

Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?

back 43

Silver&Gold

front 44

Commercial products containing which types of chemicals are more effective at killing microorganisms?

back 44

bacteriocidal

front 45

Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants.

back 45

FALSE

front 46

Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.

back 46

FALSE

front 47

The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants.

back 47

TRUE

front 48

When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells.

back 48

TRUE

front 49

A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered dead.

back 49

FALSE

front 50

Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures.

back 50

FALSE

front 51

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

back 51

. antibiotics.

front 52

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

back 52

broad-spectrum drugs.

front 53

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except

back 53

Staphylococcus.

front 54

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

A.readily delivered to the site of infection.

B. high toxicity against microbial cells.

C. do not cause serious side effects in humans.

D. remains active in body tissues and fluids.

E. All of the choices are correct.

back 54

E. All of the choices are correct.

front 55

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause

back 55

superinfections.

front 56

Penicillins and cephalosporins

back 56

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

front 57

Sulfonamides

back 57

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

front 58

Aminoglycosides

back 58

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

front 59

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have

back 59

a beta-lactam ring.

front 60

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is

back 60

clavulanic acid.

front 61

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except

back 61

they are synthetic drugs.

front 62

Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?

back 62

gentamici

front 63

Gram negative bacilli are often treated with

back 63

aminoglycosides.

front 64

This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis

back 64

isoniazid.

front 65

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?

back 65

trimethroprim

front 66

Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus?

back 66

linezolid

front 67

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except

back 67

are nephrotoxic.

front 68

Antimicrobics that are macrolides

back 68

include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin.

front 69

The drug that can cause aplastic anemia, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is

back 69

chloramphenicol.

front 70

The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is

back 70

clindamycin

front 71

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is

back 71

amphotericin

front 72

The drug used for several protozoan infections is

back 72

metronidazole.

front 73

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections.

back 73

fungal

front 74

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms

back 74

are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve.

front 75

Which of the following is not a mode of action of an antiviral?

back 75

bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

front 76

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that

back 76

blocks DNA replication.

front 77

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat

back 77

HIV.

front 78

Acyclovir is used to treat

back 78

shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.

front 79

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

A.bacterial chromosomal mutations.

B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure.

C. prevention of drug entry into the cell.

D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets.

back 79

All of the choices are correct.

front 80

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause

back 80

prevention of drug entry into the cell.

front 81

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except

back 81

development of resistance to the drug.

front 82

A superinfection results from

back 82

decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.

front 83

Drug susceptibility testing

back 83

determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.

front 84

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

back 84

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

front 85

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the

back 85

therapeutic index (TI).

front 86

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed

back 86

narrow-spectrum drugs.

front 87

A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves

back 87

using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.

front 88

Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?

A. patient age

B. pregnancy

C. liver function

D. alcohol use

back 88

All of the choices are correct.

front 89

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except

back 89

a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.

front 90

All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except

back 90

allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug.

front 91

Which bacteria does Levaquin target?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Haemophilus influenzae

C. Moraxella catarrhalis

D. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

back 91

All of the choices are correct

front 92

All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except

back 92

they prevent assembly and release of the virus.

front 93

When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.

back 93

FALSE

front 94

A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically modified in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources.

back 94

TRUE

front 95

Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.

back 95

FALSE

front 96

The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.

back 96

TRUE

front 97

Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.

back 97

FALSE

front 98

An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index.

back 98

FALSE

front 99

The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.

back 99

TRUE

front 100

Levaquin, a fluoroquinolone, kills viruses.

back 100

FALSE