front 1 A patient who has recently undergone a total joint replacement surgery is given antibiotics prior to dental procedures. | back 1 prophylaxis |
front 2 A patient infected with HIV usually takes several different anti-HIV medications, including a reverse transcriptase inhibitor, one or more protease inhibitors, and an integrase inhibitor | back 2 combined therapy |
front 3 Trimethoprim and sulfomethoxazole are often used together because they inhibit two successive steps in the folate biosynthetic pathway and this inhibition is greater than when either drug is used alone. | back 3 synergy |
front 4 five primary modes of actions of antimicrobial drugs. | back 4 inhibits:
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front 5 choose the major challenge of antiviral therapy | back 5 Viruses rely on the metabolic system of the host cell. |
front 6 select the three primary mechanisms by which antiviral medications work. | back 6 1 preventing entry of the virus into the host cell |
front 7 Please choose the term used to describe the type of antimicrobial resistance that is of most concern today. | back 7 aquired |
front 8 select the three ways in which microorganisms acquire antimicrobial resistance. | back 8 1 - Spontaneous mutation |
front 9 select the five major mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance. | back 9
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front 10 select the strategies that can be used to reduce the level of antimicrobial drug resistance | back 10 -prescribing antibiotics only for accurately diagnosed bacterial
infections |
front 11 select the three major mechanisms by which antimicrobial resistance genes are shared and spread among microbial populations. | back 11 transcription |
front 12 select the term that encompasses adverse responses to antimicrobial drugs such as hives, respiratory difficulties, and anaphylaxis. | back 12 allergic reactions |
front 13 choose the statement that best describes superinfection. | back 13 a secondary infection that occurs during antimicrobial therapy, caused by overgrowth of drug-resistant residents of the microbiota |
front 14 choose the statement which best describes the goal(s) of antimicrobial susceptibility testing. | back 14 to determine which antimicrobial drug is most effective at inhibition of the causative agent |
front 15 Please place the steps in the correct order to assess your knowledge of entry, establishment, and exit of infectious agents. | back 15 |
front 16 | back 16 |
front 17 Carrier has infection but it is not apparent. | back 17 asymptomatic |
front 18 Carrier transmits infection before or after the period of symptoms. | back 18 incubation, chronic, convalescent |
front 19 label the image to test your understanding of how communicable infectious diseases are acquired. | back 19 |
front 20 Please identify the four most significant interactions between humans and the microbes that live in and on our bodies. | back 20 -Microbes can protect and stabilize body surfaces on which they
establish themselves as normal residents |
front 21 Please choose the statement that best describes the benefits of microbial antagonism to the human host. | back 21 Microbial antagonism occurs when members of the normal microbiota prevent pathogens from colonizing and becoming established in the body. |
front 22 choose the statement that describes the initial acquisition and development of normal microbiota. | back 22 A newborn acquires normal microbiota during the birthing process and through contact with family, health care providers, food, and their environment. |
front 23 Please order the following steps a microorganism takes in establishing an infection. | back 23 |
front 24 A(n) ______ pathogen causes disease in a healthy individual with a normal immune response, whereas a(n) ______ pathogen will not cause disease in a normal healthy host, but instead causes disease only when a host’s defenses are compromised in some way. | back 24 true; opportunistic |
front 25 Select the body sites that serve as portals of entry for microbes | back 25
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front 26 The minimum number of organisms necessary to enter through the portal of entry and establish infection is the ____________ | back 26 infectious dose |
front 27 select all of the specialized structures used by microorganisms to adhere to their host. | back 27
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front 28 choose the best definition of virulence factors. | back 28 characteristics of a microorganism that enable it to establish infection and cause disease |
front 29 select the factors below that contribute to a microorganism’s invasiveness. | back 29
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front 30 select characteristics exhibited by exotoxins, but not exhibited by endotoxins. | back 30 Require very small doses to cause toxic effects, Have very specific targets, Secreted from a living cell |
front 31 1. appearance of first early, nonspecific symptoms 2. Microorganism is multiplying rapidly and causing fever and specific disease symptoms 3. decline of symptoms and return to a state of health 4. period of time from initial contact with pathogen to appearance of very first symptoms | back 31
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front 32 Please match the description to the pattern of infection. 1. more severe infection, rapid onset | back 32
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front 33 Reservoirs are always humans or other animals. | back 33 false |
front 34 The primary habitat in the natural world from which a pathogen originates is its ________. | back 34 reservoir |
front 35 An individual who inconspicuously shelters a pathogen and spreads it to others without notice is a _______. | back 35 carrier |
front 36 Please match the terms with the statements that most accurately describe them. 1. an individual who shelters a pathogen for a long period of time after recovery (example: Typhoid Mary) 2. a healthy individual who is infected but shows no symptoms
| back 36
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front 37 choose the statement that provides correct information about zoonoses. | back 37 70 percent of the new emerging infections seen today are zoonoses. |
front 38 A ________ infectious disease, such as a urinary tract infection, is not transmitted from person to person, whereas an infectious disease which is transmitted from one person to another, such as influenza, is referred to as a ________ infectious disease. | back 38
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front 39 select the patterns of direct (contact) transmission of infectious disease. | back 39
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front 40 select the patterns of indirect (vehicle) transmission of infectious disease. | back 40
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front 41 An infection that is acquired or develops during a person’s stay in the hospital is a _________ infection. | back 41 nosocomial |
front 42 select the three most prevalent types of nosocomial infections. | back 42 -urinary tract infections |
front 43 Universal precautions are specifically intended for the handling of patients and specimens known to be infected with pathogens such as HIV. | back 43 false |
front 44 The study of the frequency and distribution | back 44 epidemiology |
front 45 1. a disease pattern in which the number of new cases is increasing
beyond what is expected for the population | back 45
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front 46 order the four steps of Koch’s postulates as they would normally be applied. | back 46 |
front 47 choose the statement that best describes the use of Koch’s postulates. | back 47 Koch’s postulates are used to establish that a particular microorganism causes a specific disease. |
front 48 What allows Salmonella to enter the intestinal cell? | back 48 protein secretion system |
front 49 What cell component helps pull the Salmonella cells into the cell? | back 49 actin filaments |
front 50 A second protein secretion system results in | back 50 a protective coating surrounding the infective bacterial cell |
front 51 How does the protective coating help Salmonella evade destruction? | back 51 Lysosomes cannot fuse with the infectious cells. |
front 52 What occurs within the protective coating? | back 52 The bacteria divide rapidly. |
front 53 name the different types of occurences | back 53 |
front 54 The ______ is the sum total of genetic material in a cell. | back 54 genome |
front 55 In eukaryotic cells, what cellular structure is composed of a neatly packaged DNA molecule? | back 55 chromosome |
front 56 select all of the characteristics of DNA to test your understanding of its chemical structure. | back 56 correct Deoxyribose sugar |
front 57 DNA is the blueprint that indicates which kinds of proteins to make and how to make them. | back 57 true |
front 58 Genetic ______ and the variations they produce result in population changes and thus, evolution. | back 58 mutations |
front 59 When one bacterium donates DNA to another bacterium, a type of genetic recombination known as _________ has occurred. | back 59 horizontal gene transfer |
front 60 Transformation is a mode of genetic recombination in which a plasmid is transferred from a donor cell to a recipient cell via a direct connection. | back 60 false |
front 61 The acceptance by a bacterial cell of small DNA fragments from the surrounding environment is termed ________. | back 61 transformation |
front 62 Please label the image to review how various antimicrobial agents alter protein structure and function. | back 62 |
front 63 1. use of a gaseous or liquid microbicide to destroy microorganisms
| back 63
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front 64 Please order the following microbes or microbial forms in terms of their resistance to control methods, beginning with those that are mostresistant. | back 64 |
front 65 1. complete removal or destruction of all microbial forms | back 65
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front 66 A chemical labeled as ________ will inhibit bacterial growth but will not kill them. | back 66 bacteriostatic |
front 67 1. use of chlorohexidine to prepare the skin prior to surgery | back 67
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front 68 Please choose the statement that best defines microbial death. | back 68 The microorganisms are permanently unable to reproduce. |
front 69 select the factors below that influence the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent. | back 69
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front 70 select the four primary targets of antimicrobial control agents. | back 70
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front 71 choose the statement that identifies the major disadvantage of both cold and desiccation in terms of microbial control. | back 71 These methods are bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal. |
front 72 select the appropriate applications of cold and desiccation as microbial control strategies. | back 72
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front 73 Energy emitted as a result of atomic activity and dispersed at high velocity through matter and space is known as _______ | back 73 radiation |
front 74 choose the answer that correctly fills in the blanks of this sentence in order. _______radiation has good penetrating power and can be used for cold sterilization, whereas _______ radiation doesn’t penetrate well and is more often used for disinfection purposes. | back 74 Ionizing; non-ionizing |
front 75 A(n) _______ would be used to destroy bacteria on a countertop whereas a(n) _______ would be used on skin prior to making an incision. | back 75 disinfectant; antiseptic |
front 76 select the factors that influence the effectiveness of antimicrobial chemicals. | back 76
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front 77 Please select the statement that describes the antimicrobial activity of alcohols. | back 77 disrupt membrane lipids and denature proteins |
front 78 What type of bonds link individual amino acids together? | back 78 peptide bonds |
front 79 What type of bonds link individual amino acids together? | back 79 peptide bonds |
front 80 The helix that forms in a protein chain as a result of hydrogen bonds and other weak forces is an example of | back 80 secondary structure of protein. |
front 81 In the stable form of protein, what is generally oriented to the interior of the protein molecule? | back 81 hydrophobic portions |
front 82 When an egg is fried, what happens to the protein in the egg? | back 82 The protein is denatured. |
front 83 When forming a semi-solid gel such as gelatin, what type of molecule does the process of protein coagulation entrap? | back 83 water |
front 84 True or false: All cases of Hepatitis C present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and jaundice. | back 84 false |
front 85 The patients who contracted HCV in this case were infected due to which of the following? | back 85 improper procedures for drawing up sedation drugs |
front 86 HCV is mainly transmitted through what means? | back 86 blood-to-blood contact |
front 87 True or false: All of the patients with acute HCV in this case were infected with strains of HCV that were genetically identical. | back 87 true |
front 88 What is genetics? | back 88 the science that studies the inheritance of biological characteristics by life forms |
front 89 What is a genome? What is the genome of bacteria, animals and plants? | back 89 the total genetic material carried within a cell |
front 90 What are the levels of genetic study? | back 90 no data |
front 91 How is a genotype different from a phenotype? | back 91 The genotype is the set of genes in our DNA which is responsible for a particular trait. The phenotype is the physical expression, or characteristics, of that trait. |
front 92 Describe the structure of DNA. | back 92 |
front 93 What are the 3 parts of a nucleotide? | back 93
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front 94 Which nitrogenous bases always hydrogen bond in pairs holding the two strands of DNA together? | back 94 a with t c with g |
front 95 What enzyme makes a DNA copy of DNA? | back 95 dna polymerase III |
front 96 What enzyme makes an RNA copy of DNA? | back 96 primase |
front 97 What is transcription? | back 97 the process by which the information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA). DNA safely and stably stores genetic material in the nuclei of cells as a reference, or template. |
front 98 What is translation? | back 98 a step in protein biosynthesis wherein the genetic code carried by mRNA is decoded to produce the specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. The process follows transcription in which the DNA sequence is copied (or transcribed) into an mRNA |
front 99 What does the ribosome do? | back 99 Ribosomes are where RNA is translated into protein. This process is called protein synthesis. |
front 100 What is a codon? | back 100 a sequence of three nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule |
front 101 What is a mutation? | back 101 A Mutation occurs when a DNA gene is damaged or changed in such a way as to alter the genetic message carried by that gene. |
front 102 Describe three means of genetic recombination in bacteria. | back 102 Bacterial recombination is a type of genetic recombination in bacteria characterized by DNA transfer from one organism called donor to another organism as recipient. This process occurs in three main ways: Transformation, Transduction, and. Conjugation. |
front 103 Describe a biofilm. | back 103 Biofilm is an association of micro-organisms in which microbial cells adhere to each other on a living or non-living surfaces within a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric substance. Bacterial biofilm is infectious in nature and can results in nosocomial infections. |
front 104 What microbes can be in a biofilm? | back 104 Many different bacteria form biofilms, including gram-positive (e.g. Bacillus spp,Listeria monocytogenes, Staphylococcus spp, and lactic acid bacteria, includingLactobacillus plantarum and Lactococcus lactis) and gram-negative species (e.g.Escherichia coli, or Pseudomonas aeruginosa). |
front 105 What are planktonic cells? | back 105 Planktonic cells are classically defined “as free flowing bacteria in suspension” as. opposed to the sessile state (the so called biofilm): “a structured community of bacterial. cells enclosed in a self-produced polymeric matrix and adherent to an inert or living. |
front 106 What are sessile cells? | back 106 biofilm |
front 107 How do bacteria communicate? | back 107 Quorum sensing: cell-to-cell communication in bacteria. Bacteria communicate with one another using chemical signal molecules. As in higher organisms, the information supplied by these molecules is critical for synchronizing the activities of large groups of cells. |
front 108 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control. | back 108 physical, mechanical, chemical |
front 109 Identify the parameters of microbial death and describe several factors that influence the rate of death. | back 109 no data |
front 110 Identify the targets of antimicrobial control agents. | back 110 no data |
front 111
| back 111 no data |
front 112 Differentiate between ionizing and non-ionizing radiation in their modes of action. | back 112 no data |
front 113 Define the three levels of chemical decontamination procedures and place the following chemical agents in their appropriate category. | back 113 no data |
front 114 Describe how soap and alcohol work to kill germs. | back 114 dissolves membrane lipids and disrupt cell surface tension |
front 115 State the goals of antimicrobial therapy. | back 115 no data |
front 116 What is selective toxicity? | back 116 no data |
front 117 Discuss the various origins of antimicrobial drugs | back 117 no data |
front 118 Summarize the five modes of action of antimicrobial drugs. | back 118 no data |
front 119 Explain how penicillin, vancomycin, zithromax and amoxillcillin work. | back 119 no data |
front 120 What is competitive inhibition? | back 120 no data |
front 121 List 2 genetic events that cause microbes to become resistant to drugs. | back 121 no data |
front 122 Explain 4 general mechanisms of drug resistance. | back 122 no data |
front 123 Why are there so few antifungal, antiparasitic, and antiviral drugs? | back 123 no data |
front 124 What are 3 adverse effects of antimicrobic drugs on the host? | back 124 no data |
front 125 What is the difference between infection and disease? | back 125 no data |
front 126 Where do you find normal microbiota? | back 126 no data |
front 127 Which sites of the body are microbe-free? | back 127 no data |
front 128 List several factors that predispose a person to disease. | back 128 no data |
front 129 Differentiate among the different portals of entry and give examples of pathogens that invade by these means. | back 129 no data |
front 130 Explain what is meant by the infectious dose, using examples. | back 130 no data |
front 131 Describe the process of adhesion and various mechanisms by which microbes use it to gain entry. | back 131 no data |
front 132 Describe the clinical stages of infection. (4 periods of disease) | back 132 no data |
front 133 Discuss the major portals of exit and how they influence the end stages of infection and disease. | back 133 no data |
front 134 List several examples of exoenzymes and their activities. | back 134 no data |
front 135 Compare and contrast the major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxins | back 135 no data |
front 136 What are reservoirs of infection? | back 136 no data |
front 137 List several measures that health care providers must exercise to prevent nosocomial infections. | back 137 no data |
front 138 What are the 3 most common sites for nosocomial infections? | back 138 no data |
front 139 What are the 3 most common causes of nosocomial infections? | back 139 no data |
front 140 Summarize the steps in Koch’s postulates, and explain their importance to microbiologists | back 140 no data |
front 141 What is phage therapy? | back 141 no data |
front 142 How is phage therapy currently used in the US? | back 142 no data |
front 143 What are probiotics? | back 143 no data |
front 144 What are prebiotics? | back 144 no data |
front 145 What percent of infections involve biofilms? | back 145 no data |
front 146 What mechanisms make microbes in a biofilm hundreds of times more drug resistant than the same free, unattached microbes? | back 146 no data |
front 147 How is the clinical setting a source of drug-resistant strains of bacteria? | back 147 no data |
front 148 Is it just bacteria that becoming more resistant to drugs? What other microbes are becoming more resistant to drugs? | back 148 no data |
front 149 What are the ESKAPE pathogens? | back 149
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front 150 Phases of clinical trials | back 150
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front 151 Randomization | back 151 is the process by which two or more alternative treatments are assigned to volunteers by chance rather than by choice. This is done to avoid any bias with investigators assigning volunteers to one group or another. The results of each treatment are compared at specific points during a trial, which may last for years. When one treatment is found superior, the trial is stopped so that the fewest volunteers receive the less beneficial treatment. |
front 152 single-or double-blind studies | back 152 also called single- or double-masked studies, the participants do not know which medicine is being used, so they can describe what happens without bias. "Blind" (or "masked") studies are designed to prevent members of the research team or study participants from influencing the results. This allows scientifically accurate conclusions. In single-blind ("single-masked") studies, only the patient is not told what is being administered. In a double-blind study, only the pharmacist knows; members of the research team are not told which patients are getting which medication, so that their observations will not be biased. If medically necessary, however, it is always possible to find out what the patient is taking. |
front 153 Microbes outnumber our cells by _______ times and occupy about ____%-____% of out body’s mass. | back 153 no data |
front 154 Superorganism | back 154 humans and their microbes as a single, functioning, interactive unit that shares nutrients, metabolism, genetic information and stays in constant communication. |
front 155 Human microbiome | back 155 the collective total of genetic material from all microbiota Many species of microbes growing in and on the human body are cannot be cultured. The Human Microbiome Project does not rely on culturing microbes. The Human Microbiome Project takes samples from people, extracts DNA and sequences it to identify the microbes present. |