Which of the following hormones is not derived from an amino acid?

A. Dopamine

B. Seratonin

C. Melatonin

D. Thyroid hormones

E. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

F. ADH

F. ADH

Which hormones are derived from amino acids?

Tryptophan derivatives and tyrosine derivatives

Peptide hormones are

1. A) composed of amino acids.
2. B) synthesized as prohormones.
3. C) derived from the amino acid tyrosine.
4. D) lipids.
5. E) A and B

E. A and B

What are prohormones?

Inactive molecules converted to active hormones before or after they are secreted

11) Why is it that steroid hormones use receptors inside of target cells, whereas protein, peptide, and amino acid hormones do not?

A) Steroids can cross the cell membrane because they are lipids and the membrane is lipid.

B) Amino acids and peptide hormones do not have a 3 dimensional structure that can bind to internal receptors.

C) Cells are full of steroid molecules so it is easy for steroid molecules to enter.

D) The target cells affected by steroid hormones have all of their receptors in the cell cytoplasm.

E) All of the answers are correct

1. A) Steroids can cross the cell membrane because they are lipids and the membrane is lipid.

15) All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they

1. A) are produced by the suprarenal medulla.
2. B) are derived from cholesterol.
3. C) are produced by reproductive glands.
4. D) bind to receptors within the cell.
5. E) are lipids.

1. A) are produced by the suprarenal medulla.

2) The intracellular protein ________ binds calcium ion. This complex can then activate enzymes.

1. A) prostaglandin
2. B) leukotrieneiuretic factor
3. C) cyclic AMP
4. D) calmodulin
5. E) kinase

D) calmodulin

25) The most complex endocrine responses involve the

1. A) thyroid gland.
2. B) pancreas.
3. C) suprarenal glands.
4. D) hypothalamus.
5. E) thymus gland.

1. D) hypothalamus.

59) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce how many hormones?

1. A) 3
2. B) 5
3. C) 7
4. D) 9
5. E) 16

1. D) 9

The hormone produced by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis during early childhood is

1. A) FSH.
2. B) ADH.
3. C) TSH.
4. D) MSH.
5. E) ACTH.

1. D) MSH.

58) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) is secreted by the human pars intermedia by all of the following except:

1. A) during pregnancy.
2. B) in very young children.
3. C) during fetal development.
4. D) in some disease processes.
5. E) after androgens are not produced

1. E) after androgens are not produced

The hypothalamus controls secretion in the adenohypophysis by

1. A) direct neural stimulation.
2. B) indirect osmotic control.
3. C) secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system.
4. D) altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary.
5. E) gap synaptic junctions.

C) secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system.

37) Secretory cells of the adenohypophysis release

1. A) FSH.
2. B) TSH.
3. C) ACTH.
4. D) GH.
5. E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

The main action of antidiuretic hormone is

1. A) increased water conservation by kidneys.
2. B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.
3. C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid.
4. D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption.
5. E) inhibition of aldosterone.

1. A) increased water conservation by kidneys.

Mental and physical sluggishness and low body temperature may be signs of

1. A) hyperthyroidism.
2. B) hypothyroidism.
3. C) hyperparathyroidism.
4. D) hypoparathyroidism.
5. E) diabetes insipidus

B) hypothyroidism.

Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except

1. A) epinephrine.
2. B) norepinephrine.
3. C) thyroid hormone.
4. D) testosterone.
5. E) melatonin.

1. D) testosterone.

75) The C cells of the thyroid gland produce

1. A) thyroxine.
2. B) TSH.
3. C) calcitonin.
4. D) PTH.
5. E) triiodothyronine

1. C) calcitonin.

73) A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is

1. A) parathyroid hormone.
2. B) thyroxine.
3. C) calcitonin.
4. D) glucagon.
5. E) oxytocin.

C) calcitonin

85) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except

1. A) stimulate osteoclast activity.
2. B) inhibit osteoblast activity.
3. C) build up bone.
4. D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys.
5. E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys.

C) build up bone.

86) The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) growth hormone.
4. D) parathyroid hormone.
5. E) thyroid hormone.

D) parathyroid hormone.

89) The zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex produces

1. A) androgens.
2. B) glucocorticoids.
3. C) mineralocorticoids.
4. D) epinephrine.
5. E) norepinephrine.

1. B) glucocorticoids.

Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex would result in

1. A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair.
2. B) increased volume of urine formation.
3. C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood.
4. D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose.
5. E) increased water retention.

1. D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose.

96) The adrenal medulla produces the hormones

1. A) synephrine and neosynephrine.
2. B) epinephrine and norepinephrine.
3. C) corticosterone and testosterone.
4. D) androgens and progesterone.
5. E) norcortisol and cortisol.

B) epinephrine and norepinephrine

A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in all of the following excepts:

• The rate of glucose synthesis by the liver
• Rate of glycogen formation by the liver
• Fatty acids in the blood
• Fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells
• osteoclast activity

osteoclast activity

122) The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) somatostatin.
4. D) cortisol.
5. E) peptide P.

1. C) somatostatin.

121) The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) somatostatin.
4. D) cortisol.
5. E) peptide P.

A) insulin

121) The alpha cells of the pancreatic islets produce

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) somatostatin.
4. D) cortisol.
5. E) peptide P.

1. B) glucagon.

124) Type II diabetes is characterized by

1. A) a lack of response by target cells to insulin.
2. B) a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells.
3. C) excessive secretion of glucagon.
4. D) inadequate insulin production.
5. E) low blood-glucose concentration.

1. A) a lack of response by target cells to insulin.

Which organs have secondary endocrine functions?

• Intestines (digestive system)
• Kidneys (urinary system)
• Heart (cardiovascular system)
• Thymus (lymphatic system and immunity)
• Gonads (reproductive system)

The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of

1. A) angiotensin.
2. B) cortisol.
3. C) erythropoietin.
4. D) atrial natriuretic peptide.
5. E) adrenaline.

1. A) angiotensin.

All are actions of angiotensin II except:

• Elevated blood pressure
• Increased retention of sodium ions by the kidneys
• Increased vestibular nerve activity
• Increased water retention
• Increased blood volume

• Increased vestibular nerve activity

138) The hormones that are important for coordinating the immune response are

1. A) thymosins.
2. B) corticosteroids.
3. C) aldosterones.
4. D) thyroxines.
5. E) somatotropins

1. A) thymosins.

51) The pituitary hormone that produces estrogen in the ovaries is

1. A) TSH.
2. B) ACTH.
3. C) FSH.
4. D) LH.
5. E) GH.

1. C) FSH.

47) Growth hormone does all of the following except

1. A) promote bone growth.
2. B) promote muscle growth.
3. C) speed up metabolism.
4. D) spare glucose.
5. E) promote amino acid uptake by cells.

1. C) speed up metabolism.

144) The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is

1. A) testosterone.
2. B) aldosterone.
3. C) cortisol.
4. D) thyroid hormone.
5. E) epinephrine.

1. E) epinephrine.

150) The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by

1. A) failure of electrolyte balance.
2. B) increasing ability to produce glucose from glycogen.
3. C) increased pumping effectiveness of the heart.
4. D) a sharp increase in motivation and energy.
5. E) an increase in urine output.

1. A) failure of electrolyte balance.

All of the following are characteristics of blood except:

A. Contains buffers that control pH

B. does not carry oxygen

C. pH 7.3 to 7.4

D. More viscous than water

E. Cells in blood comprise the formed elements

B. does not carry oxygen

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?

A) traslipin
B) steroid-binding proteins
C) hormone-binding proteins
D) albumin
E) gamma globulin

D) albumin

Which transport protein is the most predominate?

A) globulins

B) albumins

C) Fibrinogen

B) albumins

What is fibrinogen?

A. globular proteins

B. transport proteins

C. immunoglobulins

D. Molecules that form clots and produce long, insoluble strands of fibrin

E. none of the above

D. Molecules that form clots and produce long, insoluble strands of fibrin

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the _______.

A) viscosity.
B) specific gravity.
C) packed volume.
D) hematocrit.
E) differential cell count.

D) hematocrit.

A hematocrit provides information on _____.

A) blood type
B) clotting factors.
C) formed elements abundance.
D) plasma composition.
E) sedimentation rate.

C) formed elements abundance.

Which of the following is the most abundant formed element?

A. Neutrophils

B. Monocytes

C. Erythrocytes

D. Eosinophils

C. Erythrocytes

What happens to RBCs after about 120 days?

aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the spleen, liver and one marrow.

What do RBCs lack?

A. mitochondria

B. nuclei

C. Ribosomes

D. repair mechanism

E. all of the above

E. all of the above

What is the function of hemoglobin?

to transport respiratory gases

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if ____.

A) the diet is deficient in iron.
B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.
C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.
D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen.
E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.

C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?

A) during coagulation
B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver.
C) iron-deficient diet.
D) low hematocrit.
E) low blood volume.

B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver.

How is bilirubin produced and what does it cause??

it is produced from heme molecules lacking iron, causes jaundice

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron?

A) hemoglobin
B) ferritin
C) heosiderin
D) transerrin
E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

What is the function of transport proteins in iron recycling?

Make the iron stable

Red bone marrow is the primary site of formation of which of the following?

A. RBC

B. WBC

C. RBC and WBC

D. None of the above

C. RBC and WBC

_______ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.

A) Erythroblasts
B) Normoblasts
C) Myeloblasts
D) Band cells
E) Reticulocytes

E) Reticulocytes

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except ________.

A) anemia.
B) high altitude.
C) as a consequence of hemorrhage.
D) periods of fasting.
E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

D) periods of fasting.

Anit-D antibodies are present in the blood of _____.

A) all individuals with type AB blood.
B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.
C) all Rh positive individuals.
D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed toe the D surface antigen.
E) all Rh negative individuals.

B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusion because ______.

A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.
B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies.
C) their blood is plentiful in A and B antibodies.
D) they usually have very strong immune systems.
E) they are usually Rh negative.

B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies.

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with anti-B or anti-D sera. What does this mean?

A) Bill could receive type B- negative blood in a transfusion.
B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood.
C) Bill is Rh positive.
D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies
E) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen.

D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies

Neutrophils have all of the following characteristics except:

A. Most abundant of WBC
B. Can make h2o2 . C.can exit capillary

D.destroy bacteria
E. specialize in attacking parasites

E. specialize in attacking parasites

Which of the following leukocytes is also called PMNLS and comprises 50-70% of circulating WBCs?

A. Monocytes

B. Neutrophils

C. Eosinophils

D. Basophils

E. Lymphocytes

B. Neutrophils

Which of the following are characteristics of basophils?

A. accumulate in damaged tissue

B. release heparin

C. release histamine

D. all of the choices are correct

E. none of the choices are correct

D. all of the choices are correct

Which cell attacks foreign cells directly and is part of cell-mediated immunity?

T cells

Which cells are part of humoral immunity and differentiate into plasma cells?

B cells

What is the site of lymphopoiesis?

A. Red bone marrow

B. thymus

C. Spleen

D. Lymph nodes

E. all of the above

E. all of the above

What is the third phase of hemostasis that involves proenzymes and the conversion of fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin?

A. coagulation

B. vascular

C. platelet

A. coagulation

Put these steps of the common pathway in hemostasis in order

1thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

2forms the proenzyme prothrombinase

3the conversion of factor X to prothrombinase

4converts prothrombin to thrombin

3,2,4,1

Which of the following vitamins are essential to the clotting process?

A. Vitamin B

B. Vitamin K

C. Calcium

D. Vitamin B and Calcium

E. Vitamin K and calcium

E. Vitamin K and calcium

What is the process of fibrinolysis?

Thrombin (fibrinogen-fibrin) and t-PA activate plasminogen to produce plasmin and digest fibrin strands

What is an embolus?

A moving clot

What are plaques?

Areas in a vessel where large quantities of lipid accumulate

The heart beats approximately ________ times each day.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 10,000,000

C) 100,000

The visceral pericardium is the same as the
A) mediastinum.
B) parietal pericardium.
C) epicardium.
D) myocardium.
E) endocardium.

C) epicardium.

Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell.
A) ionic currents
B) action potentials
C) the force of contraction
D) electrical signals
E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is going to be on the exam?
A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus.
C) Cardiac muscles have more mitochondria and more blood supply.
D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs.
E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules

C) Cardiac muscles have more mitochondria and more blood supply.

The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the
A) foramen ovale.
B) interatrial septum.
C) coronary sinus.
D) fossa ovalis.
E) ligamentum arteriosus.

A) foramen ovale.

The right ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right and left lungs.
B) left ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) aorta.
E) right atrium.

A) right and left lungs.

The bicuspid or mitral valve is located
A) in the opening of the aorta.
B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.
C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium.
D) between the right atrium and right ventricle.
E) between the left atrium and left ventricle.

E) between the left atrium and left ventricle.

The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to
A) papillary muscles.
B) trabeculae carneae.
C) chordae tendineae.
D) interatrial septa.
E) coronary sulci.

C) chordae tendineae.

Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.A

A) right atrium.

What is the flow of blood from the systemic circuit?

venae cavae, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta

Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.

C) left atrium.

The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries.
A) pulmonary
B) coronary
C) circumflex
D) carotid
E) subclavian

B) coronary

How does the cardiac cycle being?

With an action potential at the SA node

What is the sequence in which excitation moves through the cardiac system?

SA node>AV node>AV bundle>bundle branches>Purkinje fibers

Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute.
A) 20-40
B) 40-60
C) 80-100
D) 100-140
E) 140-180

C) 80-100

Pacemaker cells isolated from the AV node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute.
A) 20-40
B) 40-60
C) 80-100
D) 100-140
E) 140-180

B) 40-60

Pacemaker cells in the SA node
A) have a well-defined resting potential.
B) can spontaneously depolarize.
C) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall.
D) are special neurons that convey signals from the brain to the heart.
E) All of the answers are correct.

B) can spontaneously depolarize.

An ECG reveals all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Heart rate

B. Effects of drugs and poisons

C. Blood pressure

D. Duration of the ventricular action potential

E. Condition of the conducting system

C. Blood pressure

The T wave on an ECG tracing represents
A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
E) ventricular contraction.

D) ventricular repolarization.

The P wave on an ECG tracing represents
A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
E) ventricular contraction.

A) atrial depolarization.

The QRS complex on an ECG tracing represents
A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
E) ventricular contraction.

C) ventricular depolarization.

Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) QRS complex
D) P-R interval
E) R-T interval

C) QRS complex

Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the
A) pons.
B) thalamus.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) hypothalamus.
E) higher centers.

C) medulla oblongata.

The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons.
A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false.
B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true.
C) Both parts of the statement are true.
D) Both parts of the statement are false.
E) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.

E) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.

An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to
A) increase in heart rate.
B) decrease in heart rate.
C) decrease in blood pressure.
D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.
E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.

D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.

The heart is innervated by ________ nerves.
A) parasympathetic
B) sympathetic
C) both parasympathetic and sympathetic
D) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic
E) somatomotor

C) both parasympathetic and sympathetic

Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase?
A) alpha-one receptor
B) beta-one receptor
C) muscarinic receptor
D) beta-two receptor
E) preganglionic

B) beta-one receptor

Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction.
B) decrease blood pressure.
C) dilate the coronary arteries.
D) produce a negative inotropic effect.
E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

The smallest arterial branches are called the
A) precapillary arterioles.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.

B) arterioles.

After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.

D) venules.

Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue?
A) tunica intima
B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica media
D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica externa

C) tunica media

Turbulent blood flow occurs
A) when there are irregularities in the vessel wall.
B) at high flow rates.
C) when there are sudden changes in vessel diameter.
D) when blood pressure is excessively high.
E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Of the following arteries, the one that is an elastic artery is
A) the subclavian artery.
B) the external carotid artery.
C) the brachial artery.
D) the femoral artery.
E) the ulnar artery.

A) the subclavian artery.

Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
A) perforated capillaries.
B) discontinuous capillaries.
C) fenestrated capillaries.
D) sinuses.
E) vasa vasorum.

C) fenestrated capillaries.

Order that blood will encounter as it flows from the output side to the input side of the cardiovascular flow circuit:

I. Elastic arteries

II. Capillaries

III. Medium veins

IV. Musculararteries

V. Large veins

VI. Venules

VII. Arterioles

I, IV, VII, II, VI, III, V

Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States.
A) 30
B) 60
C) 20
D) 50
E) 25

D) 50

Arteriosclerosis can lead to
A) hypertension.
B) stroke.
C) coronary artery disease.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) veins.
D) venules.
E) capillaries.

E) capillaries.

The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure.
A) systolic; diastolic
B) hydrostatic; osmotic
C) blood; interstitial
D) osmotic; hydrostatic
E) plasma; extracellular

B) hydrostatic; osmotic

What vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein

E) vein

Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's blood?
A) pulmonary arteries
B) capillaries
C) systemic arterioles
D) veins
E) arteries

D) veins

What is the percentage of blood volume in heart, arteries and capillaries?

30-35%

As blood travels from arteries to veins,
A) pressure builds.
B) pressure drops.
C) flow becomes turbulent.
D) viscosity increases.
E) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller.

B) pressure drops.

Blood pressure is determined by
A) measuring the size of the pulse.
B) listening carefully to the pulse.
C) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff.
D) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel.
E) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle.

C) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff.

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure.
A) critical closing
B) mean arterial
C) pulse
D) blood
E) circulatory

C) pulse

Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to
A) arteriovenous pressure.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure.
C) arterial pressure.
D) peripheral pressure.
E) pulse pressure.

C) arterial pressure.

The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the
A) concentration of plasma sodium ions.
B) concentration of plasma glucose.
C) concentration of plasma waste products.
D) concentration of plasma proteins.
E) number of red blood cells.

D) concentration of plasma proteins.

What does EPO respond to?

low blood pressure and low O2 content in blood

Hormones that will cause an increase in BP:

Increased levels of aldosterone.

Increased levels of angiotensin II.

Increased blood volume.

Increased levels of ADH.

True

In response to hemorrhage, there is
A) peripheral vasodilation.
B) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) mobilization of the venous reserve.
D) constriction of elastic arteries to maintain blood pressure.
E) All of the answers are correct.

C) mobilization of the venous reserve.

At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery.
A) iliac
B) deep femoral
C) popliteal
D) tibial
E) peroneal

C) popliteal

Branches of the popliteal artery include the
A) femoral artery.
B) tibial artery.
C) iliac artery.
D) dorsalis pedis.
E) plantar arch.

B) tibial artery.

An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery.
A) internal carotid
B) external carotid
C) mental
D) azygos
E) maxillary

A) internal carotid

The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the
A) common carotid artery.
B) basal ring.
C) cerebral arterial circle. (circle of Willis)
D) external carotid artery.
E) arterial bypass

C) cerebral arterial circle. (circle of Willis)

Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein.
A) vertebral
B) azygos
C) innominate
D) internal jugular
E) external jugular

D) internal jugular

The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the
A) internal jugular vein.
B) external jugular vein.
C) superior vena cava.
D) inferior vena cava.
E) coronary sinus.

C) superior vena cava.

The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) arms.
E) legs.

C) brain.

The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein.
A) azygos
B) hemiazygos
C) axillary
D) brachial
E) basilic

D) brachial

The two common iliac veins form the
A) femoral vein.
B) greater saphenous vein.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) innominate vein.

C) inferior vena cava.

The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver sinusoids for processing.
A) hepatic artery
B) gastric vein
C) myenteric capillaries
D) hepatic portal system
E) superior mesenteric vein

D) hepatic portal system

Elderly individuals are more prone than are younger individuals to have all of the following, except
A) hypertension.
B) venous thrombosis.
C) increased elasticity of vessel walls.
D) problems with the conducting system of the heart.
E) arteriosclerosis.

C) increased elasticity of vessel walls.

What is pulse pressure?

What is mean arterial pressure?

pulse pressure: the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

MAP: diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure