Exam 1 Flashcards

________ are chemical messengers that are released by cells and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues.

1. A) Hormones
2. B) Neuropeptides
3. C) Neurotransmitters
4. D) Humoral antibodies
5. E) Antigens

All target cells

1. A) have hormone receptors.
2. B) respond to electrical signals.
3. C) secrete hormones.
4. D) produce their own hormones.
5. E)are in the blood.

Hormones known as "catecholamines" are

1. A) lipids.
2. B) peptides.
3. C) steroids.
4. D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
5. E) derivatives of reproductive glands.

Thyroid hormones are structural derivatives of the amino acid

1. A) glutamic acid.
2. B) epinephrine.
3. C) iodine.
4. D) tyrosine.
5. E) glycine

Which of the following hormones is not derived from an amino acid?

A. Dopamine

B. Seratonin

C. Melatonin

D. Thyroid hormones

E. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

F. ADH

Which hormones are derived from amino acids?

Peptide hormones are

1. A) composed of amino acids.
2. B) synthesized as prohormones.
3. C) derived from the amino acid tyrosine.
4. D) lipids.
5. E) A and B

What are prohormones?

11) Why is it that steroid hormones use receptors inside of target cells, whereas protein, peptide, and amino acid hormones do not?

A) Steroids can cross the cell membrane because they are lipids and the membrane is lipid.

B) Amino acids and peptide hormones do not have a 3 dimensional structure that can bind to internal receptors.

C) Cells are full of steroid molecules so it is easy for steroid molecules to enter.

D) The target cells affected by steroid hormones have all of their receptors in the cell cytoplasm.

E) All of the answers are correct

15) All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they

1. A) are produced by the suprarenal medulla.
2. B) are derived from cholesterol.
3. C) are produced by reproductive glands.
4. D) bind to receptors within the cell.
5. E) are lipids.

2) The intracellular protein ________ binds calcium ion. This complex can then activate enzymes.

1. A) prostaglandin
2. B) leukotrieneiuretic factor
3. C) cyclic AMP
4. D) calmodulin
5. E) kinase

25) The most complex endocrine responses involve the

1. A) thyroid gland.
2. B) pancreas.
3. C) suprarenal glands.
4. D) hypothalamus.
5. E) thymus gland.

59) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce how many hormones?

1. A) 3
2. B) 5
3. C) 7
4. D) 9
5. E) 16

The hormone produced by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis during early childhood is

1. A) FSH.
2. B) ADH.
3. C) TSH.
4. D) MSH.
5. E) ACTH.

58) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) is secreted by the human pars intermedia by all of the following except:

1. A) during pregnancy.
2. B) in very young children.
3. C) during fetal development.
4. D) in some disease processes.
5. E) after androgens are not produced

The hypothalamus controls secretion in the adenohypophysis by

1. A) direct neural stimulation.
2. B) indirect osmotic control.
3. C) secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system.
4. D) altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary.
5. E) gap synaptic junctions.

37) Secretory cells of the adenohypophysis release

1. A) FSH.
2. B) TSH.
3. C) ACTH.
4. D) GH.
5. E) All of the answers are correct

The main action of antidiuretic hormone is

1. A) increased water conservation by kidneys.
2. B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.
3. C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid.
4. D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption.
5. E) inhibition of aldosterone.

Mental and physical sluggishness and low body temperature may be signs of

1. A) hyperthyroidism.
2. B) hypothyroidism.
3. C) hyperparathyroidism.
4. D) hypoparathyroidism.
5. E) diabetes insipidus

Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except

1. A) epinephrine.
2. B) norepinephrine.
3. C) thyroid hormone.
4. D) testosterone.
5. E) melatonin.

75) The C cells of the thyroid gland produce

1. A) thyroxine.
2. B) TSH.
3. C) calcitonin.
4. D) PTH.
5. E) triiodothyronine

73) A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is

1. A) parathyroid hormone.
2. B) thyroxine.
3. C) calcitonin.
4. D) glucagon.
5. E) oxytocin.

85) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except

1. A) stimulate osteoclast activity.
2. B) inhibit osteoblast activity.
3. C) build up bone.
4. D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys.
5. E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys.

86) The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) growth hormone.
4. D) parathyroid hormone.
5. E) thyroid hormone.

89) The zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex produces

1. A) androgens.
2. B) glucocorticoids.
3. C) mineralocorticoids.
4. D) epinephrine.
5. E) norepinephrine.

Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex would result in

1. A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair.
2. B) increased volume of urine formation.
3. C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood.
4. D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose.
5. E) increased water retention.

96) The adrenal medulla produces the hormones

1. A) synephrine and neosynephrine.
2. B) epinephrine and norepinephrine.
3. C) corticosterone and testosterone.
4. D) androgens and progesterone.
5. E) norcortisol and cortisol.

A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in all of the following excepts:

• The rate of glucose synthesis by the liver
• Rate of glycogen formation by the liver
• Fatty acids in the blood
• Fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells
• osteoclast activity

122) The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) somatostatin.
4. D) cortisol.
5. E) peptide P.

121) The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) somatostatin.
4. D) cortisol.
5. E) peptide P.

121) The alpha cells of the pancreatic islets produce

1. A) insulin.
2. B) glucagon.
3. C) somatostatin.
4. D) cortisol.
5. E) peptide P.

124) Type II diabetes is characterized by

1. A) a lack of response by target cells to insulin.
2. B) a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells.
3. C) excessive secretion of glucagon.
4. D) inadequate insulin production.
5. E) low blood-glucose concentration.

Which organs have secondary endocrine functions?

The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of

1. A) angiotensin.
2. B) cortisol.
3. C) erythropoietin.
4. D) atrial natriuretic peptide.
5. E) adrenaline.

All are actions of angiotensin II except:

• Elevated blood pressure
• Increased retention of sodium ions by the kidneys
• Increased vestibular nerve activity
• Increased water retention
• Increased blood volume

138) The hormones that are important for coordinating the immune response are

1. A) thymosins.
2. B) corticosteroids.
3. C) aldosterones.
4. D) thyroxines.
5. E) somatotropins

51) The pituitary hormone that produces estrogen in the ovaries is

1. A) TSH.
2. B) ACTH.
3. C) FSH.
4. D) LH.
5. E) GH.

47) Growth hormone does all of the following except

1. A) promote bone growth.
2. B) promote muscle growth.
3. C) speed up metabolism.
4. D) spare glucose.
5. E) promote amino acid uptake by cells.

144) The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is

1. A) testosterone.
2. B) aldosterone.
3. C) cortisol.
4. D) thyroid hormone.
5. E) epinephrine.

150) The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by

1. A) failure of electrolyte balance.
2. B) increasing ability to produce glucose from glycogen.
3. C) increased pumping effectiveness of the heart.
4. D) a sharp increase in motivation and energy.
5. E) an increase in urine output.

All of the following are characteristics of blood except:

A. Contains buffers that control pH

B. does not carry oxygen

C. pH 7.3 to 7.4

D. More viscous than water

E. Cells in blood comprise the formed elements

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?

A) traslipin
B) steroid-binding proteins
C) hormone-binding proteins
D) albumin
E) gamma globulin

Which transport protein is the most predominate?

A) globulins

B) albumins

C) Fibrinogen

What is fibrinogen?

A. globular proteins

B. transport proteins

C. immunoglobulins

D. Molecules that form clots and produce long, insoluble strands of fibrin

E. none of the above

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the _______.

A) viscosity.
B) specific gravity.
C) packed volume.
D) hematocrit.
E) differential cell count.

A hematocrit provides information on _____.

A) blood type
B) clotting factors.
C) formed elements abundance.
D) plasma composition.
E) sedimentation rate.

Which of the following is the most abundant formed element?

A. Neutrophils

B. Monocytes

C. Erythrocytes

D. Eosinophils

What happens to RBCs after about 120 days?

What do RBCs lack?

A. mitochondria

B. nuclei

C. Ribosomes

D. repair mechanism

E. all of the above

What is the function of hemoglobin?

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if ____.

A) the diet is deficient in iron.
B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.
C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.
D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen.
E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?

A) during coagulation
B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver.
C) iron-deficient diet.
D) low hematocrit.
E) low blood volume.

How is bilirubin produced and what does it cause??

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron?

A) hemoglobin
B) ferritin
C) heosiderin
D) transerrin
E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

What is the function of transport proteins in iron recycling?

Red bone marrow is the primary site of formation of which of the following?

A. RBC

B. WBC

C. RBC and WBC

D. None of the above

_______ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.

A) Erythroblasts
B) Normoblasts
C) Myeloblasts
D) Band cells
E) Reticulocytes

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except ________.

A) anemia.
B) high altitude.
C) as a consequence of hemorrhage.
D) periods of fasting.
E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

Anit-D antibodies are present in the blood of _____.

A) all individuals with type AB blood.
B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.
C) all Rh positive individuals.
D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed toe the D surface antigen.
E) all Rh negative individuals.

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusion because ______.

A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.
B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies.
C) their blood is plentiful in A and B antibodies.
D) they usually have very strong immune systems.
E) they are usually Rh negative.

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with anti-B or anti-D sera. What does this mean?

A) Bill could receive type B- negative blood in a transfusion.
B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood.
C) Bill is Rh positive.
D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies
E) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen.

Neutrophils have all of the following characteristics except:

A. Most abundant of WBC
B. Can make h2o2 . C.can exit capillary

D.destroy bacteria
E. specialize in attacking parasites

Which of the following leukocytes is also called PMNLS and comprises 50-70% of circulating WBCs?

A. Monocytes

B. Neutrophils

C. Eosinophils

D. Basophils

E. Lymphocytes

Which of the following are characteristics of basophils?

A. accumulate in damaged tissue

B. release heparin

C. release histamine

D. all of the choices are correct

E. none of the choices are correct

Which cell attacks foreign cells directly and is part of cell-mediated immunity?

Which cells are part of humoral immunity and differentiate into plasma cells?

What is the site of lymphopoiesis?

A. Red bone marrow

B. thymus

C. Spleen

D. Lymph nodes

E. all of the above

What is the third phase of hemostasis that involves proenzymes and the conversion of fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin?

A. coagulation

B. vascular

C. platelet

Put these steps of the common pathway in hemostasis in order

1thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

2forms the proenzyme prothrombinase

3the conversion of factor X to prothrombinase

4converts prothrombin to thrombin

Which of the following vitamins are essential to the clotting process?

A. Vitamin B

B. Vitamin K

C. Calcium

D. Vitamin B and Calcium

E. Vitamin K and calcium

What is the process of fibrinolysis?

What is an embolus?

What are plaques?

The heart beats approximately ________ times each day.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 10,000,000

The visceral pericardium is the same as the
A) mediastinum.
B) parietal pericardium.
C) epicardium.
D) myocardium.
E) endocardium.

Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell.
A) ionic currents
B) action potentials
C) the force of contraction
D) electrical signals
E) All of the answers are correct.

Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is going to be on the exam?
A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus.
C) Cardiac muscles have more mitochondria and more blood supply.
D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs.
E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules

The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the
A) foramen ovale.
B) interatrial septum.
C) coronary sinus.
D) fossa ovalis.
E) ligamentum arteriosus.

The right ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right and left lungs.
B) left ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) aorta.
E) right atrium.

The bicuspid or mitral valve is located
A) in the opening of the aorta.
B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.
C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium.
D) between the right atrium and right ventricle.
E) between the left atrium and left ventricle.

The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to
A) papillary muscles.
B) trabeculae carneae.
C) chordae tendineae.
D) interatrial septa.
E) coronary sulci.

Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.A

What is the flow of blood from the systemic circuit?

Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.

The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries.
A) pulmonary
B) coronary
C) circumflex
D) carotid
E) subclavian

How does the cardiac cycle being?

What is the sequence in which excitation moves through the cardiac system?

Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute.
A) 20-40
B) 40-60
C) 80-100
D) 100-140
E) 140-180

Pacemaker cells isolated from the AV node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute.
A) 20-40
B) 40-60
C) 80-100
D) 100-140
E) 140-180

Pacemaker cells in the SA node
A) have a well-defined resting potential.
B) can spontaneously depolarize.
C) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall.
D) are special neurons that convey signals from the brain to the heart.
E) All of the answers are correct.

An ECG reveals all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Heart rate

B. Effects of drugs and poisons

C. Blood pressure

D. Duration of the ventricular action potential

E. Condition of the conducting system

The T wave on an ECG tracing represents
A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
E) ventricular contraction.

The P wave on an ECG tracing represents
A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
E) ventricular contraction.

The QRS complex on an ECG tracing represents
A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
E) ventricular contraction.

Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) QRS complex
D) P-R interval
E) R-T interval

Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the
A) pons.
B) thalamus.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) hypothalamus.
E) higher centers.

The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons.
A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false.
B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true.
C) Both parts of the statement are true.
D) Both parts of the statement are false.
E) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.

An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to
A) increase in heart rate.
B) decrease in heart rate.
C) decrease in blood pressure.
D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.
E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.

The heart is innervated by ________ nerves.
A) parasympathetic
B) sympathetic
C) both parasympathetic and sympathetic
D) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic
E) somatomotor

Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase?
A) alpha-one receptor
B) beta-one receptor
C) muscarinic receptor
D) beta-two receptor
E) preganglionic

Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction.
B) decrease blood pressure.
C) dilate the coronary arteries.
D) produce a negative inotropic effect.
E) All of the answers are correct.

The smallest arterial branches are called the
A) precapillary arterioles.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.

After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.

Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue?
A) tunica intima
B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica media
D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica externa

Turbulent blood flow occurs
A) when there are irregularities in the vessel wall.
B) at high flow rates.
C) when there are sudden changes in vessel diameter.
D) when blood pressure is excessively high.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Of the following arteries, the one that is an elastic artery is
A) the subclavian artery.
B) the external carotid artery.
C) the brachial artery.
D) the femoral artery.
E) the ulnar artery.

Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
A) perforated capillaries.
B) discontinuous capillaries.
C) fenestrated capillaries.
D) sinuses.
E) vasa vasorum.

Order that blood will encounter as it flows from the output side to the input side of the cardiovascular flow circuit:

I. Elastic arteries

II. Capillaries

III. Medium veins

IV. Musculararteries

V. Large veins

VI. Venules

VII. Arterioles

Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States.
A) 30
B) 60
C) 20
D) 50
E) 25

Arteriosclerosis can lead to
A) hypertension.
B) stroke.
C) coronary artery disease.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) veins.
D) venules.
E) capillaries.

The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure.
A) systolic; diastolic
B) hydrostatic; osmotic
C) blood; interstitial
D) osmotic; hydrostatic
E) plasma; extracellular

What vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein

Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's blood?
A) pulmonary arteries
B) capillaries
C) systemic arterioles
D) veins
E) arteries

What is the percentage of blood volume in heart, arteries and capillaries?

As blood travels from arteries to veins,
A) pressure builds.
B) pressure drops.
C) flow becomes turbulent.
D) viscosity increases.
E) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller.

Blood pressure is determined by
A) measuring the size of the pulse.
B) listening carefully to the pulse.
C) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff.
D) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel.
E) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle.

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure.
A) critical closing
B) mean arterial
C) pulse
D) blood
E) circulatory

Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to
A) arteriovenous pressure.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure.
C) arterial pressure.
D) peripheral pressure.
E) pulse pressure.

The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the
A) concentration of plasma sodium ions.
B) concentration of plasma glucose.
C) concentration of plasma waste products.
D) concentration of plasma proteins.
E) number of red blood cells.

What does EPO respond to?

Hormones that will cause an increase in BP:

Increased levels of aldosterone.

Increased levels of angiotensin II.

Increased blood volume.

Increased levels of ADH.

In response to hemorrhage, there is
A) peripheral vasodilation.
B) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) mobilization of the venous reserve.
D) constriction of elastic arteries to maintain blood pressure.
E) All of the answers are correct.

At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery.
A) iliac
B) deep femoral
C) popliteal
D) tibial
E) peroneal

Branches of the popliteal artery include the
A) femoral artery.
B) tibial artery.
C) iliac artery.
D) dorsalis pedis.
E) plantar arch.

An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery.
A) internal carotid
B) external carotid
C) mental
D) azygos
E) maxillary

The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the
A) common carotid artery.
B) basal ring.
C) cerebral arterial circle. (circle of Willis)
D) external carotid artery.
E) arterial bypass

Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein.
A) vertebral
B) azygos
C) innominate
D) internal jugular
E) external jugular

The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the
A) internal jugular vein.
B) external jugular vein.
C) superior vena cava.
D) inferior vena cava.
E) coronary sinus.

The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) arms.
E) legs.

The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein.
A) azygos
B) hemiazygos
C) axillary
D) brachial
E) basilic

The two common iliac veins form the
A) femoral vein.
B) greater saphenous vein.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) innominate vein.

The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver sinusoids for processing.
A) hepatic artery
B) gastric vein
C) myenteric capillaries
D) hepatic portal system
E) superior mesenteric vein

Elderly individuals are more prone than are younger individuals to have all of the following, except
A) hypertension.
B) venous thrombosis.
C) increased elasticity of vessel walls.
D) problems with the conducting system of the heart.
E) arteriosclerosis.

What is pulse pressure?

What is mean arterial pressure?