front 1 1. The kidneys and ureters are located in the (intraperitoneal, infraperitoneal, extraperitonealm retroperitoneal) | back 1 Retroperitoneal |
front 2 2. The ____ glands are located directly superior to the kidneys | back 2 Suprarenal (adrenal) glands |
front 3 3. Which structures create a 20 degree angle between the upper pole and lower pole of the kidney | back 3 Psoas major muscles |
front 4 4. What is the specific name for the mass of fat that surrounds each kidney | back 4 perirenal fat or adipose capsule |
front 5 5. What degree or rotation from supine is required to place the kidneys parallel to the IR | back 5 30 degrees |
front 6 6. Which two landmarks can be palpated to located the kidneys | back 6 xiphoid process and iliac crest |
front 7 7. Which term describes an abnormal drop of the kidneys when the patient is placed erect | back 7 nephroptosis |
front 8 8 Three functions of the urinary system | back 8 remove nitrogenous waste, regulate water levels, regulate acid-base balance |
front 9 9. A buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood is called | back 9 uriemia |
front 10 10. The longitudinal fissure found along the central medial border of the kidney is called | back 10 hilum |
front 11 11. The peripheral or outer portion of the kidney is called the | back 11 cortex |
front 12 12. The term that describes the total functioning portion of the kidney is called. | back 12 renal parenchyma |
front 13 13. The microscopic functional and structural unit of the kidney is | back 13 nephron |
front 14 14. True or False: the efferent arterioles carry blood to the glomeruli | back 14 False |
front 15 15. What is another (older) name for the glomerular capsule | back 15 bowman capsule |
front 16 16. True or False: The glomerular capsule and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the medulla of the kidney | back 16 False |
front 17 17. Which structure of the medulla is made up of a collection of tubules that drain into the minor calyx | back 17 Renal pyramids |
front 18 18. Which two processes move urine through the ureters to the bladder | back 18 peristalsis and gravity |
front 19 19. Which structure is located most anterior as compared to the others listed (proximal ureters, kidneys, urinary bladder, suprarenal glands) | back 19 urinary bladder |
front 20 20. What is the name of the junction found between the distal ureters and urinary bladder? | back 20 Ureterovesical junction |
front 21 21. What is the name of inner, posterior region of the bladder formed by the two ureters entering and the urethra exiting? | back 21 Trigone |
front 22 22. What is the name of the small gland found just inferior to the male bladder | back 22 prostate |
front 23 23. The total capacity for the average adult bladder is | back 23 350 - 500 mL |
front 24 24. Which of the following is considered most posterior (ovaries, urethra, vagina, kidneys) | back 24 Kidneys |
front 25 25. Intravenous contrast media may be administered by either | back 25 bolus injection or drip infusion |
front 26 26. True or False: The patient (or guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncture procedure is performed on a pediatric patient. | back 26 True |
front 27 27. For most IVUs, veins in the ____ are recommended for venipuncture | back 27 antecubital fossa |
front 28 28. The most common size of needle used for bolus injections on a adult is | back 28 18 to 22 gauge |
front 29 29. The two most common types of needles used for bolus injection of contrast media are | back 29 butterfly and over-the-needle catheter |
front 30 30. List the six steps followed during a venipuncture procedure as listed and described in the book. | back 30 wash hands and put on gloves, select site, apply tourniquet , and clean site. Initiate puncture. Confirm entry and secure needle. Prepare and proceed with injection. Remove needle or catheter. |
front 31 31. True or False: The bevel of the needle needs to be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein. | back 31 False |
front 32 32. True or False: If extravasation occurs during the puncture, the technologist should slightly retract the needle and then push it forward again. | back 32 False |
front 33 33. True or False: If unsuccessful during the initial puncture, a new needle should be used during the second attempt. | back 33 True |
front 34 34. True or False: The radiologist is responsible for documenting all aspects of the venipuncture procedure in the patient's chart. | back 34 False |
front 35 35. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Uses a parent compound of a benzoic acid | back 35 Ionic |
front 36 36. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Will not significantly increase the osmolarity of the blood plasma | back 36 Nonionic |
front 37 37. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Incorporates sodium or meglumine to increase solubility of the contrast media | back 37 Ionic |
front 38 38. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Creates a hypertonic condition in the blood plasma | back 38 Ionic |
front 39 39. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Is more expensive | back 39 Nonionic |
front 40 40.The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Produces a less sever reactions | back 40 Nonionic |
front 41 41. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Poses a greater risk for disrupting homeostasis | back 41 Ionic |
front 42 42. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Is a near-isotonic solution | back 42 Nonionic |
front 43 41. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: Uses a parent compound of an amide or glucose group | back 43 Nonionic |
front 44 42. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic: May increase the severity of side effects | back 44 Ionic |
front 45 43. Which one of the following compounds is a common anion found in ionic contrast media (diatrizoate or iothalamate, sodium or meglumine, benzoic acid, none of the above) | back 45 Diatrizoate or iothalamate |
front 46 44. Any disruption in the physiologic functions of the body that may lead to a contrast media reaction is the basis for the: (homeostasis theory, Anaphylactoid theory, Vasovagal theory, Chemotoxic theory) | back 46 chemotoxic theroy |
front 47 45. An expected outcome to the introduction of contrast media is described as a | back 47 side effect |
front 48 46. The normal creatine level for an adult should range between | back 48 0.6 - 1.5mg/dL |
front 49 47. Normal BUN levels for an adult should range between | back 49 8-25 mg/100 mL |
front 50 48. Metformin hydrochloride is a drug that is taken for the management of | back 50 diabetes mellitus |
front 51 49. American college of radiology recommends that metformin be withheld for _____ hours after a contrast medium procedure and resumed only if kidney function is again determined within normal limits | back 51 48 |
front 52 50. The leakage of contrast media from a vessel into the surrounding soft tissues is called | back 52 extravasation (inflatration) |
front 53 51. List two general categories of contrast media reactions | back 53 local and systemic |
front 54 52. Which type of reaction is a true allergic response to iodinated contrast media | back 54 anaphylactic reaction |
front 55 53. Which type of reaction is caused by stimulation of the vagus nerve by introduction of a contrast medium, which causes heart rate and blood pressure to fall | back 55 Vasovagal reaction |
front 56 54. True or False: Vasovagal reactions are not considered to be life threating | back 56 False |
front 57 55. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Bradycardia (<50 beats/minute) | back 57 Severe |
front 58 56. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Tachycardia (>100 beats/minute) | back 58 Moderate |
front 59 57.Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Angioedema | back 59 Moderate |
front 60 58. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Lightheadedness | back 60 Mild |
front 61 59. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Hypotension (systolic blood pressure <80 mm Hg) | back 61 Severe |
front 62 60. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Temporary renal faliure | back 62 Severe |
front 63 61. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Laryngeal swelling | back 63 Severe |
front 64 62. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Cardiac arrest | back 64 Severe |
front 65 63. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe Mild hives | back 65 Mild |
front 66 64. True or False: Mild-level contrast media reactions do not usually require medication or medical assistance | back 66 True |
front 67 65. True or False: Uritcaria is the formal term for excessive vomiting | back 67 False |
front 68 66. A temporary failure of the renal system is an example of (mild, moderate, severe, local) reaction | back 68 Severe |
front 69 67. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Convulsion | back 69 Severe systemic |
front 70 68. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Metalic taste | back 70 Side effect |
front 71 69. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Angioedema | back 71 Moderate systemic |
front 72 70. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Bradycardia | back 72 Severe systemic |
front 73 71. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Itching | back 73 Mild systemic |
front 74 72. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Vomiting | back 74 Mild systemic |
front 75 73. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Temporary hot flash | back 75 side effect |
front 76 74. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Respiratory arrest | back 76 Sever systemic |
front 77 75. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Pulmonary edema | back 77 local |
front 78 76. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Extravasatation | back 78 severe systemic |
front 79 77. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local Severe urticaria | back 79 Moderate systemic |
front 80 78. What should the technologist do first when a patient is experiencing either a moderate or severe level contrast media reaction | back 80 Call for medical assistance |
front 81 79. What is the primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media procedure? | back 81 To reduce the severity of contrast media reactions |
front 82 80. Which of the following drugs is often given to the patient as part of the premedication procedure (epinephrien, valium, combination of Benedryl and prednisone, lasix) | back 82 Combination of benedryl and prednisone |
front 83 81. Which type of patient is likely candidate for the premedication procedure before a contrast media study (elderly patient, asthmatic patient, pediatric patient, patient with hypertension) | back 83 Asthmatic patient |
front 84 82. In addition to notifying a nurse or physician when contrast media has extravasated into the soft tissues, what should the technologist first do to increase reabsorption | back 84 Elevate the affected extremity or use a cold compress followed by a warm compress |
front 85 83. True or False: Tissue inflammation from extravasated contrast media peaks 1 to 2 hours after the incident. | back 85 False |
front 86 84. True or False: Acute renal failure may occur 48 hours after an iodinated contrast media procedure. | back 86 True |
front 87 85. A trademark name for a diuretic drug is | back 87 Lasix |
front 88 86. Why is the term IVP incorrect in describing a radiographic examination of the kidney's ureters, and bladder after intravenous injection of contrast media | back 88 IVP is a study of the renal pelvis |
front 89 87. What is the correct term and correct abbreviation for IVP | back 89 Intravenous urogram (IVU) |
front 90 88. Which specific aspect of the kidney is visualized during an IVU | back 90 The collecting system of the kidney |
front 91 89. Which one of the following conditions is a common pathologic indication of an IVU (Sickle cell anemia, multiple myeloma, hematuria, anuria) | back 91 Hematuria |
front 92 90. Which one of the following conditions is described as a rare tumor of the kidney (pheochromocytoma, multiple myeloma, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma) | back 92 pheochromocytoma |
front 93 91. Pneumouria is a urinary pathological term that means | back 93 presence of gas in urine |
front 94 92. Urinary reflux is a urinary pathological term that means | back 94 backward return flow of urine |
front 95 93. Uremia is a urinary pathological term that means | back 95 excess urea and creatinine in the blood |
front 96 94. Anuria is a urinary pathological term that means | back 96 complete cessation of urinary secretion |
front 97 95. Polyuria is a urinary pathological term that means | back 97 passage of large volume of urine |
front 98 96. Micturition is a urinary pathological term that means | back 98 act of voiding |
front 99 97. Retention is a urinary pathological term that means | back 99 Inability to void |
front 100 98. Oliguria is a urinary pathological term that means | back 100 diminished amount of urine being excreted |
front 101 99. Glucosuria is a urinary pathological term that means | back 101 presence of glucose in urine |
front 102 100. Urinary incontinence is a urinary pathological term that means | back 102 constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine |
front 103 101. Renal agenesis is a urinary pathological term that means | back 103 absence of a functioning kidney |
front 104 102. Acute renal failure is a urinary pathological term that is indicated by | back 104 Indicated by presence of uremia, oliguria, or anuria |
front 105 103. Pathological disorder Vesicorectal fistula is | back 105 artificial opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine |
front 106 104. Pathological disorder Renal hypertension is | back 106 increased blood pressure to the kidneys due to atherosclerosis |
front 107 105. Pathological disorder Ectopic kidney is | back 107 Normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen but remains in the pelvis |
front 108 106. Pathological disorder Horseshoe kidney is | back 108 Fusion of the lower poles of kidneys during the development of the fetus |
front 109 107. Pathological disorder staghorn calculus is | back 109 A large stone that grows and completely fill the renal pelvis |
front 110 108. Pathological disorder polycystic kidney disorder is | back 110 multiple cysts in one or both kidneys |
front 111 109. Pathological disorder Benign prostatic hyperplasia is | back 111 enlargement of the prostate gland |
front 112 110. Pathological disorder Glomerulonephritis is | back 112 inflammation of the capillary loops of the golmeruli of the kidneys |
front 113 111. Malrotation has the radiographic appearance of: | back 113 abnormal rotation of the kidney |
front 114 112. Vesicorectal fistula has the radiographic appearance of: | back 114 signs of abnormal fluid collections |
front 115 113. Renal cell carcinoma has the radiographic appearance of: | back 115 Irregular appearance of renal parenchyma or collecting system |
front 116 114. BPH has the radiographic appearance of: | back 116 Elevated or indented floor of bladder |
front 117 115. Renal hypertension has the radiographic appearance of: | back 117 rapid excretion of contrast media |
front 118 116. Renal calculi has the radiographic appearance of: | back 118 signs of obstruction of urinary system |
front 119 117. Cystitis has the radiographic appearance of: | back 119 Mucosal changes within the bladder |
front 120 118. Chronic Bright disease has the radiographic appearance of: | back 120 Bilateral, small kidneys with blunted calyces |
front 121 119. A condition characterized by regions or areas of subcutaneous swelling caused by allergic reaction to food or drugs is termed | back 121 Angioedema |
front 122 120. Contraction of the muscle within the walls of the bronchi and bronchioles, producing a restriction of air passing through them, is a condition called | back 122 bronchospasm |
front 123 121. Loss of consciousness resulting from reduced cerebral blood flow is termed | back 123 syncope |
front 124 122. An eruption of wheals (hives) is often caused by a hypersensitivity to food or drugs is a condition termed | back 124 urticaria |
front 125 123. What type of calculi is often associated with chronic tract infections | back 125 staghorn calculi |
front 126 124. True or False: The patient should void before an IVU to prevent possible rupture of the bladder if compression is applied | back 126 True |
front 127 127. What is the primary purpose of ureteric compression | back 127 no data |
front 128 128. When does the timing for an IVU exam start | back 128 no data |
front 129 129. What is the primary difference between a standard and a hypertensive IVU | back 129 no data |
front 130 130. In which department are most retrograde urograms performed | back 130 no data |
front 131 131. True or False: A retrograde urogram examines the anatomy and function of the pelvicaliceal system. | back 131 no data |
front 132 132. True or False: the brodney clamp is used for male and female retrograde cystourethrograms | back 132 no data |
front 133 133. Which of the following involves a direct introduction of the contrast media into the structural being studied (retrograde urogram, retrograde cystogram, retrograde urethrogram, All of the above) | back 133 no data |
front 134 134. Which of the following alternative imaging modalities is not routinely being used to diagnose renal calculi (Nuclear medicine, sonography, MRI, CT) | back 134 no data |
front 135 135. True or False: Urinary studies on pediatric patients should be scheduled early in the morning to minimize the risk for dehydration | back 135 no data |