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Ch 14 Urinary System and Venipuncture

front 1

1. The kidneys and ureters are located in the (intraperitoneal, infraperitoneal, extraperitonealm retroperitoneal)

back 1

Retroperitoneal

front 2

2. The ____ glands are located directly superior to the kidneys

back 2

Suprarenal (adrenal) glands

front 3

3. Which structures create a 20 degree angle between the upper pole and lower pole of the kidney

back 3

Psoas major muscles

front 4

4. What is the specific name for the mass of fat that surrounds each kidney

back 4

perirenal fat or adipose capsule

front 5

5. What degree or rotation from supine is required to place the kidneys parallel to the IR

back 5

30 degrees

front 6

6. Which two landmarks can be palpated to located the kidneys

back 6

xiphoid process and iliac crest

front 7

7. Which term describes an abnormal drop of the kidneys when the patient is placed erect

back 7

nephroptosis

front 8

8 Three functions of the urinary system

back 8

remove nitrogenous waste, regulate water levels, regulate acid-base balance

front 9

9. A buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood is called

back 9

uriemia

front 10

10. The longitudinal fissure found along the central medial border of the kidney is called

back 10

hilum

front 11

11. The peripheral or outer portion of the kidney is called the

back 11

cortex

front 12

12. The term that describes the total functioning portion of the kidney is called.

back 12

renal parenchyma

front 13

13. The microscopic functional and structural unit of the kidney is

back 13

nephron

front 14

14. True or False: the efferent arterioles carry blood to the glomeruli

back 14

False

front 15

15. What is another (older) name for the glomerular capsule

back 15

bowman capsule

front 16

16. True or False: The glomerular capsule and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the medulla of the kidney

back 16

False

front 17

17. Which structure of the medulla is made up of a collection of tubules that drain into the minor calyx

back 17

Renal pyramids

front 18

18. Which two processes move urine through the ureters to the bladder

back 18

peristalsis and gravity

front 19

19. Which structure is located most anterior as compared to the others listed (proximal ureters, kidneys, urinary bladder, suprarenal glands)

back 19

urinary bladder

front 20

20. What is the name of the junction found between the distal ureters and urinary bladder?

back 20

Ureterovesical junction

front 21

21. What is the name of inner, posterior region of the bladder formed by the two ureters entering and the urethra exiting?

back 21

Trigone

front 22

22. What is the name of the small gland found just inferior to the male bladder

back 22

prostate

front 23

23. The total capacity for the average adult bladder is

back 23

350 - 500 mL

front 24

24. Which of the following is considered most posterior (ovaries, urethra, vagina, kidneys)

back 24

Kidneys

front 25

25. Intravenous contrast media may be administered by either

back 25

bolus injection or drip infusion

front 26

26. True or False: The patient (or guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncture procedure is performed on a pediatric patient.

back 26

True

front 27

27. For most IVUs, veins in the ____ are recommended for venipuncture

back 27

antecubital fossa

front 28

28. The most common size of needle used for bolus injections on a adult is

back 28

18 to 22 gauge

front 29

29. The two most common types of needles used for bolus injection of contrast media are

back 29

butterfly and over-the-needle catheter

front 30

30. List the six steps followed during a venipuncture procedure as listed and described in the book.

back 30

wash hands and put on gloves, select site, apply tourniquet , and clean site. Initiate puncture. Confirm entry and secure needle. Prepare and proceed with injection. Remove needle or catheter.

front 31

31. True or False: The bevel of the needle needs to be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein.

back 31

False

front 32

32. True or False: If extravasation occurs during the puncture, the technologist should slightly retract the needle and then push it forward again.

back 32

False

front 33

33. True or False: If unsuccessful during the initial puncture, a new needle should be used during the second attempt.

back 33

True

front 34

34. True or False: The radiologist is responsible for documenting all aspects of the venipuncture procedure in the patient's chart.

back 34

False

front 35

35. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Uses a parent compound of a benzoic acid

back 35

Ionic

front 36

36. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Will not significantly increase the osmolarity of the blood plasma

back 36

Nonionic

front 37

37. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Incorporates sodium or meglumine to increase solubility of the contrast media

back 37

Ionic

front 38

38. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Creates a hypertonic condition in the blood plasma

back 38

Ionic

front 39

39. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Is more expensive

back 39

Nonionic

front 40

40.The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Produces a less sever reactions

back 40

Nonionic

front 41

41. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Poses a greater risk for disrupting homeostasis

back 41

Ionic

front 42

42. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Is a near-isotonic solution

back 42

Nonionic

front 43

41. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Uses a parent compound of an amide or glucose group

back 43

Nonionic

front 44

42. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

May increase the severity of side effects

back 44

Ionic

front 45

43. Which one of the following compounds is a common anion found in ionic contrast media (diatrizoate or iothalamate, sodium or meglumine, benzoic acid, none of the above)

back 45

Diatrizoate or iothalamate

front 46

44. Any disruption in the physiologic functions of the body that may lead to a contrast media reaction is the basis for the: (homeostasis theory, Anaphylactoid theory, Vasovagal theory, Chemotoxic theory)

back 46

chemotoxic theroy

front 47

45. An expected outcome to the introduction of contrast media is described as a

back 47

side effect

front 48

46. The normal creatine level for an adult should range between

back 48

0.6 - 1.5mg/dL

front 49

47. Normal BUN levels for an adult should range between

back 49

8-25 mg/100 mL

front 50

48. Metformin hydrochloride is a drug that is taken for the management of

back 50

diabetes mellitus

front 51

49. American college of radiology recommends that metformin be withheld for _____ hours after a contrast medium procedure and resumed only if kidney function is again determined within normal limits

back 51

48

front 52

50. The leakage of contrast media from a vessel into the surrounding soft tissues is called

back 52

extravasation (inflatration)

front 53

51. List two general categories of contrast media reactions

back 53

local and systemic

front 54

52. Which type of reaction is a true allergic response to iodinated contrast media

back 54

anaphylactic reaction

front 55

53. Which type of reaction is caused by stimulation of the vagus nerve by introduction of a contrast medium, which causes heart rate and blood pressure to fall

back 55

Vasovagal reaction

front 56

54. True or False: Vasovagal reactions are not considered to be life threating

back 56

False

front 57

55. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Bradycardia (<50 beats/minute)

back 57

Severe

front 58

56. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Tachycardia (>100 beats/minute)

back 58

Moderate

front 59

57.Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Angioedema

back 59

Moderate

front 60

58. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Lightheadedness

back 60

Mild

front 61

59. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Hypotension (systolic blood pressure <80 mm Hg)

back 61

Severe

front 62

60. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Temporary renal faliure

back 62

Severe

front 63

61. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Laryngeal swelling

back 63

Severe

front 64

62. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Cardiac arrest

back 64

Severe

front 65

63. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Mild hives

back 65

Mild

front 66

64. True or False: Mild-level contrast media reactions do not usually require medication or medical assistance

back 66

True

front 67

65. True or False: Uritcaria is the formal term for excessive vomiting

back 67

False

front 68

66. A temporary failure of the renal system is an example of (mild, moderate, severe, local) reaction

back 68

Severe

front 69

67. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Convulsion

back 69

Severe systemic

front 70

68. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Metalic taste

back 70

Side effect

front 71

69. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Angioedema

back 71

Moderate systemic

front 72

70. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Bradycardia

back 72

Severe systemic

front 73

71. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Itching

back 73

Mild systemic

front 74

72. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Vomiting

back 74

Mild systemic

front 75

73. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Temporary hot flash

back 75

side effect

front 76

74. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Respiratory arrest

back 76

Sever systemic

front 77

75. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Pulmonary edema

back 77

local

front 78

76. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Extravasatation

back 78

severe systemic

front 79

77. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Severe urticaria

back 79

Moderate systemic

front 80

78. What should the technologist do first when a patient is experiencing either a moderate or severe level contrast media reaction

back 80

Call for medical assistance

front 81

79. What is the primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media procedure?

back 81

To reduce the severity of contrast media reactions

front 82

80. Which of the following drugs is often given to the patient as part of the premedication procedure (epinephrien, valium, combination of Benedryl and prednisone, lasix)

back 82

Combination of benedryl and prednisone

front 83

81. Which type of patient is likely candidate for the premedication procedure before a contrast media study (elderly patient, asthmatic patient, pediatric patient, patient with hypertension)

back 83

Asthmatic patient

front 84

82. In addition to notifying a nurse or physician when contrast media has extravasated into the soft tissues, what should the technologist first do to increase reabsorption

back 84

Elevate the affected extremity or use a cold compress followed by a warm compress

front 85

83. True or False: Tissue inflammation from extravasated contrast media peaks 1 to 2 hours after the incident.

back 85

False

front 86

84. True or False: Acute renal failure may occur 48 hours after an iodinated contrast media procedure.

back 86

True

front 87

85. A trademark name for a diuretic drug is

back 87

Lasix

front 88

86. Why is the term IVP incorrect in describing a radiographic examination of the kidney's ureters, and bladder after intravenous injection of contrast media

back 88

IVP is a study of the renal pelvis

front 89

87. What is the correct term and correct abbreviation for IVP

back 89

Intravenous urogram (IVU)

front 90

88. Which specific aspect of the kidney is visualized during an IVU

back 90

The collecting system of the kidney

front 91

89. Which one of the following conditions is a common pathologic indication of an IVU (Sickle cell anemia, multiple myeloma, hematuria, anuria)

back 91

Hematuria

front 92

90. Which one of the following conditions is described as a rare tumor of the kidney (pheochromocytoma, multiple myeloma, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma)

back 92

pheochromocytoma

front 93

91. Pneumouria is a urinary pathological term that means

back 93

presence of gas in urine

front 94

92. Urinary reflux is a urinary pathological term that means

back 94

backward return flow of urine

front 95

93. Uremia is a urinary pathological term that means

back 95

excess urea and creatinine in the blood

front 96

94. Anuria is a urinary pathological term that means

back 96

complete cessation of urinary secretion

front 97

95. Polyuria is a urinary pathological term that means

back 97

passage of large volume of urine

front 98

96. Micturition is a urinary pathological term that means

back 98

act of voiding

front 99

97. Retention is a urinary pathological term that means

back 99

Inability to void

front 100

98. Oliguria is a urinary pathological term that means

back 100

diminished amount of urine being excreted

front 101

99. Glucosuria is a urinary pathological term that means

back 101

presence of glucose in urine

front 102

100. Urinary incontinence is a urinary pathological term that means

back 102

constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine

front 103

101. Renal agenesis is a urinary pathological term that means

back 103

absence of a functioning kidney

front 104

102. Acute renal failure is a urinary pathological term that is indicated by

back 104

Indicated by presence of uremia, oliguria, or anuria

front 105

103. Pathological disorder Vesicorectal fistula is

back 105

artificial opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine

front 106

104. Pathological disorder Renal hypertension is

back 106

increased blood pressure to the kidneys due to atherosclerosis

front 107

105. Pathological disorder Ectopic kidney is

back 107

Normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen but remains in the pelvis

front 108

106. Pathological disorder Horseshoe kidney is

back 108

Fusion of the lower poles of kidneys during the development of the fetus

front 109

107. Pathological disorder staghorn calculus is

back 109

A large stone that grows and completely fill the renal pelvis

front 110

108. Pathological disorder polycystic kidney disorder is

back 110

multiple cysts in one or both kidneys

front 111

109. Pathological disorder Benign prostatic hyperplasia is

back 111

enlargement of the prostate gland

front 112

110. Pathological disorder Glomerulonephritis is

back 112

inflammation of the capillary loops of the golmeruli of the kidneys

front 113

111. Malrotation has the radiographic appearance of:

back 113

abnormal rotation of the kidney

front 114

112. Vesicorectal fistula has the radiographic appearance of:

back 114

signs of abnormal fluid collections

front 115

113. Renal cell carcinoma has the radiographic appearance of:

back 115

Irregular appearance of renal parenchyma or collecting system

front 116

114. BPH has the radiographic appearance of:

back 116

Elevated or indented floor of bladder

front 117

115. Renal hypertension has the radiographic appearance of:

back 117

rapid excretion of contrast media

front 118

116. Renal calculi has the radiographic appearance of:

back 118

signs of obstruction of urinary system

front 119

117. Cystitis has the radiographic appearance of:

back 119

Mucosal changes within the bladder

front 120

118. Chronic Bright disease has the radiographic appearance of:

back 120

Bilateral, small kidneys with blunted calyces

front 121

119. A condition characterized by regions or areas of subcutaneous swelling caused by allergic reaction to food or drugs is termed

back 121

Angioedema

front 122

120. Contraction of the muscle within the walls of the bronchi and bronchioles, producing a restriction of air passing through them, is a condition called

back 122

bronchospasm

front 123

121. Loss of consciousness resulting from reduced cerebral blood flow is termed

back 123

syncope

front 124

122. An eruption of wheals (hives) is often caused by a hypersensitivity to food or drugs is a condition termed

back 124

urticaria

front 125

123. What type of calculi is often associated with chronic tract infections

back 125

staghorn calculi

front 126

124. True or False: The patient should void before an IVU to prevent possible rupture of the bladder if compression is applied

back 126

True

front 127

127. What is the primary purpose of ureteric compression

back 127

no data

front 128

128. When does the timing for an IVU exam start

back 128

no data

front 129

129. What is the primary difference between a standard and a hypertensive IVU

back 129

no data

front 130

130. In which department are most retrograde urograms performed

back 130

no data

front 131

131. True or False: A retrograde urogram examines the anatomy and function of the pelvicaliceal system.

back 131

no data

front 132

132. True or False: the brodney clamp is used for male and female retrograde cystourethrograms

back 132

no data

front 133

133. Which of the following involves a direct introduction of the contrast media into the structural being studied (retrograde urogram, retrograde cystogram, retrograde urethrogram, All of the above)

back 133

no data

front 134

134. Which of the following alternative imaging modalities is not routinely being used to diagnose renal calculi (Nuclear medicine, sonography, MRI, CT)

back 134

no data

front 135

135. True or False: Urinary studies on pediatric patients should be scheduled early in the morning to minimize the risk for dehydration

back 135

no data