Ch 14 Urinary System and Venipuncture Flashcards

1. The kidneys and ureters are located in the (intraperitoneal, infraperitoneal, extraperitonealm retroperitoneal)

2. The ____ glands are located directly superior to the kidneys

3. Which structures create a 20 degree angle between the upper pole and lower pole of the kidney

4. What is the specific name for the mass of fat that surrounds each kidney

5. What degree or rotation from supine is required to place the kidneys parallel to the IR

6. Which two landmarks can be palpated to located the kidneys

7. Which term describes an abnormal drop of the kidneys when the patient is placed erect

8 Three functions of the urinary system

9. A buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood is called

10. The longitudinal fissure found along the central medial border of the kidney is called

11. The peripheral or outer portion of the kidney is called the

12. The term that describes the total functioning portion of the kidney is called.

13. The microscopic functional and structural unit of the kidney is

14. True or False: the efferent arterioles carry blood to the glomeruli

15. What is another (older) name for the glomerular capsule

16. True or False: The glomerular capsule and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the medulla of the kidney

17. Which structure of the medulla is made up of a collection of tubules that drain into the minor calyx

18. Which two processes move urine through the ureters to the bladder

19. Which structure is located most anterior as compared to the others listed (proximal ureters, kidneys, urinary bladder, suprarenal glands)

20. What is the name of the junction found between the distal ureters and urinary bladder?

21. What is the name of inner, posterior region of the bladder formed by the two ureters entering and the urethra exiting?

22. What is the name of the small gland found just inferior to the male bladder

23. The total capacity for the average adult bladder is

24. Which of the following is considered most posterior (ovaries, urethra, vagina, kidneys)

25. Intravenous contrast media may be administered by either

26. True or False: The patient (or guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncture procedure is performed on a pediatric patient.

27. For most IVUs, veins in the ____ are recommended for venipuncture

28. The most common size of needle used for bolus injections on a adult is

29. The two most common types of needles used for bolus injection of contrast media are

30. List the six steps followed during a venipuncture procedure as listed and described in the book.

31. True or False: The bevel of the needle needs to be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein.

32. True or False: If extravasation occurs during the puncture, the technologist should slightly retract the needle and then push it forward again.

33. True or False: If unsuccessful during the initial puncture, a new needle should be used during the second attempt.

34. True or False: The radiologist is responsible for documenting all aspects of the venipuncture procedure in the patient's chart.

35. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Uses a parent compound of a benzoic acid

36. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Will not significantly increase the osmolarity of the blood plasma

37. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Incorporates sodium or meglumine to increase solubility of the contrast media

38. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Creates a hypertonic condition in the blood plasma

39. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Is more expensive

40.The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Produces a less sever reactions

41. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Poses a greater risk for disrupting homeostasis

42. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Is a near-isotonic solution

41. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

Uses a parent compound of an amide or glucose group

42. The two major types of iodinated contrast media used for urography are ionic and nonionic. Indicated whether the following characteristics applies to Ionic or Nonionic:

May increase the severity of side effects

43. Which one of the following compounds is a common anion found in ionic contrast media (diatrizoate or iothalamate, sodium or meglumine, benzoic acid, none of the above)

44. Any disruption in the physiologic functions of the body that may lead to a contrast media reaction is the basis for the: (homeostasis theory, Anaphylactoid theory, Vasovagal theory, Chemotoxic theory)

45. An expected outcome to the introduction of contrast media is described as a

46. The normal creatine level for an adult should range between

47. Normal BUN levels for an adult should range between

48. Metformin hydrochloride is a drug that is taken for the management of

49. American college of radiology recommends that metformin be withheld for _____ hours after a contrast medium procedure and resumed only if kidney function is again determined within normal limits

50. The leakage of contrast media from a vessel into the surrounding soft tissues is called

51. List two general categories of contrast media reactions

52. Which type of reaction is a true allergic response to iodinated contrast media

53. Which type of reaction is caused by stimulation of the vagus nerve by introduction of a contrast medium, which causes heart rate and blood pressure to fall

54. True or False: Vasovagal reactions are not considered to be life threating

55. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Bradycardia (<50 beats/minute)

56. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Tachycardia (>100 beats/minute)

57.Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Angioedema

58. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Lightheadedness

59. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Hypotension (systolic blood pressure <80 mm Hg)

60. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Temporary renal faliure

61. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Laryngeal swelling

62. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Cardiac arrest

63. Match the following symptom to the correct category of systemic contrast media reaction: Mild, Moderate, Severe

Mild hives

64. True or False: Mild-level contrast media reactions do not usually require medication or medical assistance

65. True or False: Uritcaria is the formal term for excessive vomiting

66. A temporary failure of the renal system is an example of (mild, moderate, severe, local) reaction

67. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Convulsion

68. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Metalic taste

69. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Angioedema

70. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Bradycardia

71. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Itching

72. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Vomiting

73. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Temporary hot flash

74. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Respiratory arrest

75. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Pulmonary edema

76. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Extravasatation

77. Match the following symptom to the type of contrast media reaction: Side effect, Mild systemic, Moderate systemic, Severe systemic, Local

Severe urticaria

78. What should the technologist do first when a patient is experiencing either a moderate or severe level contrast media reaction

79. What is the primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media procedure?

80. Which of the following drugs is often given to the patient as part of the premedication procedure (epinephrien, valium, combination of Benedryl and prednisone, lasix)

81. Which type of patient is likely candidate for the premedication procedure before a contrast media study (elderly patient, asthmatic patient, pediatric patient, patient with hypertension)

82. In addition to notifying a nurse or physician when contrast media has extravasated into the soft tissues, what should the technologist first do to increase reabsorption

83. True or False: Tissue inflammation from extravasated contrast media peaks 1 to 2 hours after the incident.

84. True or False: Acute renal failure may occur 48 hours after an iodinated contrast media procedure.

85. A trademark name for a diuretic drug is

86. Why is the term IVP incorrect in describing a radiographic examination of the kidney's ureters, and bladder after intravenous injection of contrast media

87. What is the correct term and correct abbreviation for IVP

88. Which specific aspect of the kidney is visualized during an IVU

89. Which one of the following conditions is a common pathologic indication of an IVU (Sickle cell anemia, multiple myeloma, hematuria, anuria)

90. Which one of the following conditions is described as a rare tumor of the kidney (pheochromocytoma, multiple myeloma, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma)

91. Pneumouria is a urinary pathological term that means

92. Urinary reflux is a urinary pathological term that means

93. Uremia is a urinary pathological term that means

94. Anuria is a urinary pathological term that means

95. Polyuria is a urinary pathological term that means

96. Micturition is a urinary pathological term that means

97. Retention is a urinary pathological term that means

98. Oliguria is a urinary pathological term that means

99. Glucosuria is a urinary pathological term that means

100. Urinary incontinence is a urinary pathological term that means

101. Renal agenesis is a urinary pathological term that means

102. Acute renal failure is a urinary pathological term that is indicated by

103. Pathological disorder Vesicorectal fistula is

104. Pathological disorder Renal hypertension is

105. Pathological disorder Ectopic kidney is

106. Pathological disorder Horseshoe kidney is

107. Pathological disorder staghorn calculus is

108. Pathological disorder polycystic kidney disorder is

109. Pathological disorder Benign prostatic hyperplasia is

110. Pathological disorder Glomerulonephritis is

111. Malrotation has the radiographic appearance of:

112. Vesicorectal fistula has the radiographic appearance of:

113. Renal cell carcinoma has the radiographic appearance of:

114. BPH has the radiographic appearance of:

115. Renal hypertension has the radiographic appearance of:

116. Renal calculi has the radiographic appearance of:

117. Cystitis has the radiographic appearance of:

118. Chronic Bright disease has the radiographic appearance of:

119. A condition characterized by regions or areas of subcutaneous swelling caused by allergic reaction to food or drugs is termed

120. Contraction of the muscle within the walls of the bronchi and bronchioles, producing a restriction of air passing through them, is a condition called

121. Loss of consciousness resulting from reduced cerebral blood flow is termed

122. An eruption of wheals (hives) is often caused by a hypersensitivity to food or drugs is a condition termed

123. What type of calculi is often associated with chronic tract infections

124. True or False: The patient should void before an IVU to prevent possible rupture of the bladder if compression is applied

127. What is the primary purpose of ureteric compression

128. When does the timing for an IVU exam start

129. What is the primary difference between a standard and a hypertensive IVU

130. In which department are most retrograde urograms performed

131. True or False: A retrograde urogram examines the anatomy and function of the pelvicaliceal system.

132. True or False: the brodney clamp is used for male and female retrograde cystourethrograms

133. Which of the following involves a direct introduction of the contrast media into the structural being studied (retrograde urogram, retrograde cystogram, retrograde urethrogram, All of the above)

134. Which of the following alternative imaging modalities is not routinely being used to diagnose renal calculi (Nuclear medicine, sonography, MRI, CT)

135. True or False: Urinary studies on pediatric patients should be scheduled early in the morning to minimize the risk for dehydration