front 1 Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as __________. | back 1 granulocytes |
front 2 The process of coating bacteria with serum proteins to promote attachment of phagocytes is called __________. | back 2 opsonization |
front 3 Complement components C5 through C9 form plasma membrane channels in cellular microbes referred to as the __________. | back 3 membrane attack complex |
front 4 The epidermis ________. | back 4 contains protein keratin |
front 5 ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to ________. | back 5 microbial antagonism |
front 6 Which of these structures is not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system? | back 6 lymphocytes |
front 7 Which answer is not true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe? | back 7 Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence |
front 8 All of these cells demonstrate phagocytic activity except _______ | back 8 lymphocytes |
front 9 Activation of which of these complement proteins causes cytolysis? | back 9 C9 |
front 10 Which of these answers best describes the relationship between humans and most of their skin and intestinal normal microbiota? | back 10 commensalism |
front 11 Histamine causes all of the following reactions. Which occurs first? | back 11 vasodilation |
front 12 The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to ________ | back 12 interleukin 1 |
front 13 ________ cells are important in facilitating immune responses against pathogens that enter the body via the digestive system | back 13 M |
front 14 The number of regions on an antibody molecule that can bind to an antigen is referred to as the antibody __________. | back 14 valence |
front 15 Programmed cell death is referred to as | back 15 apoptosis |
front 16 Antigenic stimulation of a particular B cell that results in the production of a large number of plasma and memory cells, all capable of responding to that antigen, is referred to as __________ | back 16 clonal selection |
front 17 Cytokines that induce migration of leukocytes into areas of infection or tissue damage are known as ___ | back 17 chemokines |
front 18 The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called ___ | back 18 adaptive immunity |
front 19 HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing this, you can conclude that | back 19 t dependent antigens |
front 20 Cyclosporine is a drug sometimes used to prevent transplant rejection after organ transplant surgery. This drug specifically disrupts cell-mediated immunity by cytotoxic T cells. Which of these events can be predicted based on this information? | back 20 Antibody production will not be disrupted in the recipient |
front 21 Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against __ | back 21 intracellular bacteria and viruses |
front 22 How do NK cells recognize the target cells that they will destroy? | back 22 The target cells lack MHC I self-antigens |
front 23 Immunity acquired by transplacental transfer is called ______ | back 23 naturally acquired passive immunity |
front 24 A new chemical messenger has been discovered that enhances the chemotaxis of macrophages and neutrophils toward sites of infection. It would be specifically classified as a/an ___ | back 24 chemokine |
front 25 While on safari in Serengeti National Park, Tanzania, your friend ventures away from camp and is bitten by a boomslang snake. The venom will cause hemorrhaging and death within hours. Fortunately, you are prepared and administer artificially acquired passive immunity. With what did you inject your friend | back 25 antibodies |
front 26 A patient with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia has decreased immunoglobulin. This means the disease affects _ | back 26 b cells |
front 27 Haptens can bind to antibody molecules only if the haptens are attached to a carrier molecule | back 27 false |
front 28 The process of eliminating potentially self-reactive T cells in the thymus is called clonal selection | back 28 false |
front 29 helper T cells are involved in both the humoral and the cellular immune responses | back 29 true |
front 30 Macrophages and dendritic cells are the only cells that can present antigen to T cells. | back 30 false |
front 31 T cells react to antigens on the surface of APCs only when those antigens are associated with proteins of the major histocompatibility complex | back 31 true |
front 32 Which of these molecules or structures is not associated with innate immunity? | back 32 antibodies |
front 33 The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to | back 33 microbial antagonism |
front 34 The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all of the following except ___ | back 34 lacrimal apparatus |
front 35 All of these statements about sebum are true except | back 35 raises pH of skin |
front 36 One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked eosinophilia. This might be suggestive o | back 36 parasitic or allergic rxn |
front 37 Which of these structures is not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system | back 37 lymphocytes |
front 38 Which answer is not true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe | back 38 Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence |
front 39 The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe is called | back 39 adherence |
front 40 All of these answers are true of inflammation except ____ | back 40 many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation |
front 41 Activation of the complement cascade ______ | back 41 can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis |
front 42 Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to see | back 42 lysis of RBC |
front 43 All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except | back 43 C3 is the first component to be activated |
front 44 Complement component C3, in the classical pathway, is split by | back 44 C2aC4b |
front 45 Interferons ___ | back 45 host specific but not virus specific |
front 46 A subcutaneous infection resulting from epidermal damage is likely to contain staphylococci | back 46 true |
front 47 Complement component C3b acts to increase adherence of phagocytes to microbes | back 47 true |
front 48 Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting immunity | back 48 A person survives an infectious disease |
front 49 The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called | back 49 adaptive immunity |
front 50 Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against | back 50 intracellular bacteria and viruses |
front 51 For IgG, the antigen binding site is found on the ______ | back 51 variable region of a heavy chain and the variable region of a light chain |
front 52 Which of the following would be a possible consequence of a disorder that selectively destroys the T regulatory cells in a patient | back 52 autoimmune dz |
front 53 Which answer is true for IgA | back 53 It picks up the secretory component as it passes through mucosal cells |
front 54 Which of these processes is in the proper sequence | back 54 IgE is formed; IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; antigen binds IgE; histamine is released |
front 55 T cytotoxic cells | back 55 produce perforins |
front 56 Which of these answers is a potential concern of using T-independent antigens as vaccines | back 56 These antigens will be ineffective in producing an immune response in infants |
front 57 Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity | back 57 is particularly important for killing microbes that are too large be destroyed by phagocytosis |
front 58 Which answer is true of the anamnestic response | back 58 IgG predominates |
front 59 Plasma cells | back 59 secrete antibodies |
front 60 The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the
following, except | back 60 4 antigen binding sites |
front 61 The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte
recognizes and responds to is | back 61 epitope. |
front 62 Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an
immune response are termed | back 62 hapten |
front 63 Superantigens are | back 63 bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. |
front 64 Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a
virus or toxin molecule thereby | back 64 neutralization |
front 65 Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to
facilitate phagocytosis? | back 65 opsonization |
front 66 Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased
titer of antibody when the | back 66 Anamnestic response |
front 67 The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus,
saliva, colostrum, and other body | back 67 IgA |
front 68 The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the
placenta is | back 68 IgG |
front 69 The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to
receptors on basophils and mast cells | back 69 IgE |
front 70 All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except | back 70 its a dimer |
front 71 Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? | back 71 IgM, IgG |
front 72 The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are | back 72 IgD |
front 73 When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin
band contains mostly | back 73 IgG |
front 74 The most significant cells in graft rejection are | back 74 cytotoxic t cells |
front 75 Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected
cells? | back 75 NK |
front 76 Monoclonal antibodies | back 76 all choises correct |
front 77 Cytotoxic T cells | back 77 secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. |
front 78 An example of artificial passive immunity would be | back 78 giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. |
front 79 An example of natural passive immunity would be | back 79 a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. |
front 80 An example of artificial active immunity would be | back 80 chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. |
front 81 Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? | back 81 helper t cells |
front 82 In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to
be secreted is | back 82 IgM |
front 83 In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody
is | back 83 IgG |
front 84 All of the following characterize the secondary response to an
antigen except | back 84 it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. |
front 85 Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to
enteric, respiratory, and | back 85 IgA |
front 86 The process of clonal deletion is designed to | back 86 destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. |
front 87 Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't
remember the last time he had a | back 87 artificial passive immunity |
front 88 Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his
pediatrician as part of the routine | back 88 artificial active immunity |
front 89 Edward Jenner's work involved | back 89 immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give
protection against a more |
front 90 Immunotherapy is the | back 90 All of the choices are correct. |
front 91 High titers of specific antibodies are components of | back 91 specific immune globulin (SIG) |
front 92 Toxoids | back 92 contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. |
front 93 Antitoxins | back 93 contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. |
front 94 Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune
response? | back 94 Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production. |
front 95 Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy
bacteria, viral infected cells, and | back 95 TC |
front 96 _ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum. | back 96 IgG |
front 97 the function of the "ciliary escalator" is to A) Kill microorganisms. B) Remove microorganisms from body cavities. C) Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract. D) All of the above. | back 97 Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract. |
front 98 What type of immunity results from vaccination? A) Innate immunity B) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired active immunity E) Artificially acquired passive immunity | back 98 Artificially acquired active immunity |
front 99 Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Lymphocyte D) Monocyte E) Neutrophil | back 99 Eosinophil |
front 100 The best definition of antibody is | back 100 A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen. |
front 101 All of the following are true for type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions except: A) IgG and IgM antibodies are involved. B) The reactions may be localized or systemic. C) Examples may include hay fever, asthma, and bee sting allergies. D) The reactions often occur within minutes of exposure to the allergen. E) Mediators of the reactions include histamines, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins. | back 101 IgG and IgM antibodies are involved. |
front 102 Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as_____________________. | back 102 granulocytes |
front 103 during the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody produced is the _______________class. | back 103 IgM |
front 104 A loss of self-tolerance results in _____________________________disease | back 104 autoimmune |
front 105 Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? | back 105 eosinophils |
front 106 Which statement is true of endotoxins? | back 106 they are released upon cell lysis |