micro test 3 study test Flashcards

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as __________.

The process of coating bacteria with serum proteins to promote attachment of phagocytes is called __________.

Complement components C5 through C9 form plasma membrane channels in cellular microbes referred to as the __________.

The epidermis ________.

ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to ________.

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Which of these structures is not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?

Which answer is not true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe?

All of these cells demonstrate phagocytic activity except _______

Activation of which of these complement proteins causes cytolysis?

Which of these answers best describes the relationship between humans and most of their skin and intestinal normal microbiota?

Histamine causes all of the following reactions. Which occurs first?

The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to ________

________ cells are important in facilitating immune responses against pathogens that enter the body via the digestive system

The number of regions on an antibody molecule that can bind to an antigen is referred to as the antibody __________.

Programmed cell death is referred to as

Antigenic stimulation of a particular B cell that results in the production of a large number of plasma and memory cells, all capable of responding to that antigen, is referred to as __________

Cytokines that induce migration of leukocytes into areas of infection or tissue damage are known as ___

The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called ___

HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing this, you can conclude that

Cyclosporine is a drug sometimes used to prevent transplant rejection after organ transplant surgery. This drug specifically disrupts cell-mediated immunity by cytotoxic T cells. Which of these events can be predicted based on this information?

Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against __

How do NK cells recognize the target cells that they will destroy?

Immunity acquired by transplacental transfer is called ______

A new chemical messenger has been discovered that enhances the chemotaxis of macrophages and neutrophils toward sites of infection. It would be specifically classified as a/an ___

While on safari in Serengeti National Park, Tanzania, your friend ventures away from camp and is bitten by a boomslang snake. The venom will cause hemorrhaging and death within hours. Fortunately, you are prepared and administer artificially acquired passive immunity. With what did you inject your friend

A patient with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia has decreased immunoglobulin. This means the disease affects _

Haptens can bind to antibody molecules only if the haptens are attached to a carrier molecule

The process of eliminating potentially self-reactive T cells in the thymus is called clonal selection

helper T cells are involved in both the humoral and the cellular immune responses

Macrophages and dendritic cells are the only cells that can present antigen to T cells.

T cells react to antigens on the surface of APCs only when those antigens are associated with proteins of the major histocompatibility complex

Which of these molecules or structures is not associated with innate immunity?

The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to

The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all of the following except ___

All of these statements about sebum are true except

One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked eosinophilia. This might be suggestive o

Which of these structures is not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system

Which answer is not true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe

The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe is called

All of these answers are true of inflammation except ____

Activation of the complement cascade ______

Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to see

All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except

Complement component C3, in the classical pathway, is split by

Interferons ___

A subcutaneous infection resulting from epidermal damage is likely to contain staphylococci

Complement component C3b acts to increase adherence of phagocytes to microbes

Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting immunity

The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called

Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against

For IgG, the antigen binding site is found on the ______

Which of the following would be a possible consequence of a disorder that selectively destroys the T regulatory cells in a patient

Which answer is true for IgA

Which of these processes is in the proper sequence

T cytotoxic cells

Which of these answers is a potential concern of using T-independent antigens as vaccines

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Which answer is true of the anamnestic response

Plasma cells
A. secrete antibodies.
B. function in allergic reactions.
C. directly destroy target cells.
D. suppress immune reactions.
E. activate B cells and other T cells.

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except
A. two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B. two identical light polypeptide chains.
C. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D. four antigen binding sites.
E. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is
called a/an
A. epitope.
B. hapten.
C. antigen binding site.
D. variable region.
E. None of the choices are correct.

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed
A. antigenic determinant.
B. hapten.
C. antigen binding site.
D. variable region.
E. None of the choices are correct

Superantigens are
A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
D. those that evoke allergic reactions.
E. None of the choices are correct.

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby
disrupting their activity?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Complement fixation
D. Agglutination
E. Anamnestic response

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Complement fixation
D. Agglutination
E. Anamnestic response

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the
immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Complement fixation
D. Agglutination
E. Anamnestic response

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body
secretions is
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgM.

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgM.

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells
is
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG
E. IgM.

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except
A. it has 10 antigen binding sites.
B. it contains a central J chain.
C. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
D. it can fix complement.
E. it is a dimer.

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
A. IgM only
B. IgG only
C. IgD only
D. IgM and IgG
E. IgE and IgA

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
A. IgM only.
B. IgG only.
C. IgD only.
D. IgM and IgG.
E. IgE and IgA.

When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
A. IgM.
B. IgA.
C. IgD.
D. IgE.
E. IgG.

The most significant cells in graft rejection are
A. helper T cells.
B. suppressor T cells.
C. cytotoxic T cells.
D. B cells.
E. natural killer (NK) cells.

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A. helper T cells
B. suppressor T cells
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E. natural killer (NK) cells

Monoclonal antibodies
A. originate from a single B cell clone.
B. have a single specificity for antigen.
C. are secreted by hybridomas.
D. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
E. All of the choices are correct.

Cytotoxic T cells
A. stimulate B cell proliferation.
B. lack specificity for a target cell.
C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
D. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.
E. All of the choices are correct

An example of artificial passive immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correct

An example of natural passive immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correc

An example of artificial active immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correct.

Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. B cells
D. Plasma cells
E. Suppressor T cells

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is
A. IgD.
B. IgE.
C. IgG.
D. IgM.
E. IgA.

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is
A. IgD.
B. IgE.
C. IgG.
D. IgM.
E. IgA

All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except
A. a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
B. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
C. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
D. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
E. it is also known as the anamnestic response.

Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and
genitourinary pathogens?
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. IgA

The process of clonal deletion is designed to
A. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
B. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
C. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
D. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more
efficient.
E. slow down the immune system in the elderly.

Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a
tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
E. None of the choices will help him

Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine
immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
E. None of the choices will protect him

Edward Jenner's work involved
A. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B. development of passive immunotherapy.
C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D.
immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more
pathogenic one.
E. All of the choices are correct

Immunotherapy is the
A. use of antitoxins.
B. use of immune serum globulin.
C. conferring of passive immunity.
D. administering of preformed antibodies.
E. All of the choices are correct.

High titers of specific antibodies are components of
A. specific immune globulin (SIG).
B. gamma globulin.
C. immune serum globulin (ISG).
D. attenuated vaccines.
E. toxoids.

Toxoids
A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B. are always genetically engineered.
C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D. confer passive immunity.
E. All of the choices are correct

Antitoxins
A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
B. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
C. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
D. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?
A. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells.
B. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens.
C. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.
D. Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens.

Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and
cancer cells?
A. TC
B. TH
C. CD4
D. MHC

_ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.

the function of the "ciliary escalator" is to

A)

Kill microorganisms.

B)

Remove microorganisms from body cavities.

C)

Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.

D)

All of the above.

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A)

Innate immunity

B)

Naturally acquired active immunity

C)

Naturally acquired passive immunity

D)

Artificially acquired active immunity

E)

Artificially acquired passive immunity

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

A)

Basophil

B)

Eosinophil

C)

Lymphocyte

D)

Monocyte

E)

Neutrophil

The best definition of antibody is

All of the following are true for type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions except:

A)

IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.

B)

The reactions may be localized or systemic.

C)

Examples may include hay fever, asthma, and bee sting allergies.

D)

The reactions often occur within minutes of exposure to the allergen.

E)

Mediators of the reactions include histamines, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as_____________________.

during the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody produced is the _______________class.

A loss of self-tolerance results in _____________________________disease

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

Which statement is true of endotoxins?