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Micr Bio Chp 19 Exam 4

front 1

What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share?

back 1

enterotoxins

front 2

Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but its genetically more similar to low G + C Gram positive bacteria?

back 2

mycoplasmas

front 3

What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?

back 3

it can produce coagulase

front 4

Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why?

back 4

the produce B-lactamase

front 5

A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis?

back 5

toxic shock syndrome

front 6

Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. the results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. the bacteria in the wound is most likely

back 6

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

front 7

Streptococci are frequently classified by

back 7

Lancefield antigen designations

front 8

How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells?

back 8

they have hyaluronic acid capsules

front 9

Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection?

back 9

rheumatic fever

front 10

Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?

back 10

It is considered a common complication of pyoderma

front 11

Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases?

back 11

neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pheumonia

front 12

Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus progenies is FALSE?

back 12

It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization

front 13

What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumonia from nonvirulent strains?

back 13

the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis

front 14

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to

back 14

scarlet fever or rheumatic fever

front 15

The Quellung reaction is used to diagnose

back 15

Streptococcus pneumoniae

front 16

Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with

back 16

Streptococcus pneumoniae

front 17

Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome?

back 17

exfoliative toxin

front 18

During a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. A blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. Lab tests determine that the bacteria are non hemolytic and bile salt tolerant. the bacteremia is likely due to

back 18

Enterococcus

front 19

Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries?

back 19

viridans streptococci

front 20

Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from

back 20

the black eschars it produces on human skin.

front 21

Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthraces is FALSE?

back 21

it is primarily a disease of humans

front 22

Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known?

back 22

Clostridium botulinum

front 23

Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threating pseudomembranous colitis?

back 23

Clostridium difficile

front 24

How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action?

back 24

The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the CNS, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair.

front 25

Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is FALSE?

back 25

Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails

front 26

Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to

back 26

live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host

front 27

Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes?

back 27

Corynebacterium

front 28

Which of the following statements about diphtheria is FALSE?

back 28

its growth on Loeffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium

front 29

Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negative because they

back 29

lack cell walls

front 30

The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that the mycobacteria

back 30

prevent fusion of lysosomes with phagosomes

front 31

A sample of fluid from the lungs contains microbes that grow in filaments or clumps. the cells stain poorly in the Gram stain and are a pink-red when acid fast stained. the bacteria in the sample are

back 31

Mycobacterium species

front 32

Under what conditions does infection with Mycobacterium leprae develop into tuberculoid leprosy?

back 32

when the immune system develops a vigorous cell mediated response

front 33

The pus from an abscess in a patients jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither anti fungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. the abscess is likely the result of infection with

back 33

Actinomyces

front 34

What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium?

back 34

acne

front 35

Mycetoma, which is a painless long lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is caused by

back 35

Nocardia

front 36

the skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillus anthraces are

back 36

eschars

front 37

The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroids can establish opportunistic infections of the

back 37

skin, lungs, and central nervous system

front 38

Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from other gram positive cocci because enterococci

back 38

can grow in the presence of bile salts

front 39

Infections with Streptococcus progenies may progress to _____, characterized by a skin rash that peels after about a week and a bright red swollen tongue.

back 39

scarlatina

front 40

Increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen ______ in its normal habitat, leading to disease.

back 40

Propionibacterium acnes

front 41

Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of

back 41

otitis media

front 42

Mycoplasma pneumoiae causes respiratory disease by

back 42

attaching to, inhibiting, and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

front 43

Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacterium leprae?

back 43

loss of the sense of touch

front 44

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the pathogenesis of Clostridium perfringens?

back 44

inhibiting sensory neuron function

front 45

Which of the following bacteria can cause pharyngitis?

back 45

Streptococcus pyogenes

front 46

A summer cold that lasts for weeks and is characterized by sore throat, mild fever, dry cough, and malaise may be (pneumococcal/walking) pneumonia.

back 46

walking

front 47

the presence of mycelia acid in the cell walls of the opportunistic pathogen (Actinomyce/ Nocardia) results in it Gram staining poorly.

back 47

Nocardia

front 48

In its role in the development of acne, (propionibacterium/ staphylococcus/ actinomyces) typically grows in sebaceous glands of the skin.

back 48

Propionibacterium

front 49

(MRSA/ MDR-TB/ VRSA) is resistant to numerous antimicrobial agents; therefore, vancomycin is usually used for these infections.

back 49

MRSA

front 50

In countries where tuberculosis is common, people are vaccinated with (BCG/DOTS/ MDR-TB)which contains attenuated Mycobacterium bovis bacteria.

back 50

BCG

front 51

Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae leads to the formation of (pseudomembranes/ tubercles) which can severely impair respiratory function.

back 51

pseudomembranes

front 52

Successful treatment of diphtheria requires the administration of (antibiotics/antitoxin/ immunoglobulin).

back 52

antitoxin

front 53

Common sources of Listeria are undercooked meats and vegetables and unpasteurized (eggs/ milk/ juices).

back 53

milk

front 54

the neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (flaccid/ tetanic) paralysis by preventing muscle contraction.

back 54

flaccid

front 55

Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/ difficele/ perfringens) contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinal cramping but not fever, and it resolves in about a day.

back 55

perfringens

front 56

(Enterococcus/ Staphylococcus) grow at temperatures up to 45C, at pH levels as high as 9.6, and in 6.5% NaCl, but they lack structural and chemical elements that make them virulent in the intestinal tract.

back 56

Enterococcus

front 57

The aerobic endospore former (Clostridium perfringens/ Clostridium difficle/ Bacillus anthracis) is a strict pathogen of humans and animals.

back 57

Bacillus anthracis

front 58

The body limits the migration of Streptococcus (agalactiae/ pneumoniae/ progenies) by binding it to the active sties of secretory IgA, which the bacteria overcome by secreting secretory IgA protease.

back 58

pneumonia

front 59

When streptococcal infections involve the skin and surrounding lymph nodes, triggering pain and inflammation, the condition is known as (erysipelas/ folliculitis/ pyoderma).

back 59

erysipelas

front 60

The ability to produce (hyalauronidase/ lipase/ proteases) enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissues.

back 60

hyaluronidase