Microbiology: Micr Bio Chp 19 Exam 4 Flashcards


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Microbiology
Chapter 19
Microbiology Kingwood Tx
updated 10 years ago by salinadanley7
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medical microbiology, medical, infectious diseases, science, life sciences, biology
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1

What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share?

enterotoxins

2

Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but its genetically more similar to low G + C Gram positive bacteria?

mycoplasmas

3

What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?

it can produce coagulase

4

Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why?

the produce B-lactamase

5

A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis?

toxic shock syndrome

6

Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. the results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. the bacteria in the wound is most likely

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

7

Streptococci are frequently classified by

Lancefield antigen designations

8

How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells?

they have hyaluronic acid capsules

9

Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection?

rheumatic fever

10

Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?

It is considered a common complication of pyoderma

11

Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases?

neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pheumonia

12

Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus progenies is FALSE?

It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization

13

What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumonia from nonvirulent strains?

the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis

14

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to

scarlet fever or rheumatic fever

15

The Quellung reaction is used to diagnose

Streptococcus pneumoniae

16

Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with

Streptococcus pneumoniae

17

Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome?

exfoliative toxin

18

During a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. A blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. Lab tests determine that the bacteria are non hemolytic and bile salt tolerant. the bacteremia is likely due to

Enterococcus

19

Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries?

viridans streptococci

20

Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from

the black eschars it produces on human skin.

21

Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthraces is FALSE?

it is primarily a disease of humans

22

Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known?

Clostridium botulinum

23

Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threating pseudomembranous colitis?

Clostridium difficile

24

How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action?

The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the CNS, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair.

25

Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is FALSE?

Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails

26

Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to

live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host

27

Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes?

Corynebacterium

28

Which of the following statements about diphtheria is FALSE?

its growth on Loeffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium

29

Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negative because they

lack cell walls

30

The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that the mycobacteria

prevent fusion of lysosomes with phagosomes

31

A sample of fluid from the lungs contains microbes that grow in filaments or clumps. the cells stain poorly in the Gram stain and are a pink-red when acid fast stained. the bacteria in the sample are

Mycobacterium species

32

Under what conditions does infection with Mycobacterium leprae develop into tuberculoid leprosy?

when the immune system develops a vigorous cell mediated response

33

The pus from an abscess in a patients jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither anti fungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. the abscess is likely the result of infection with

Actinomyces

34

What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium?

acne

35

Mycetoma, which is a painless long lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is caused by

Nocardia

36

the skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillus anthraces are

eschars

37

The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroids can establish opportunistic infections of the

skin, lungs, and central nervous system

38

Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from other gram positive cocci because enterococci

can grow in the presence of bile salts

39

Infections with Streptococcus progenies may progress to _____, characterized by a skin rash that peels after about a week and a bright red swollen tongue.

scarlatina

40

Increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen ______ in its normal habitat, leading to disease.

Propionibacterium acnes

41

Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of

otitis media

42

Mycoplasma pneumoiae causes respiratory disease by

attaching to, inhibiting, and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

43

Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacterium leprae?

loss of the sense of touch

44

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the pathogenesis of Clostridium perfringens?

inhibiting sensory neuron function

45

Which of the following bacteria can cause pharyngitis?

Streptococcus pyogenes

46

A summer cold that lasts for weeks and is characterized by sore throat, mild fever, dry cough, and malaise may be (pneumococcal/walking) pneumonia.

walking

47

the presence of mycelia acid in the cell walls of the opportunistic pathogen (Actinomyce/ Nocardia) results in it Gram staining poorly.

Nocardia

48

In its role in the development of acne, (propionibacterium/ staphylococcus/ actinomyces) typically grows in sebaceous glands of the skin.

Propionibacterium

49

(MRSA/ MDR-TB/ VRSA) is resistant to numerous antimicrobial agents; therefore, vancomycin is usually used for these infections.

MRSA

50

In countries where tuberculosis is common, people are vaccinated with (BCG/DOTS/ MDR-TB)which contains attenuated Mycobacterium bovis bacteria.

BCG

51

Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae leads to the formation of (pseudomembranes/ tubercles) which can severely impair respiratory function.

pseudomembranes

52

Successful treatment of diphtheria requires the administration of (antibiotics/antitoxin/ immunoglobulin).

antitoxin

53

Common sources of Listeria are undercooked meats and vegetables and unpasteurized (eggs/ milk/ juices).

milk

54

the neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (flaccid/ tetanic) paralysis by preventing muscle contraction.

flaccid

55

Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/ difficele/ perfringens) contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinal cramping but not fever, and it resolves in about a day.

perfringens

56

(Enterococcus/ Staphylococcus) grow at temperatures up to 45C, at pH levels as high as 9.6, and in 6.5% NaCl, but they lack structural and chemical elements that make them virulent in the intestinal tract.

Enterococcus

57

The aerobic endospore former (Clostridium perfringens/ Clostridium difficle/ Bacillus anthracis) is a strict pathogen of humans and animals.

Bacillus anthracis

58

The body limits the migration of Streptococcus (agalactiae/ pneumoniae/ progenies) by binding it to the active sties of secretory IgA, which the bacteria overcome by secreting secretory IgA protease.

pneumonia

59

When streptococcal infections involve the skin and surrounding lymph nodes, triggering pain and inflammation, the condition is known as (erysipelas/ folliculitis/ pyoderma).

erysipelas

60

The ability to produce (hyalauronidase/ lipase/ proteases) enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissues.

hyaluronidase