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anatomy 2 exam 3

front 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
a. Carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism
b. Nucleic acid metabolism
c. Excretion of bilirubin
d. synthesis of bile salts
e. chemical digestion

back 1

b

front 2

Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastric secretion is FALSE?
a. The sight, smell, taste, or thought of food can initiate the cephalic phase of gastric activity
b. The gastric phase begins when food enters the stomach
c. Once activated, stretch receptors in the stomach trigger the flow of gastric juice and peristalsis
d. The intestinal phase reflexes inhibit gastric activity
e. The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric emptying

back 2

e

front 3

What of the following are FALSE?
a. Segmentations in the small intestine help propel chime through the intestinal tract
b. The migrating motility complex is a type of peristalsis in the small intestine
c. The large surface area for absorption in small intestine is due to circular folds, villi and microvilli
d. Brush-border enzymes are located in the membranes of microvilli of epithelial cells
e. Most long-chain fatty acid & mono glyceride absorption in small intestine requires presence of bile salts.

back 3

a

front 4

The release of feces from the large intestine is dependent upon
a. stretching of the rectal walls
b. voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter
c. involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and abdominal muscles
d. a and b
e. all of the above

back 4

d

front 5

Stores bile
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. gallbladder
d. small intestine
e. large intestine

back 5

c

front 6

Which of the following would be considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a. Pancreas
b. stomach
c. esophagus
d. large intestine
e. small intestine

back 6

a

front 7

Which of the following lists the tubing in the correct order of food movement?
a. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, esophagus:
b. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, stomach, pyloric valve
c. Laryngopharynx, oropharynx, esophagus, pyloric valve stomach
d. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, pyloric valve, stomach
e. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach

back 7

b

front 8

The regular contractions of the muscularis that push food through the gastrointestinal tract
a. segmentations
b. haustral churning
c. peristalsis
d. pendular movement
e. migratory motility complex

back 8

c

front 9

Gallstones are usually made of crystallized
a. glucose
b. bilirubin
c. cholesterol
d. chyme
e. fat-soluble vitamins

back 9

c

front 10

Most absorption of nutrients occurs in the
a. mouth
b. transverse colon
c. stomach
d. small intestine
e. rectum

back 10

d

front 11

Intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells of the stomach is required for
a. activation of pepsin
b. buffering of HCI
c. complete gastric emptying
d. absorption of vitamin B12
e. stimulation of mixing waves

back 11

d

front 12

The folds of the gastric mucosa are called
a. microvilli
b. circular folds
c. gastric pits
d. villi
e. rugae

back 12

e

front 13

The pyloric sphincter is located at the junction of the
a. Esophagus/stomach
b. stomach/duodenum
c. ileum/cecum
d. esophagus/larynx
e. colon/rectum

back 13

b

front 14

Which of the following occurs during the cephalic phase of gastric digestion?
a. Chemoreceptors detect change in the pH of gastric juice
b. Stretch receptors detect distention of the stomach
c. Chemoreceptors detect fatty acids in the duodenum
d. Sight, smell, through, or taste of food triggers parasympathetic impulses
e. CCK is secreted by enteroendocrine cells.

back 14

d

front 15

Salivary glands include
a. parotid glands
b. submandibular glands
c. sublingual glands
d. lingual glands
e. all of the previous

back 15

e

front 16

Salivary secretions
a. aid in chewing a swallowing
b. initiate digestion of starches
c. are needed for tasting
d. moisten and lubricate food
e. function in all ofthe above ways

back 16

e

front 17

An enzyme that digests carbohydrates is
a. trypsin
b. pepsin
c. mucin
d. lipase
e. amylase

back 17

e

front 18

The small intestine is attached to the posterior abdominal wall by a fold of the peritoneum called the
a. mesocolon
b. mesentery
c. falciform ligament
d. taeniae coli
e. greater omentum

back 18

b

front 19

During swallowing, the nasal cavity is closed off by the soft palate and the
a. epiglottis
b. uvula
c. palatine tonsils
d. fauces
e. tongue

back 19

b

front 20

The process of mastication results in
a. passage of food from the oral cavity into the esophagus
b. removal of pathogens from partially digested food by MALT tissues
c. mechanical mixing of food with saliva and shaping of food into a bolus
d. sudden movement of colonic contents into the rectum
e. passage of feces from the anus

back 20

c

front 21

Partially digested food is usually passed from the stomach to the small intestine about how long after
consumption?
a. An hour or less
b. 2-4 hours
c. 6-8 hours
d. 10-12 hours
e. 24 hours

back 21

b

front 22

The functions of the gallbladder include
a. production of bile
b. storage and concentration of bile
c. hydrolyze fats
d. secretion of cholecystokinin
e. Both A and B are correct

back 22

b

front 23

The function of bile is to
a. emulsify fat
b. transport fats through the blood
c. hydrolyze fays
d. actively transport fats through epithelial membranes
e. all of these are correct

back 23

a

front 24

The appendix is attached to the
a. left lobe of the liver
b. gallbladder
c. cecum
d. rectum
e. splenic flexure

back 24

c

front 25

Which of the following lists the tubing in the correct order of food movement?
a. Descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon
b. Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
c. Sigmoid colon, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon
d. Sigmoid colon, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon

back 25

b

front 26

The large intestine absorbs mostly
a. amino acids
b. monosaccharides
c. bile pigments
d. water
e. triglycerides

back 26

d

front 27

The normal color of feces is due primarily to the
a. pigments in the bacteria present
b. breakdown products of hemoglobin
c. pigments in foods consumed
d. pigments in epithelial cells sloughed from mucosa
e. chemical interactions of undigested food

back 27

b

front 28

The intestinal enzyme that functions to digest fat is
a. bile
b. lipase
c. pepsin
d. trypsin
e. All of these are correct

back 28

b

front 29

The end products of the complete aerobic oxidation of glucose are
a. fatty acids and glycerol
b. ATP and oxygen
c. amino acids
d. carbon dioxide, water and energy
e. pyruvic acid and lactic acid

back 29

d

front 30

Which of the following substances increases in amount during cellular respiration?
a. ATP
b. glucose
c. oxygen
d. glycogen
e. ADP

back 30

a

front 31

Which of the following processes requires oxygen?
a. Lactic acid production
b. Glycolysis
c. Electron transport system
d. gluconeogeneis
e. all ofthe above answers are correct

back 31

c

front 32

Anabolic processes
a. are the same as catabolic processes
b. result in death of the individual
c. are the building up or synthesizing processes
d. are unaffected by hormones
e. are the result of exergonic reactions

back 32

c

front 33

Metabolism in living organisms is mediated by specific organic catalysts called
a. mitochondria
b. hormones
c. vitamins
d. enzymes
e. steroids

back 33

d

front 34

Enzymes of the Kreb cycle and electron transport chain are located in the
a. mitochondria
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. nucleus
d. lysosomes
e. peroxisomes

back 34

a

front 35

Which of the following is anaerobic (doesn't need oxygen)?
a. Electron transport chain
b. Kreb cycle
c. respiration
d. glycolysis
e. lipolysis

back 35

d

front 36

Excess cholesterol is transported to the liver for elimination by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons

back 36

a

front 37

Cholesterol is carried to cells for repair of membranes and synthesis of steroid hormones and bile salts by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons

back 37

b

front 38

Endogenous triglycerides synthesized in hepatocytes are transported to adipocytes for storage by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons

back 38

c

front 39

Dietary lipids are transported in lymph and blood by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons
e. steroids

back 39

d

front 40

Before amino acids can enter the Krebs cycle, they must be
a. oxidized
b. reduced
c. decarboxylated
d. deaminated
e. dehydrated

back 40

d

front 41

Urea is produced in the process of detoxifying
a. ammonia
b. lactic acid
c. carbon dioxide
d. pyruvic acid
e. ketone bodies

back 41

a

front 42

Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin D
e. none of the previous

back 42

b

front 43

Deficiency of vitamin C causes
a. Beriberi
b. scurvy
c. pellagra
d. rickets
e. osteomalacia

back 43

b

front 44

Deficiency of vitamin D in children causes
a. beriberi
b. scurvy
c.pellagra
d. rickets
e. osteomalacia

back 44

d

front 45

Deficiency of niacin causes
a. Beriberi
b. scurvy
c. pellagra
d. rickets
e. osteomalacia

back 45

c

front 46

Lactic acid is produced as a result of the chemical reduction of
a. acetyl CoA
b. oxaloaceteic acid
c. pyruvic acid
d. cytochromes
e. NAD

back 46

c

front 47

The function of coenzyme A in glucose metabolism is to
a. reduce pyruvic acid to lactic acid
b. convert glucose 6-phosphate into glycogen
c. transport glucose from the blood across cell membranes
d. carry hydrogen ions between compounds in the Krebs cycle & compounds in the electron transport chain
e. carry two-carbon units into the Krebs cycle.

back 47

e

front 48

Every molecule of acetyl CoA that enters the Krebs cycle produces how many molecules of carbon?
a. One
b. two
c. four
d. six
e. 36

back 48

b

front 49

Most ATP generated by the complete oxidation of glucose results from the reactions of
a. Glycogenolysis
b. glycolysis
c. the Krebs cycle
d. the electron transport chain
e. gluconeogenesis

back 49

d

front 50

Glycogenesis is the
a. process by which the liver builds glycogen from noncarbohydrate precursors
b. breakdown of fats to fatty acids and glycerol
c. breakdown of glycogen to reform glucose
d. process of glycogen formation
e. all of the above answers are correct

back 50

d

front 51

Which of the following factors does NOT affect metabolic rate and thus the production of body heat?
a. Exercise
b. hormones
c. minerals
d. food intake
e. age

back 51

c

front 52

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP?
a. Electron transport chain, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA
b. Krebs cycle, formation of acetyl CoA, electron transport chain, glycolysis
c. Glycolysis, electron transport chain, Krebs cycle, formation of acetyl CoA
d. Formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, electron transport chain
e. Glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain

back 52

e

front 53

Hormones are the primary regulators of metabolism
a. This statement is TRUE
b. This statement is FALSE

back 53

b

front 54

Which of the following is a key molecule of metabolism
a. Glucose-o-Phosphate
b. Pyruvic Acid
c. acetyl CoA
d. all of the above

back 54

d

front 55

The thermostat and food intake regulating center of the body is in the thalamus
a. This statement is TRUE
b. This statement is FALSE

back 55

b

front 56

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the splitting of a triglyceride into glycerol and fatty acids

back 56

b. lipolysis

front 57

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the formation of ketone bodies

back 57

d. ketogenesis

front 58

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the removal of the amino group from an amino acid

back 58

d. deamination

front 59

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the cleavage of one pair of carbon atoms at a time from a fatty acid

back 59

e. beta oxidation

front 60

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the synthesis of lipids

back 60

c. lipogenesis

front 61

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

The breakdown of glycogen back to glucose

back 61

a. glycogenolysis

front 62

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the conversion of glucose into glycogen

back 62

b. glycogenesis

front 63

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the transfer of an amino group form an amino acid to a substance such as pyruvic acid

back 63

e. transamination

front 64

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources

back 64

c. gluconeogenesis

front 65

Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation

a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination

the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid

back 65

a. glycolysis

front 66

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

an activating brush-border enzyme that splits off part of trypsinogen molecule to form trypsin, a protease

back 66

d. enterokinase

front 67

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

inhibits gastrin release

back 67

b. somatostatin

front 68

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

secreted by chief cells in the stomach; a proteolytic enzyme

back 68

a. pepsin

front 69

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

stimulates growth of gastric glands and secretion of gastric juice

back 69

e. gastrine

front 70

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

the principal triglyceride-digesting enzyme in adults

back 70

b. pancreatic lipase

front 71

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

stimulates the flow of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonates; decreases gastric secretions

back 71

c. secretin

front 72

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

a nonenzymatic fat-emulsifying agent

back 72

a. bile

front 73

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

causes contraction of the gallbladder & stimulates production of pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes

back 73

c. cholecystokinin

front 74

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

an enzyme that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth

back 74

d. salivary amylase

front 75

Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine

a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

stimulates secretion of ions and water by the intestines and inhibits gastric acid secretion

back 75

e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

front 76

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gall- bladder d. appendix e. ileum

collapsed, muscular tube involved in deglutition and peristalsis

back 76

c. esophagus

front 77

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

coiled tube attached to the cecum

back 77

d. appendix

front 78

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

contains Brunner's glands in the submucosa

back 78

d. duodenum

front 79

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

produces and secretes bile

back 79

b. liver

front 80

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

contains Peyer's patches in the submucosa

back 80

e. ileum

front 81

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

responsible for ingestion, mastication and deglutition

back 81

a. mouth

front 82

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

storage area for bile

back 82

c. gallbladder

front 83

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

contain acini that release juices containing several digestive enzymes

back 83

e. pancreas

front 84

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

passageway for food, fluid, and air; involved in deglutition

back 84

b. pharynx

front 85

Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum

forms a semisolid waste material through haustral churning and peristalsis

back 85

a. colon

front 86

Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

phagocytic cells of the liver; destroy worn-out white blood cells and red blood cells, bacteria, and other foreign matter in the blood draining the GI tract

back 86

c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells

front 87

Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase in the stomach

back 87

b. chief cells

front 88

Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

groups of lymphatic nodules in the small intestine

back 88

b. Peyer's patches

front 89

Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

lymphatic capillary used for chylomicron absorption in the small intestine

back 89

a. lacteal

front 90

Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

stomach enteroendocrine cells that secrete gastrin

back 90

a. G cells

front 91

Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

lysozyme; help regulate microbial population in the intestines

back 91

c. Paneth cells

front 92

Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

produce hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor in the stomach

back 92

d. parietal cells

front 93

Match the following: Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

controls the GI tract motility and secretions of GI tract organs

back 93

d. enteric nervous system

front 94

Match the following: Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system

longitudinal muscular bands in the large intestine; tonic contractions produce haustra

back 94

e. teniae coli

front 95

Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis

deficiency of vitamin B3 (niacin)

back 95

c. pellagra

front 96

Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis

deficiency of vitamin A

back 96

b. night blindness

front 97

Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis

deficiency of vitamin D in adults

back 97

c. osteomalacia

front 98

Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis

deficiency of vitamin K

back 98

d. blood clotting disorder

front 99

Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis

deficiency of vitamin B. (thiamine)

back 99

a.beri beri

front 100

Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis

deficiency of folic acid

back 100

d. spina bifida in newborns

front 101

Extra Credit: Please answer the following question on the blue portion of your scantron sheet.
List the flow of food through the digestive system including the sphincters, and parts of the small and large intestine.

back 101

no data