Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
a. Carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism
b. Nucleic acid metabolism
c. Excretion of bilirubin
d. synthesis of bile salts
e. chemical digestion
b
Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastric secretion is FALSE?
a. The sight, smell, taste, or thought of food can initiate the cephalic phase of gastric activity
b. The gastric phase begins when food enters the stomach
c. Once activated, stretch receptors in the stomach trigger the flow of gastric juice and peristalsis
d. The intestinal phase reflexes inhibit gastric activity
e. The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric emptying
e
What of the following are FALSE?
a. Segmentations in the small intestine help propel chime through the intestinal tract
b. The migrating motility complex is a type of peristalsis in the small intestine
c. The large surface area for absorption in small intestine is due to circular folds, villi and microvilli
d. Brush-border enzymes are located in the membranes of microvilli of epithelial cells
e. Most long-chain fatty acid & mono glyceride absorption in small intestine requires presence of bile salts.
a
The release of feces from the large intestine is dependent upon
a. stretching of the rectal walls
b. voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter
c. involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and abdominal muscles
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d
Stores bile
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. gallbladder
d. small intestine
e. large intestine
c
Which of the following would be considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a. Pancreas
b. stomach
c. esophagus
d. large intestine
e. small intestine
a
Which of the following lists the tubing in the correct order of food movement?
a. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, esophagus:
b. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, stomach, pyloric valve
c. Laryngopharynx, oropharynx, esophagus, pyloric valve stomach
d. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, pyloric valve, stomach
e. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach
b
The regular contractions of the muscularis that push food through the gastrointestinal tract
a. segmentations
b. haustral churning
c. peristalsis
d. pendular movement
e. migratory motility complex
c
Gallstones are usually made of crystallized
a. glucose
b. bilirubin
c. cholesterol
d. chyme
e. fat-soluble vitamins
c
Most absorption of nutrients occurs in the
a. mouth
b. transverse colon
c. stomach
d. small intestine
e. rectum
d
Intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells of the stomach is required for
a. activation of pepsin
b. buffering of HCI
c. complete gastric emptying
d. absorption of vitamin B12
e. stimulation of mixing waves
d
The folds of the gastric mucosa are called
a. microvilli
b. circular folds
c. gastric pits
d. villi
e. rugae
e
The pyloric sphincter is located at the junction of the
a. Esophagus/stomach
b. stomach/duodenum
c. ileum/cecum
d. esophagus/larynx
e. colon/rectum
b
Which of the following occurs during the cephalic phase of gastric digestion?
a. Chemoreceptors detect change in the pH of gastric juice
b. Stretch receptors detect distention of the stomach
c. Chemoreceptors detect fatty acids in the duodenum
d. Sight, smell, through, or taste of food triggers parasympathetic impulses
e. CCK is secreted by enteroendocrine cells.
d
Salivary glands include
a. parotid glands
b. submandibular glands
c. sublingual glands
d. lingual glands
e. all of the previous
e
Salivary secretions
a. aid in chewing a swallowing
b. initiate digestion of starches
c. are needed for tasting
d. moisten and lubricate food
e. function in all ofthe above ways
e
An enzyme that digests carbohydrates is
a. trypsin
b. pepsin
c. mucin
d. lipase
e. amylase
e
The small intestine is attached to the posterior abdominal wall by a fold of the peritoneum called the
a. mesocolon
b. mesentery
c. falciform ligament
d. taeniae coli
e. greater omentum
b
During swallowing, the nasal cavity is closed off by the soft palate and the
a. epiglottis
b. uvula
c. palatine tonsils
d. fauces
e. tongue
b
The process of mastication results in
a. passage of food from the oral cavity into the esophagus
b. removal of pathogens from partially digested food by MALT tissues
c. mechanical mixing of food with saliva and shaping of food into a bolus
d. sudden movement of colonic contents into the rectum
e. passage of feces from the anus
c
Partially digested food is usually passed from the stomach to the small intestine about how long after
consumption?
a. An hour or less
b. 2-4 hours
c. 6-8 hours
d. 10-12 hours
e. 24 hours
b
The functions of the gallbladder include
a. production of bile
b. storage and concentration of bile
c. hydrolyze fats
d. secretion of cholecystokinin
e. Both A and B are correct
b
The function of bile is to
a. emulsify fat
b. transport fats through the blood
c. hydrolyze fays
d. actively transport fats through epithelial membranes
e. all of these are correct
a
The appendix is attached to the
a. left lobe of the liver
b. gallbladder
c. cecum
d. rectum
e. splenic flexure
c
Which of the following lists the tubing in the correct order of food movement?
a. Descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon
b. Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
c. Sigmoid colon, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon
d. Sigmoid colon, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon
b
The large intestine absorbs mostly
a. amino acids
b. monosaccharides
c. bile pigments
d. water
e. triglycerides
d
The normal color of feces is due primarily to the
a. pigments in the bacteria present
b. breakdown products of hemoglobin
c. pigments in foods consumed
d. pigments in epithelial cells sloughed from mucosa
e. chemical interactions of undigested food
b
The intestinal enzyme that functions to digest fat is
a. bile
b. lipase
c. pepsin
d. trypsin
e. All of these are correct
b
The end products of the complete aerobic oxidation of glucose are
a. fatty acids and glycerol
b. ATP and oxygen
c. amino acids
d. carbon dioxide, water and energy
e. pyruvic acid and lactic acid
d
Which of the following substances increases in amount during cellular respiration?
a. ATP
b. glucose
c. oxygen
d. glycogen
e. ADP
a
Which of the following processes requires oxygen?
a. Lactic acid production
b. Glycolysis
c. Electron transport system
d. gluconeogeneis
e. all ofthe above answers are correct
c
Anabolic processes
a. are the same as catabolic processes
b. result in death of the individual
c. are the building up or synthesizing processes
d. are unaffected by hormones
e. are the result of exergonic reactions
c
Metabolism in living organisms is mediated by specific organic catalysts called
a. mitochondria
b. hormones
c. vitamins
d. enzymes
e. steroids
d
Enzymes of the Kreb cycle and electron transport chain are located in the
a. mitochondria
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. nucleus
d. lysosomes
e. peroxisomes
a
Which of the following is anaerobic (doesn't need oxygen)?
a. Electron transport chain
b. Kreb cycle
c. respiration
d. glycolysis
e. lipolysis
d
Excess cholesterol is transported to the liver for elimination by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons
a
Cholesterol is carried to cells for repair of membranes and synthesis of steroid hormones and bile salts by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons
b
Endogenous triglycerides synthesized in hepatocytes are transported to adipocytes for storage by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons
c
Dietary lipids are transported in lymph and blood by
a. high-density lipoproteins
b. low-density lipoproteins
c. very low-density lipoproteins
d. chylomicrons
e. steroids
d
Before amino acids can enter the Krebs cycle, they must be
a. oxidized
b. reduced
c. decarboxylated
d. deaminated
e. dehydrated
d
Urea is produced in the process of detoxifying
a. ammonia
b. lactic acid
c. carbon dioxide
d. pyruvic acid
e. ketone bodies
a
Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin D
e. none of the previous
b
Deficiency of vitamin C causes
a. Beriberi
b. scurvy
c. pellagra
d. rickets
e. osteomalacia
b
Deficiency of vitamin D in children causes
a. beriberi
b. scurvy
c.pellagra
d. rickets
e. osteomalacia
d
Deficiency of niacin causes
a. Beriberi
b. scurvy
c. pellagra
d. rickets
e. osteomalacia
c
Lactic acid is produced as a result of the chemical reduction of
a. acetyl CoA
b. oxaloaceteic acid
c. pyruvic acid
d. cytochromes
e. NAD
c
The function of coenzyme A in glucose metabolism is to
a. reduce pyruvic acid to lactic acid
b. convert glucose 6-phosphate into glycogen
c. transport glucose from the blood across cell membranes
d. carry hydrogen ions between compounds in the Krebs cycle & compounds in the electron transport chain
e. carry two-carbon units into the Krebs cycle.
e
Every molecule of acetyl CoA that enters the Krebs cycle produces how many molecules of carbon?
a. One
b. two
c. four
d. six
e. 36
b
Most ATP generated by the complete oxidation of glucose results from the reactions of
a. Glycogenolysis
b. glycolysis
c. the Krebs cycle
d. the electron transport chain
e. gluconeogenesis
d
Glycogenesis is the
a. process by which the liver builds glycogen from noncarbohydrate precursors
b. breakdown of fats to fatty acids and glycerol
c. breakdown of glycogen to reform glucose
d. process of glycogen formation
e. all of the above answers are correct
d
Which of the following factors does NOT affect metabolic rate and thus the production of body heat?
a. Exercise
b. hormones
c. minerals
d. food intake
e. age
c
Which of the following is the correct sequence for the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP?
a. Electron transport chain, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA
b. Krebs cycle, formation of acetyl CoA, electron transport chain, glycolysis
c. Glycolysis, electron transport chain, Krebs cycle, formation of acetyl CoA
d. Formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, electron transport chain
e. Glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain
e
Hormones are the primary regulators of metabolism
a. This statement is TRUE
b. This statement is FALSE
b
Which of the following is a key molecule of metabolism
a. Glucose-o-Phosphate
b. Pyruvic Acid
c. acetyl CoA
d. all of the above
d
The thermostat and food intake regulating center of the body is in the thalamus
a. This statement is TRUE
b. This statement is FALSE
b
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the splitting of a triglyceride into glycerol and fatty acids
b. lipolysis
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the formation of ketone bodies
d. ketogenesis
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the removal of the amino group from an amino acid
d. deamination
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the cleavage of one pair of carbon atoms at a time from a fatty acid
e. beta oxidation
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the synthesis of lipids
c. lipogenesis
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
The breakdown of glycogen back to glucose
a. glycogenolysis
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the conversion of glucose into glycogen
b. glycogenesis
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the transfer of an amino group form an amino acid to a substance such as pyruvic acid
e. transamination
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources
c. gluconeogenesis
Match the following:
a. glycogenolysis b. lipolysis c. lipogenesis d. deamination e. beta oxidation
a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. ketogenesis e. transamination
the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid
a. glycolysis
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
an activating brush-border enzyme that splits off part of trypsinogen molecule to form trypsin, a protease
d. enterokinase
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
inhibits gastrin release
b. somatostatin
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
secreted by chief cells in the stomach; a proteolytic enzyme
a. pepsin
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
stimulates growth of gastric glands and secretion of gastric juice
e. gastrine
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
the principal triglyceride-digesting enzyme in adults
b. pancreatic lipase
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
stimulates the flow of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonates; decreases gastric secretions
c. secretin
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
a nonenzymatic fat-emulsifying agent
a. bile
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
causes contraction of the gallbladder & stimulates production of pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes
c. cholecystokinin
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
an enzyme that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth
d. salivary amylase
Match the following: a. bile b. somatostatin c. cholecystokinin d. enterokinase e. gastrine
a. pepsin b. pancreatic lipase c. secretin d. salivary amylase e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
stimulates secretion of ions and water by the intestines and inhibits gastric acid secretion
e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gall- bladder d. appendix e. ileum
collapsed, muscular tube involved in deglutition and peristalsis
c. esophagus
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
coiled tube attached to the cecum
d. appendix
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
contains Brunner's glands in the submucosa
d. duodenum
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
produces and secretes bile
b. liver
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
contains Peyer's patches in the submucosa
e. ileum
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
responsible for ingestion, mastication and deglutition
a. mouth
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
storage area for bile
c. gallbladder
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
contain acini that release juices containing several digestive enzymes
e. pancreas
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
passageway for food, fluid, and air; involved in deglutition
b. pharynx
Match the following: a. mouth b. pharynx c. esophagus d. duodenum e. pancreas
a. colon b. liver c. gallbladder d. appendix e. ileum
forms a semisolid waste material through haustral churning and peristalsis
a. colon
Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
phagocytic cells of the liver; destroy worn-out white blood cells and red blood cells, bacteria, and other foreign matter in the blood draining the GI tract
c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells
Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase in the stomach
b. chief cells
Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
groups of lymphatic nodules in the small intestine
b. Peyer's patches
Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
lymphatic capillary used for chylomicron absorption in the small intestine
a. lacteal
Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
stomach enteroendocrine cells that secrete gastrin
a. G cells
Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
lysozyme; help regulate microbial population in the intestines
c. Paneth cells
Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
produce hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor in the stomach
d. parietal cells
Match the following: Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
controls the GI tract motility and secretions of GI tract organs
d. enteric nervous system
Match the following: Match the following:
a.G cells b. chief cells c. Paneth cells d. parietal cells e. teniae coli
a. lacteal b. Peyer's patches c. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. enteric nervous system
longitudinal muscular bands in the large intestine; tonic contractions produce haustra
e. teniae coli
Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis
deficiency of vitamin B3 (niacin)
c. pellagra
Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis
deficiency of vitamin A
b. night blindness
Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis
deficiency of vitamin D in adults
c. osteomalacia
Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis
deficiency of vitamin K
d. blood clotting disorder
Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis
deficiency of vitamin B. (thiamine)
a.beri beri
Match the following:
a.beri beri b. night blindness c. osteomalacia d. blood clotting disorder e. scurvy
a. rickets b. Pernicious anemia c. pellagra d. spina bifida in newborns e. osteoporosis
deficiency of folic acid
d. spina bifida in newborns
Extra Credit: Please answer the following question on the blue portion of your scantron sheet.
List the flow of food through the digestive system including the sphincters, and parts of the small and large intestine.
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