What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?

chaperone proteins (chaperonins)

What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?

water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine

Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?

Phosphodiesterase

Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?

tyrosine kinase receptors

Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?

activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP

Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?

IP3

Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?

beta receptors

The stimuli causing endocrine glands to secrete their hormones in direct response to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and nutrients are called __________.

humoral stimuli

Which of the following adrenal gland homeostatic imbalances is characterized by persistent elevated blood glucose levels, dramatic losses in muscle and bone protein, and water and salt retention, leading to hypertension and edema?

Cushing's syndrome

Which of the following hormones helps the body avoid dehydration and water overload?

antidiuretic hormone

Which hormone is the body's major metabolic hormone?

thyroid hormone

Which of the following hormones regulates blood calcium ion levels?

parathyroid hormone

Which of the following pairs correctly matches the adrenal gland zone or area with the class of hormones it produces?

zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids

When blood glucose levels are high

The pancreas releases insulin.

A liver cell responds to insulin by

Taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen.

What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?

Liver cells.

Body cells that respond to insulin include

Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.

When blood glucose levels are low

The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.

The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called

homeostasis

Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?

Insulin

Two adrenal glands make hormones that are essential for life. However, in adrenogenital syndrome, females develop a beard and a masculine pattern of body hair distribution; this occurs due to ______.

lack of enzymes the adrenal gland needs to make cortisol and aldosterone

One can predict that a person suffering from diabetes mellitus would probably have ______.

increased secretion of ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)

What amino acid-based hormone uses the direct gene activation method illustrated in this image?

Thyroxine

__________ is the situation when one hormone cannot exert its full effects without another hormone being present.

Permissiveness

Which of the choices below is not a factor required for target cell activation by hormone receptor interaction?

type of hormone

Which of the following is not a type of hormone interaction?

Feedback

Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.

G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.

steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.

second messengers

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.

up-regulation

Eicosanoids do not include ________.

Hydrocortisones

Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?

It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.

What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid–based hormones?

Calcium

What is the primary function of hormones?

alter cell activity

Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

TRUE

Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

FALSE

All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

TRUE

Why does antidiuretic hormone help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid?

It causes reabsorption of water by the kidney, resulting in increased blood water volume and a decreased solute concentration.

Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

Adenoid

Hyperprolactinemia may be caused by ______.

hyposecretion of dopamine

Which of the following is NOT a property of endocrine glands?

They have ducts.

Which of the following hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids that help the body to resist stressors?

adrenocorticotropic hormone

Major hormones circulate to virtually all tissues.

TRUE

Aldosteronism will cause ______.

decreased secretion of renin

Up-regulation involves the loss of receptors and prevents the target cells from overreacting to persistently high hormone levels.

FALSE

Which of the following occurs in situations where more than one hormone produces the same effects at the target cell and their combined effects are amplified?

Synergism

You would predict that iodized salt would have no effect on any cases of ____________.

Graves' disease

Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic imbalance related to underactivity of the thyroid gland?

Graves' disease

The hypothalamus is known to control the activity of the anterior pituitary, which has traditionally been called the "master endocrine gland."

TRUE

Hormones that regulate the secretory action of other endocrine glands are called __________.

Tropins

Which of the following mechanisms of hormone action is used by neurotransmitters and olfactory receptors?

cAMP

Acromegaly may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?

positive feedback by GH (growth hormone) on the anterior pituitary

Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure?

leptin

What gland secretes growth hormone?

anterior pituitary (lobe)

Which hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary (lobe)?

growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

What hormone, notated by letter B, is released by the anterior pituitary to target the adrenal cortex when we are under stress?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

What hormone released into the blood (shown by letter D) by the posterior pituitary inhibits or prevents urine formation?

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Which hormone is involved in diabetes mellitus (DM)?

insulin

Which of the following would result from hypoparathyroidism?

neurons become more excitable and tingling sensations

Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?

Insulin

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?

humoral stimulation

Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?

direct control of the nervous system

Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?

Enzyme

Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.

possible activation of several different second-messenger systems

Which of the following is not a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?

stimulates production of an action potential

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.

entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?

Epinephrine

Which of the following best describes gluconeogenesis?

synthesis of glucose from noncarbonhydrate sources

Calcitonin is secreted by which cells?

C cells (parafollicular cells) in the thyroid gland

The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces what steroid hormone?

Aldosterone

The sympathetic nervous system directly stimulates which of the following amine hormones?

epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

What hormone causes the loss of sodium and water, thus lowering blood pressure.

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

What amine hormone helps coordinate body activities with the light-dark cycle?

Melatonin

What hormone promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle?

Insulin

Where is thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) synthesized?

anterior pituitary

What is the primary function of hormones?

alter cell activity

What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons?

control secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones?

GH (growth hormone)

Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine (“letdown”) reflex?

Oxytocin

Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized?

Hypothalamus

What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone?

negative feedback

Which of the following hormones mainly serves to stimulate milk production by the breasts?

Prolactin

Which of the following is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary?

none of these

Which of the following hormones is a part of the rapid response (rather than the prolonged response) to stress?

Epinephrine

In response to stress, which of the following changes would happen?

decreased insulin secretion

Which of the following are symptom(s) of pheochromocytoma?

heart palpitations

Choose which condition has all of the following symptoms: hypertension, hyperglycemia, and a “moon face.”

Cushing’s disease

What hormone also aids the stress response by promoting water retention and acting as a vasoconstrictor?

ADH (vasopressin)

Which of the following structures does/does NOT produce a hormone or hormones?

Lungs

The anatomical effects of acromegaly can usually be reversed by surgically removing the tumor from the anterior pituitary.

FALSE

What cells release parathyroid hormone?

parathyroid cells

Which hormone can indirectly control insulin release?

increase in blood glucose levels

Which of the following is NOT a major type of stimulus that triggers endocrine glands to manufacture and release hormones?

Enzymatic

A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.

causing hypersecretion of ADH

What is required for the production of anterior pituitary gland hormones?

hormonal stimuli

Which of the following best describes the main effects of insulin?

lower blood glucose levels

Which hormone(s) is/are essential to our ability to deal with stress?

Glucocorticoids

Hyposecretion of growth hormone

pituitary dwarfism

An autoimmune problem involving the thyroid gland

Grave's disease

Hyposecretion of the pancreas

diabetes mellitus

Hypersecretion of growth hormone

acromegaly

Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex

Addison's Disease

ACTH ________.

secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone

Which of the following is not a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?

inhibition of calcitonin synthesis

Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the urinary excretion of sodium.

TRUE

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.

binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

TRUE

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

TRUE

Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.

Hormones

ADH ________.

is inhibited by alcohol

Oxytocin and ADH are produced in the posterior pituitary.

FALSE

A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.

FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

Polycythemia

Hyposecretion of the thyroid in infants

cretinism

Hyposecretion of the thyroid in adults

myxedema

Produces the body's major metabolic hormones

thyroid

The gland that controls the flight-or-fight reaction

Adrenal medulla

The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.

hypophysis

Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body

pancreas

Produces a hormone that controls blood levels of calcium and potassium by their removal from bone to tissue.

parathyroid

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.

is partly contained within the infundibulum

Which part of the conduction system initiates the depolarizing impulse, which spreads throughout the heart?

SA node

What does the ECG wave tracing represent?

electrical activity in the heart

What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing?

ventricular depolarization

Contraction of the atria results from which wave of depolarization on the ECG tracing?

P wave

Which part of the intrinsic conduction system delays the impulse briefly before it moves on to the ventricles?

AV node

The heart's pacemaker is the __________.

sinoatrial node

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

intercalated discs

Which of the following is NOT a difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

Cardiac muscle does not use the sliding filament mechanism for contraction; skeletal muscle does.

Blood in the heart chambers provides some nutrients to the heart muscle cells.

TRUE

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.

left atrium

A patient was admitted to the hospital with chest pains. On admission, his pulse was 110 and blood pressure was 96/64. According to his history, his normal pulse rate is usually between 80 and 88 and his blood pressure runs from 120/70 to 130/80. Why did these changes in BP and HR occur?

To maintain the same cardiac output, the heart rate would need to increase to compensate for a decreased stroke volume.

A 55-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with heart failure. He complains of increasing shortness of breath on exertion, and of needing to sleep on three pillows at night. On physical assessment, the nurse determines that his ankles and feet are very swollen. Which of these symptoms either reflect left-sided and/or right-sided heart failure?

Left side failure results in shortness of breath. Right side failure results in edema in the extremities.

Autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons.

FALSE

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

intercalated discs

The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________.

cardiac tamponade

Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.

ventricular diastole

Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?

Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.

Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.

Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.

What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?

greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle

Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.

isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation

Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?

AV valves only

Isovolumetric contraction ________.

refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers

A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain) by decreasing the demand for oxygen. What is the explanation for this pharmacological effect?

A drug that inhibits the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells decreases the force of myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing the oxygen demand, relieving the chest pain.

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.

the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic valves.

FALSE

Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.

The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

closure of the heart valves

Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

bundle of His

The tricuspid valve is closed ________.

when the ventricle is in systole

As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.

TRUE

Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?

thinning of the valve flaps

Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?

fibrous pericardium

The QRS complex on an electrocardiogram represents __________.

ventricular depolarization

Which of the following pacemaker cells generates impulses of approximately 75 depolarizations per minute in order to control the heart's contraction rate?

sinoatrial (SA) node

What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?

pericardial cavity

Hypercalcemia could cause ______.

prolonged T wave

Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?

increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

Which of the following would increase heart rate?

epinephrine and norepinephrine

How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?

increased contractility

By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?

increased end diastolic volume

How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?

decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output

The left side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.

TRUE

Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?

sinoatrial (SA) node

Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?

Ischemia

What is the source of ATP for cardiac muscle contraction?

cellular respiration

What does the T wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?

ventricular repolarization

An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ______.

enlarged atria

Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.

ventricular diastole

Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?

Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.

Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.

Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.

What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?

greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle

Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.

isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation

Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?

AV valves only

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood via the pulmonary circuit?

left atrium

Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?

Myocardium

In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______.

resting membrane potential

The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?

two pumps

Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?

right atrium

Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?

left atrium

Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?

right ventricle

Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?

left ventricle

Which of the following is NOT a vein that returns blood to the right atrium of the heart?

pulmonary vein

At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in the heart?

75 beats of the heart per minute

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.

pump blood with greater pressure

Into what vessel does the left ventricle eject blood?

Aorta

The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______.

reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs

Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.

FALSE

Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.

FALSE

The structure that prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium is the

mitral (bicuspid) valve

The vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to tissues is the

aorta

The capillaries recieving blood from the left side of the heart are

systemic capillaries

The structure that is located anatomically between the aorta and the left ventricle is

aortic semilunar valve

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.

coronary arteries

Which valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle?

tricuspid valve

Which of the following is NOT a difference between the left and right ventricles?

The left ventricle receives a smaller percentage of coronary blood supply than the right ventricle.

A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for further complications?

Angina pectoris. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of oxygen, resulting in a heart attack.

Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?

increasing extracellular potassium levels

Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.

75 mL/beat

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

pumps blood against a greater resistance

What causes normal heart sounds?

heart valve closure

The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.

TRUE

The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps.

FALSE

Which of the following increases stroke volume?

Exercise

Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.

The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.

angina pectoris

To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________.

second intercostal space to the right of the sternum

During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.

some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores

Prevents backflow into the left atrium

mitral valve

AV valve with two flaps

mitral valve

Prevents backflow into the right atrium

tricuspid valve

Prevents backflow into the right ventricle

pulmonary valve

Prevents backflow into the left ventricle

aortic valve

AV valve with three flaps

tricuspid valve

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.

noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

Asystole is the total absence of ventricular electrical activity. Would defibrillation be effective in this situation?

Defibrillation would not be effective: it interrupts chaotic electrical activity in the heart, and if there is no electrical activity, then there is nothing to interrupt.

Serous layer covering the heart muscle

Epicardium

Heart muscle

myocardium

The inner lining of the heart

endocardium

The outermost layer of the serous pericardium

partietal layer

The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are: __________.

epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

A premature ventricular contraction is classified as a(n) __________.

extrasystole

The heart has __________ chambers and __________ valves.

four; four

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the atria repolarize?

QRS complex

The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

Tricuspid

Hypercalcemia could cause ______.

prolonged T wave

Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?

gap junctions

One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?

Potassium

When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?

fast calcium

Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?

voltage-gated potassium channels

In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?

the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells

Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart because the excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity will______.

prevent the heart from filling properly with blood

Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?

left atrium

Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

right ventricle

Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?

Ischemia

Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.

FALSE

Proxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by bursts of atrial contractions with little pause between them.

TRUE

Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a ________.

relatively mild blow to the chest that occurs during a vulnerable interval (2 ms) when the heart is repolarizing

An ECG provides direct information about valve function.

FALSE

Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?

right atrium

An older woman complains of shortness of breath and intermittent fainting spells. Her doctor runs various tests and finds that the AV node is not functioning properly. What is the suggested treatment?

Surgery to implant an artificial pacemaker

Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.

TRUE

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.

has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

What is the main function of heart valves?

to prevent backward flow of blood

When the atria contract, which of the following is true?

The ventricles are in diastole.

Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric contraction?

The end diastolic volume (EDV)

Which of the following is true during ventricular systole?

The AV valves are closed.

During the ventricular ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, which of the following is true?

The semilunar valves are open.

Most of the decrease in ventricular volume takes place during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

ventricular ejection

Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric relaxation?

end systolic volume (ESV)

Most of the increase in left ventricular volume takes place during what phase of the cardiac cycle?

ventricular filling

In what direction does blood flow through the heart?

from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure

Atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

atrial contraction

At what point during the cardiac cycle does the AV valve close?

when ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve open?

when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure

Ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

ventricular ejection

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve close?

when pressure in the ventricle becomes less than aortic pressure

Isovolumetric relaxation is characterized by which of the following?

The semilunar and AV valves are closed.

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the AV valve open?

when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure

Which artery serves the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart?

right marginal artery

Where are worn-out erythrocytes found in the spleen?

red pulp

Antibodies are produced by __________.

plasma cells

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

Macrophages

What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?

thickness of the walls

Which of the following promotes closure of the minivalves associated with lymph capillaries?

increasing pressure inside the lymph capillary

Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.

Minivalves

Where are Peyer's patches located?

distal portion of the small intestine

The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.

TRUE

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?

bone marrow and thymus

Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?

white pulp of the spleen

Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?

deep in the cortex

Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?

Peyer’s patches

There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?

Thymus

To what organ do the lymphatic vessels return protein-rich escaped fluids to rejoin circulation?

heart

Lymph is most similar to __________.

interstitial fluid

Once collected, lymph is returned to __________.

venous circulation

What is the role of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?

increase permeability

Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs does NOT contain reticular connective tissue?

Thymus

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?

Eosinophil

Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?

They filter lymph.

Which lymphoid organ serves in immune surveillance and in filtering lymph?

lymph nodes

Which lymphoid organ serves as the site where T lymphocytes become immunocompetent T cells?

thymus gland

Which of the following is NOT a part of MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)?

lymph nodes

Which lymphoid organ provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response and provides blood-cleansing functions?

Spleen

Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?

bed rest to allow enhanced blood flow and therefore healing of the affected area

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

Macrophages

After surgical removal of the spleen (i.e., a splenectomy), some other organs take over most of its functions. Which of the following spleen functions in the adult can be performed by bone marrow?

removal of aged and damaged red blood cells from the blood

The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.

FALSE

In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.

FALSE

If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself.

TRUE

Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine.

FASLE

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

lingual tonsils

Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?

white pulp

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

FALSE

The simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.

FALSE

The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the upper limbs and from the intestinal trunk draining the digestive organs.

FALSE

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

TRUE

Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.

TRUE

Lymph transport involves all but which of the following?

smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls

Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?

blood vessels

Which of the following lymphoid cells secrete antibodies?

plasma cells

The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

TRUE

Which of the following delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?

thoracic duct

Of the following lymphoid organs, which is (are) structurally simplest and lack(s) a complete capsule?

Tonsils

What is the name of the enlarged sac to which the lumbar trunks and the intestinal trunk returns lymph?

cisterna chili

Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

red blood cells

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

transporting respiratory gases

Tonsillar crypts are invaginations deep into the interior of the tonsil. What is missing from the tonsil that allows for the presence of tonsillar crypts?

Capsule

Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.

TRUE

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

efferent lymphatic vessels

Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?

capillary smooth muscle contraction

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?

It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

All the lymphoid organs are well developed before birth.

FALSE

Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?

produce lymph fluid and cerebro-spinal fluid

Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?

erythrocytes

Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.

TRUE

There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.

FALSE

A sentinel node is ________.

the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous

Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.

TRUE

Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system.

TRUE

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?

right lymphatic duct

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.

lower extremities

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

more permeable than blood capillaries

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?

Eosinophil

Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

A and C

About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.

TRUE

Protien-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels

lymph

stores blood platelets

spleen

Recieves lymph from most of the body

thoracic duct

Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels

lymph nodes

Largest lymphatic organ

spleen

Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine.

Peyer's patches

The thymus is most active during ________.

Childhood

What is a bubo?

an infected lymph node

Lymphoid tissue is mainly reticular connective tissue.

TRUE

Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries.

TRUE

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

Pancreas

Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

digestive organs

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?

It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

Which of the following does not contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

Thymus

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.

B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?

thickness of the walls

Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.

Minivalves

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

Macrophages

The __________ is (are) the most likely to become infected.

palatine tonsils

Lymphangitis is caused by ______.

an infection

Which of the following lacks lymph capillaries?

bones and teeth

Lymph from the right leg ultimately is delivered to which duct in the thoracic region?

thoracic duct

Lymphatic vessels __________.

return tissue fluid to the bloodstream

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?

The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.

The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.

TRUE

Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue/organ?

bone marrow

What is the role of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in lymphoid tissue?

produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies

Peyer's patches are found in the ________.

ileum of the small intestine

Which of the following returns lymph to the right lymphatic duct?

right side of the head

Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with __________.

capillary beds

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

Lymph from what regions of the body is drained into the right lymphatic duct?

right upper limb, right side of the head and thorax

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

plasma cells

Peyer's patches are located __________.

in the wall of the small intestine

What is the role of dendritic cells in lymphoid tissue?

capture antigens and bring them back to lymph nodes

Patients with rhinitis often have "watery eyes" because ______.

the infection has caused inflammation of the nasolacrimal ducts

The structures within the respiratory system's conducting zone include the trachea and the paranasal sinuses.

TRUE

Which of the following is the primary factor in oxygen attachment to, or release from, hemoglobin?

partial pressure of oxygen

Which of the following structures would be the LEAST vulnerable to damage caused by oxygen toxicity?

costal cartilages

What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?

matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow in pulmonary capillaries

Emphysema can result in an ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?

as bicarbonate ions in the plasma

Systemic venous blood that is to be oxygenated in the lungs is delivered by the __________, and the __________ provide oxygenated systemic blood to lung tissue.

pulmonary arteries; bronchial arteries

Smoking inhibits cilia by inhibiting the movements of ______.

dynein molecules

During inhalation,

the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?

Alveoli

Which statement is correct?

In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.

After blood becomes oxygenated,

it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.

Hemoglobin

is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.

Emphysema is distinguished by permanent shrinkage of the alveoli.

FALSE

Oxygen is unloaded where it is most needed when blood pH drops, this is a phenomenon known as ___________.

the Bohr effect

During pneumonia, the lungs become "waterlogged"; this means that within the alveoli there is an abnormal accumulation of ______.

interstitial fluid

The tissue(s) and/or cells that may be affected during laryngitis ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The smallest subdivisions of the lung visible with the naked eye are the __________, which appear to be connected by black carbon in smokers.

Lobules

What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?

vital capacity

During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______.

visceral pleura of the same lung

What is the most powerful respiratory stimulant in a healthy person?

arterial blood carbon dioxide level

Tracheal obstruction by a large piece of food typically involves obstruction of the ______.

Larynx

Which of the following qualifies as a fully saturated hemoglobin molecule?

hemoglobin is transporting four oxygen molecules

Although lung cancer is difficult to cure, it is highly preventable.

TRUE

Which of the following represents all of the processes involved in respiration in the correct order?

pulmonary ventilation; external respiration; transport of respiratory gases; internal respiration;

__________ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli, so it diffuses into the __________.

CO2; alveoli

Which gas law explains why there is as much CO2 exchanged between the alveoli and blood as there is O2 exchanged, despite the fact that the partial pressure difference is so much smaller for CO2?

Henry’s law

How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 change in an exercising muscle?

The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase.

Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration?

O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.

Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?

the molecular weight of the gas

Which of the following is NOT a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation?

partial pressure of oxygen in the air

In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.

intrapleural pressure is higher than intrapulmonary pressure

__________, the difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures, prevents the lungs from collapsing.

Transpulmonary pressure

Dalton's law of partial pressures states that when a gas is in contact with a liquid, that gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure.

FALSE

Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.

TRUE

Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?

intrapleural pressure

What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?

Epiglottis

What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?

vital capacity

Which of the following pressure relationships best illustrates when inspiration will occur?

Ppul < Patm

Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?

tidal volume (TV) + inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?

The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.

Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?

diaphragm and external intercostals

Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?

intrapleural pressure

During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?

Epinephrine

If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?

lungs will collapse

Calculate the transpulmonary pressure if atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg.

4 mm Hg

In which region are the palatine tonsils found?

Oropharynx

Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?

rising carbon dioxide levels

Which of the following would NOT be involved in causing bronchiolar constriction during an asthma attack?

adrenal medulla

The adenoids normally destroy pathogens because they contain ______.

Lymphocytes

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae and mucosa?

to destroy pathogens entering the nasopharynx

Which muscles are activated during normal quiet inspiration?

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

In babies born prematurely, pulmonary surfactant may not be present in adequate amounts ______.

due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells

What is the volume of the total amount of exchangeable air for a healthy, young adult male?

4800 ml

Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?

to assist in taste sensation

Which blood vessels supply oxygenated systemic blood to the lung tissue?

bronchial arteries

During the Valsalva's maneuver, what part of the larynx closes to increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as to help with defecation?

Glottis

Which of the following respiratory structures is more commonly known as the "throat"?

simple squamous epithelium

Since mucus-producing cells and cilia are sparse in the bronchioles and alveoli, how does the body remove microorganisms that make their way into the respiratory zone?

alveolar macrophages crawl freely along internal alveolar surfaces

The indentation on the medial surface of each lung through which pulmonary and systemic blood vessels, bronchi, lymphatic vessels, and nerves enter and leave is called the ___________.

Hilum

The alveoli are also known as alveolar sacs.

FALSE

Which of the following features characterizes the right lung?

presence of a superior, middle, and inferior lobe

The __________ is also known as the "guardian of the airways."

Epiglottis

Which parts of the respiratory system function as the main sites of gas exchange?

Alveoli

What is the most immediate driving force behind pulmonary ventilation?

intrapulmonary pressure change

Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?

serving as part of the respiratory zone

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae?

routing air and food into proper channels

Tracheal obstruction is life threatening.

TRUE

Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They serve minor functions for exhalation.

FALSE

The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall.

TRUE

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.

Alveoli

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

FALSE

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?

internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract

Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?

attached to the heme part of hemoglobin

Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?

aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs

The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air.

TRUE

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.

voluntary cortical control

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

Alveoli

The Hering-Breuer reflex is a potentially dangerous response that may cause overinflation of the lung.

FASLE

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.

0.5 to 1 micrometer thick

Select the correct statement about the pharynx.

The auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx.

The larynx contains ________.

the thyroid cartilage

Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

number of red blood cells

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

partial pressure gradient

Which of the following is not possible?

Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance.

A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask. One hour later, after the oxygen was placed, the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Why did the patient stop breathing?

Oxygen dilates pulmonary arterioles, increasing perfusion and worsening an already poor ventilation-perfusion mismatch. In addition, oxygen drives more CO2 off of hemoglobin, dumping it into alveoli from which it cannot be removed.

The paired lungs occupy all of the thoracic cavity.

FALSE

Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli.

TRUE

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.

Dalton's law

Labored breathing is termed dyspnea.

TRUE

Jane had been suffering through a severe cold and was complaining of a frontal headache and a dull, aching pain at the side of her face. What regions are likely to become sites of secondary infection following nasal infection?

The paranasal sinuses

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.

surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

The nose serves all the following functions except ________.

as the direct initiator of the cough reflex

How will the lungs compensate for an acute rise in the partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood?

Respiratory rate will increase.

The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________.

Friction

Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?

More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.

The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).

TRUE

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

ciliated mucous lining in the nose

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin.

FALSE

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

Diffusion

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid

Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.

The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration.

Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?

blood pH adjustment

Which center is located in the pons?

pontine respirator group (PRG)

The largest amount of carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream in the form of carbonic anhydrase.

FALSE

Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is more basic.

FALSE

The alveolar ventilation rate is the best index of effective ventilation.

TRUE

Atelectasis (lung collapse) renders the lung useless for ventilation.

TRUE

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO2 to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr effect).

FALSE

Gas emboli may occur because a ________.

diver holds his breath upon ascent

During normal quiet breathing, approximately 750 ml of air moves into and out of the lungs with each breath.

FALSE

The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs.

FALSE

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

increase of carbon dioxide

The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.

Boyle's law

Strong emotions and pain acting through the limbic system activate sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus, thus modulating respiratory rate and depth by sending signals to the respiratory centers.

TRUE

Valsalva's maneuver involves closing off the glottis (preventing expiration) while contracting the muscles of expiration, causing an increase in intra-abdominal pressure.

TRUE

Changes in arterial pH can modify respiration rate and rhythm even when carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are normal.

TRUE

The olfactory mucosal lining of the nasal cavity contains the receptors for the sense of smell.

TRUE

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

Which of the following statements about aldosterone is NOT correct?

Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption by increasing the number of Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule.

Which of the following statements about ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is correct?

ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland.

What is the osmolarity of the filtrate at the end of the proximal tubule?

isotonic – 300 mOsm

In overhydration, what would be the levels of ADH (high, normal, or low) and what would be the osmolarity of the urine?

ADH – low; 100 mOsm (urine)

In severe dehydration or blood loss, what would be the levels of ADH and what would be the urine flow rate?

ADH – high; low urine flow rate (0.25 ml/min)

Which of the following promotes the formation of dilute urine?

Under normal conditions, the large renal arteries deliver one-fourth of the total cardiac output (about 1200 ml) to the kidneys each minute.

Which of the following promotes the formation of urine?

decreased osmolarity of extracellular fluids

The __________ is an outer layer of dense fibrous connective tissue that anchors the kidney and the adrenal gland to surrounding structures. The __________ prevents infections in surrounding regions from spreading to the kidneys.

renal fascia; fibrous capsule