A&P II Final Part 1 Flashcards

Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors?

What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones?

After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do?

Which hormone’s receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty?

What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?

What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?

Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?

Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?

Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?

Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?

Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?

The stimuli causing endocrine glands to secrete their hormones in direct response to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and nutrients are called __________.

Which of the following adrenal gland homeostatic imbalances is characterized by persistent elevated blood glucose levels, dramatic losses in muscle and bone protein, and water and salt retention, leading to hypertension and edema?

Which of the following hormones helps the body avoid dehydration and water overload?

Which hormone is the body's major metabolic hormone?

Which of the following hormones regulates blood calcium ion levels?

Which of the following pairs correctly matches the adrenal gland zone or area with the class of hormones it produces?

When blood glucose levels are high

A liver cell responds to insulin by

What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?

Body cells that respond to insulin include

When blood glucose levels are low

The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called

Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?

Two adrenal glands make hormones that are essential for life. However, in adrenogenital syndrome, females develop a beard and a masculine pattern of body hair distribution; this occurs due to ______.

One can predict that a person suffering from diabetes mellitus would probably have ______.

What amino acid-based hormone uses the direct gene activation method illustrated in this image?

__________ is the situation when one hormone cannot exert its full effects without another hormone being present.

Which of the choices below is not a factor required for target cell activation by hormone receptor interaction?

Which of the following is not a type of hormone interaction?

Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.

Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.

Eicosanoids do not include ________.

Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?

What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid–based hormones?

What is the primary function of hormones?

Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

Why does antidiuretic hormone help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid?

Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

Hyperprolactinemia may be caused by ______.

Which of the following is NOT a property of endocrine glands?

Which of the following hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids that help the body to resist stressors?

Major hormones circulate to virtually all tissues.

Aldosteronism will cause ______.

Up-regulation involves the loss of receptors and prevents the target cells from overreacting to persistently high hormone levels.

Which of the following occurs in situations where more than one hormone produces the same effects at the target cell and their combined effects are amplified?

You would predict that iodized salt would have no effect on any cases of ____________.

Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic imbalance related to underactivity of the thyroid gland?

The hypothalamus is known to control the activity of the anterior pituitary, which has traditionally been called the "master endocrine gland."

Hormones that regulate the secretory action of other endocrine glands are called __________.

Which of the following mechanisms of hormone action is used by neurotransmitters and olfactory receptors?

Acromegaly may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?

Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure?

What gland secretes growth hormone?

Which hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary (lobe)?

What hormone, notated by letter B, is released by the anterior pituitary to target the adrenal cortex when we are under stress?

What hormone released into the blood (shown by letter D) by the posterior pituitary inhibits or prevents urine formation?

Which hormone is involved in diabetes mellitus (DM)?

Which of the following would result from hypoparathyroidism?

Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?

Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?

Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?

Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.

Which of the following is not a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.

Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.

Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?

Which of the following best describes gluconeogenesis?

Calcitonin is secreted by which cells?

The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces what steroid hormone?

The sympathetic nervous system directly stimulates which of the following amine hormones?

What hormone causes the loss of sodium and water, thus lowering blood pressure.

What amine hormone helps coordinate body activities with the light-dark cycle?

What hormone promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle?

Where is thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) synthesized?

What is the primary function of hormones?

What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland?

What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons?

Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones?

Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine (“letdown”) reflex?

Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized?

What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone?

Which of the following hormones mainly serves to stimulate milk production by the breasts?

Which of the following is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary?

Which of the following hormones is a part of the rapid response (rather than the prolonged response) to stress?

In response to stress, which of the following changes would happen?

Which of the following are symptom(s) of pheochromocytoma?

Choose which condition has all of the following symptoms: hypertension, hyperglycemia, and a “moon face.”

What hormone also aids the stress response by promoting water retention and acting as a vasoconstrictor?

Which of the following structures does/does NOT produce a hormone or hormones?

The anatomical effects of acromegaly can usually be reversed by surgically removing the tumor from the anterior pituitary.

What cells release parathyroid hormone?

Which hormone can indirectly control insulin release?

Which of the following is NOT a major type of stimulus that triggers endocrine glands to manufacture and release hormones?

A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.

What is required for the production of anterior pituitary gland hormones?

Which of the following best describes the main effects of insulin?

Which hormone(s) is/are essential to our ability to deal with stress?

Hyposecretion of growth hormone

An autoimmune problem involving the thyroid gland

Hyposecretion of the pancreas

Hypersecretion of growth hormone

Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex

ACTH ________.

Which of the following is not a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?

Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the urinary excretion of sodium.

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.

Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.

ADH ________.

Oxytocin and ADH are produced in the posterior pituitary.

A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

Hyposecretion of the thyroid in infants

Hyposecretion of the thyroid in adults

Produces the body's major metabolic hormones

The gland that controls the flight-or-fight reaction

The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.

Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body

Produces a hormone that controls blood levels of calcium and potassium by their removal from bone to tissue.

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.

Which part of the conduction system initiates the depolarizing impulse, which spreads throughout the heart?

What does the ECG wave tracing represent?

What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing?

Contraction of the atria results from which wave of depolarization on the ECG tracing?

Which part of the intrinsic conduction system delays the impulse briefly before it moves on to the ventricles?

The heart's pacemaker is the __________.

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

Which of the following is NOT a difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

Blood in the heart chambers provides some nutrients to the heart muscle cells.

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.

A patient was admitted to the hospital with chest pains. On admission, his pulse was 110 and blood pressure was 96/64. According to his history, his normal pulse rate is usually between 80 and 88 and his blood pressure runs from 120/70 to 130/80. Why did these changes in BP and HR occur?

A 55-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with heart failure. He complains of increasing shortness of breath on exertion, and of needing to sleep on three pillows at night. On physical assessment, the nurse determines that his ankles and feet are very swollen. Which of these symptoms either reflect left-sided and/or right-sided heart failure?

Autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons.

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________.

Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.

Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?

Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.

What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?

Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.

Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?

Isovolumetric contraction ________.

A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain) by decreasing the demand for oxygen. What is the explanation for this pharmacological effect?

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.

The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic valves.

Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

The tricuspid valve is closed ________.

As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.

Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?

Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?

The QRS complex on an electrocardiogram represents __________.

Which of the following pacemaker cells generates impulses of approximately 75 depolarizations per minute in order to control the heart's contraction rate?

What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?

Hypercalcemia could cause ______.

Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?

Which of the following would increase heart rate?

How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?

By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?

How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?

The left side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.

Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?

Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?

What is the source of ATP for cardiac muscle contraction?

What does the T wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?

An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ______.

Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.

Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?

Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.

What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?

Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.

Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood via the pulmonary circuit?

Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?

In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______.

The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?

Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?

Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?

Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?

Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?

Which of the following is NOT a vein that returns blood to the right atrium of the heart?

At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in the heart?

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.

Into what vessel does the left ventricle eject blood?

The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______.

Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.

Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.

The structure that prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium is the

The vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to tissues is the

The capillaries recieving blood from the left side of the heart are

The structure that is located anatomically between the aorta and the left ventricle is

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.

Which valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle?

Which of the following is NOT a difference between the left and right ventricles?

A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for further complications?

Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?

Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

What causes normal heart sounds?

The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.

The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps.

Which of the following increases stroke volume?

Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.

To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________.

During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.

Prevents backflow into the left atrium

AV valve with two flaps

Prevents backflow into the right atrium

Prevents backflow into the right ventricle

Prevents backflow into the left ventricle

AV valve with three flaps

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.

Asystole is the total absence of ventricular electrical activity. Would defibrillation be effective in this situation?

Serous layer covering the heart muscle

Heart muscle

The inner lining of the heart

The outermost layer of the serous pericardium

The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are: __________.

A premature ventricular contraction is classified as a(n) __________.

The heart has __________ chambers and __________ valves.

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the atria repolarize?

The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

Hypercalcemia could cause ______.

Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?

One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?

When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?

Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?

In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?

Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart because the excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity will______.

Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?

Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?

Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.

Proxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by bursts of atrial contractions with little pause between them.

Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a ________.

An ECG provides direct information about valve function.

Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?

An older woman complains of shortness of breath and intermittent fainting spells. Her doctor runs various tests and finds that the AV node is not functioning properly. What is the suggested treatment?

Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.

What is the main function of heart valves?

When the atria contract, which of the following is true?

Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric contraction?

Which of the following is true during ventricular systole?

During the ventricular ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, which of the following is true?

Most of the decrease in ventricular volume takes place during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric relaxation?

Most of the increase in left ventricular volume takes place during what phase of the cardiac cycle?

In what direction does blood flow through the heart?

Atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

At what point during the cardiac cycle does the AV valve close?

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve open?

Ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve close?

Isovolumetric relaxation is characterized by which of the following?

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the AV valve open?

Which artery serves the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart?

Where are worn-out erythrocytes found in the spleen?

Antibodies are produced by __________.

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?

Which of the following promotes closure of the minivalves associated with lymph capillaries?

Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.

Where are Peyer's patches located?

The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?

Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?

Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?

Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?

There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?

To what organ do the lymphatic vessels return protein-rich escaped fluids to rejoin circulation?

Lymph is most similar to __________.

Once collected, lymph is returned to __________.

What is the role of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?

Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs does NOT contain reticular connective tissue?

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?

Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?

Which lymphoid organ serves in immune surveillance and in filtering lymph?

Which lymphoid organ serves as the site where T lymphocytes become immunocompetent T cells?

Which of the following is NOT a part of MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)?

Which lymphoid organ provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response and provides blood-cleansing functions?

Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

After surgical removal of the spleen (i.e., a splenectomy), some other organs take over most of its functions. Which of the following spleen functions in the adult can be performed by bone marrow?

The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.

In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.

If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself.

Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine.

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

The simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.

The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the upper limbs and from the intestinal trunk draining the digestive organs.

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.

Lymph transport involves all but which of the following?

Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?

Which of the following lymphoid cells secrete antibodies?

The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

Which of the following delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?

Of the following lymphoid organs, which is (are) structurally simplest and lack(s) a complete capsule?

What is the name of the enlarged sac to which the lumbar trunks and the intestinal trunk returns lymph?

Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

Tonsillar crypts are invaginations deep into the interior of the tonsil. What is missing from the tonsil that allows for the presence of tonsillar crypts?

Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

All the lymphoid organs are well developed before birth.

Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?

Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?

Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.

There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.

A sentinel node is ________.

Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.

Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system.

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?

Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.

Protien-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels

stores blood platelets

Recieves lymph from most of the body

Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels

Largest lymphatic organ

Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine.

The thymus is most active during ________.

What is a bubo?

Lymphoid tissue is mainly reticular connective tissue.

Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries.

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?

Which of the following does not contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.

What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?

Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

The __________ is (are) the most likely to become infected.

Lymphangitis is caused by ______.

Which of the following lacks lymph capillaries?

Lymph from the right leg ultimately is delivered to which duct in the thoracic region?

Lymphatic vessels __________.

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?

The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.

Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue/organ?

What is the role of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in lymphoid tissue?

Peyer's patches are found in the ________.

Which of the following returns lymph to the right lymphatic duct?

Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with __________.

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

Lymph from what regions of the body is drained into the right lymphatic duct?

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

Peyer's patches are located __________.

What is the role of dendritic cells in lymphoid tissue?

Patients with rhinitis often have "watery eyes" because ______.

The structures within the respiratory system's conducting zone include the trachea and the paranasal sinuses.

Which of the following is the primary factor in oxygen attachment to, or release from, hemoglobin?

Which of the following structures would be the LEAST vulnerable to damage caused by oxygen toxicity?

What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?

Emphysema can result in an ______.

What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?

Systemic venous blood that is to be oxygenated in the lungs is delivered by the __________, and the __________ provide oxygenated systemic blood to lung tissue.

Smoking inhibits cilia by inhibiting the movements of ______.

During inhalation,

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?

Which statement is correct?

After blood becomes oxygenated,

Hemoglobin

Emphysema is distinguished by permanent shrinkage of the alveoli.

Oxygen is unloaded where it is most needed when blood pH drops, this is a phenomenon known as ___________.

During pneumonia, the lungs become "waterlogged"; this means that within the alveoli there is an abnormal accumulation of ______.

The tissue(s) and/or cells that may be affected during laryngitis ______.

The smallest subdivisions of the lung visible with the naked eye are the __________, which appear to be connected by black carbon in smokers.

What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?

During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______.

What is the most powerful respiratory stimulant in a healthy person?

Tracheal obstruction by a large piece of food typically involves obstruction of the ______.

Which of the following qualifies as a fully saturated hemoglobin molecule?

Although lung cancer is difficult to cure, it is highly preventable.

Which of the following represents all of the processes involved in respiration in the correct order?

__________ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli, so it diffuses into the __________.

Which gas law explains why there is as much CO2 exchanged between the alveoli and blood as there is O2 exchanged, despite the fact that the partial pressure difference is so much smaller for CO2?

How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 change in an exercising muscle?

Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration?

Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?

Which of the following is NOT a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation?

In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.

__________, the difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures, prevents the lungs from collapsing.

Dalton's law of partial pressures states that when a gas is in contact with a liquid, that gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure.

Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.

Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?

What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?

What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?

Which of the following pressure relationships best illustrates when inspiration will occur?

Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?

Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?

Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?

Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?

During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?

If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?

Calculate the transpulmonary pressure if atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg.

In which region are the palatine tonsils found?

Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?

Which of the following would NOT be involved in causing bronchiolar constriction during an asthma attack?

The adenoids normally destroy pathogens because they contain ______.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae and mucosa?

Which muscles are activated during normal quiet inspiration?

In babies born prematurely, pulmonary surfactant may not be present in adequate amounts ______.

What is the volume of the total amount of exchangeable air for a healthy, young adult male?

Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?

Which blood vessels supply oxygenated systemic blood to the lung tissue?

During the Valsalva's maneuver, what part of the larynx closes to increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as to help with defecation?

Which of the following respiratory structures is more commonly known as the "throat"?

Since mucus-producing cells and cilia are sparse in the bronchioles and alveoli, how does the body remove microorganisms that make their way into the respiratory zone?

The indentation on the medial surface of each lung through which pulmonary and systemic blood vessels, bronchi, lymphatic vessels, and nerves enter and leave is called the ___________.

The alveoli are also known as alveolar sacs.

Which of the following features characterizes the right lung?

The __________ is also known as the "guardian of the airways."

Which parts of the respiratory system function as the main sites of gas exchange?

What is the most immediate driving force behind pulmonary ventilation?

Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae?

Tracheal obstruction is life threatening.

Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They serve minor functions for exhalation.

The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall.

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?

Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?

Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?

The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air.

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

The Hering-Breuer reflex is a potentially dangerous response that may cause overinflation of the lung.

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.

Select the correct statement about the pharynx.

The larynx contains ________.

Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

Which of the following is not possible?

A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask. One hour later, after the oxygen was placed, the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Why did the patient stop breathing?

The paired lungs occupy all of the thoracic cavity.

Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli.

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.

Labored breathing is termed dyspnea.

Jane had been suffering through a severe cold and was complaining of a frontal headache and a dull, aching pain at the side of her face. What regions are likely to become sites of secondary infection following nasal infection?

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.

The nose serves all the following functions except ________.

How will the lungs compensate for an acute rise in the partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood?

The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________.

Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?

The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.

Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?

Which center is located in the pons?

The largest amount of carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream in the form of carbonic anhydrase.

Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is more basic.

The alveolar ventilation rate is the best index of effective ventilation.

Atelectasis (lung collapse) renders the lung useless for ventilation.

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO2 to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr effect).

Gas emboli may occur because a ________.

During normal quiet breathing, approximately 750 ml of air moves into and out of the lungs with each breath.

The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs.

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.

Strong emotions and pain acting through the limbic system activate sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus, thus modulating respiratory rate and depth by sending signals to the respiratory centers.

Valsalva's maneuver involves closing off the glottis (preventing expiration) while contracting the muscles of expiration, causing an increase in intra-abdominal pressure.

Changes in arterial pH can modify respiration rate and rhythm even when carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are normal.

The olfactory mucosal lining of the nasal cavity contains the receptors for the sense of smell.

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

Which of the following statements about aldosterone is NOT correct?

Which of the following statements about ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is correct?

What is the osmolarity of the filtrate at the end of the proximal tubule?

In overhydration, what would be the levels of ADH (high, normal, or low) and what would be the osmolarity of the urine?

In severe dehydration or blood loss, what would be the levels of ADH and what would be the urine flow rate?

Which of the following promotes the formation of dilute urine?

Which of the following promotes the formation of urine?

The __________ is an outer layer of dense fibrous connective tissue that anchors the kidney and the adrenal gland to surrounding structures. The __________ prevents infections in surrounding regions from spreading to the kidneys.