front 1 Which is false about Hiatal Hernia? | back 1 A sliding hernia is triggered by standing |
front 2 Which one is false about Liquefactive necrosis? | back 2 It is most commonly associated with ischemic injury to the heart This type of necrosis involves the complete digestion of cells and is not going to maintain the structure |
front 3 Which is false about Gas gangrene? | back 3 the causative organism is aerobic |
front 4 Which one is false about Restrictive Cardiomyopathy? | back 4 systolic filling/contraction |
front 5 Which is false about Patent Ductus Arteriosus? | back 5 the atrial septal defect = a hole between the atriums the ventricular septal defect = a hole between the ventricles dextropoistion = describes a heart on the right with an apex to the left, secondary to extracardiac causes |
front 6 The ____ is a deficient amount of menstrual flow; reduced flow. | back 6 hypomenorrhea deficient amount of menstrual flow; reduced flow causes: endocrine or systemic disorders interfering with hormones, partial obstruction of menstrual flow |
front 7 Which is false about the causes of primary dysmenorrhea? | back 7 primary dysmenorrhea (muscle spasms in the uterus) due to hormonal/chemical that cause cramping pain in the lower abdomen where the uterus bleeds this process is normally called a "period." possible false answers: he may mix primary and secondary? |
front 8 In a uterine prolapse-first degree, we observe the end of the cervix begins to protrude through the introitus. true or false | back 8 false occurs in the third degree/stage of uterine prolapse |
front 9 Which is false about Retrodisplacement of the Uterus? | back 9 It always leads to infertility three types of displacement retroflex = towards spine retroverted = straight anteverted = towards bladder |
front 10 The _______ is the protrusion of a portion of the urinary bladder into a weakened part of the anterior vagina | back 10 cystocele / anterior prolapse |
front 11 Which is false about Uterine Leiomyomas? | back 11 uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) = is a noncancerous growth in the uterus that can develop during a woman's childbearing years |
front 12 Which is false about the clinical manifestations of endometriosis? | back 12 clinical manifestations of endometriosis list dysmenorrhea = painful menstruation intermenstrual bleeding dyschezia = painful defecation dyspareunia = pain intercourse dysuria = painful urination |
front 13 Which is not a clinical manifestation of breast cancer? | back 13 no noticeable symptoms |
front 14 Which is false about testicular torsion? | back 14 testicular torsion is the twisting of the cord supplying blood to the loose bag of skin (scrotum) beneath the penis causing it to swell and become could be false: epididymitis = which is inflammation of the tube at the back of the testicle that stores and carries sperm. which is caused by a bacterial infection |
front 15 Which is false about Fournier Gangrene? | back 15 it exclusively affects women is a rare but deadly infection of the genital and perineum |
front 16 this type of enuresis, the child has nocturnal incontinence but no other signs of lower urinary tract syndrome | back 16 primary monosymptomatic nocturnal enuresis |
front 17 which is false about overactive bladder syndrome (OAB)? | back 17 it is primarily due to bacterial infection overactive bladder syndrome = the constant contraction of the muscles within the bladder |
front 18 which is false about the post-oliguric phase? | back 18 urine output decreases and solutes are retained post-oliguric phase = consists of the diuretic phase (increase in urination) and recovery phase (return to homeostasis) |
front 19 which is true about obstructive shock? | back 19 causes: results from mechanical obstructions that prevent effective cardiac filling and stroke volume common causes include pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, and tension pneumothorax rapid management of underlying obstruction is required to prevent cardiovascular collapse |
front 20 The primary cause of death in ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome) is | back 20 multi-system organ dysfunction (MODS) sepsis syndrome |
front 21 Which one is true about disseminated intravascular coagulation? | back 21 its a condition affecting the bloods ability to clot and stop bleeding also known as consumptive coagulopathy |
front 22 Which one is incorrect about heart failure? | back 22 it exclusively results from left ventricular dysfunction systolic (contracting) = loses its ability to pump enough blood to either the lungs or body diastolic (relaxing) = loses its ability to relax normally because the muscle has become stiff, so not enough blood is being filled in to ventricles (heart failure most commonly occurs on the left side) left sided = failure occurs when the heart loses its ability to pump blood right sided = the hearts right ventricle is too weak to pump enough blood to the lungs biventricular = both sides of the heart are affected. this can cause the same symptoms as both left-sided and right-sided heart failure, such as shortness of breath and a build-up of fluid |
front 23 The ______ is a completely disorganized and irregular atrial rhythm accompanied by an irregular ventricular rhythm. | back 23 atrial fibrilation |
front 24 Which one is false about the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? | back 24 is a critical regulator of blood volume, electrolyte balance, and systemic vascular resistance. that decrease blood pressure by excreting sodium and water RAAS increases blood pressure any condition that causes RAAS to overreact can be treated with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers |
front 25 Which of the following is not part of the category of the Myeloid neoplasm? | back 25 lists of categories acute myeloid leukemia and related precursor neoplasms myelodysplastic syndromes myeloproleferative neoplasms myelodysplastic/myeloproleferative diseases |
front 26 Which is false about hodgkin's disease? | back 26 it is a precursor to T-cell lymphoma |
front 27 Which is false about vascular purpura? | back 27 a raised vasculitic hemorrhage into the skin and/or mucous membranes |
front 28 Which of the following coagulation factors is not dependent on Vitamin K? (select all that apply) | back 28 mycobacterium fibrinogen factor V von willebrand factor factor XIII non-vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors fibrinogen factor V von willebrand factor factor XIII |
front 29 Which is incorrect about Hypospadias? | back 29 the meatus is formed along the dorsum of the penis hypospadias = is a birth defect in boys in which the opening of the urethra is not located at the tip of the penis |
front 30 Which is false about tricuspid atresia? | back 30 tricuspid atresia = is a birth defect (congenital) of the heart where the valve that controls blood flow from the right upper chamber of the heart to the right lower chamber of the heart doesn't form at all |
front 31 which is false about tetralogy of fallot? | back 31 tetralogy of fallot = is a rare heart condition that is present at birth. that means its a congenital heart defect. there's a hole between the ventricles thick heart muscle on right side of the heart narrow pulmonary artery called pulmonary stenosis |
front 32 which is false about the coarctation of the aorta? | back 32 most aortic coarctations are at or below the diaphragm coarctation of the aorta = is a birth defect in which a part of the aorta is narrower than usual |
front 33 everything is correct about. lymphedema, except | back 33 the lymph system cannot create collateral vessels to repair itself, leading to inflammation lymphedema = is swelling due to build-up of lymph fluid in the body |
front 34 Which is false about Raynaud syndrome? | back 34 CP alleviate (reduce) the symptoms Raynaud Syndrome = a condition in which some areas of the body feel numb and cool in certain circumstances |
front 35 which one is false about thrombosis? | back 35 thrombosis occurs when blood clots block veins or arteries solidification of stagnant blood |
front 36 which is false about von willebrand disease? | back 36 functional vWF molecules usually occur as a monomers or dimers von willebrand disease = a bleeding disorder caused by lowlives of clotting protein, called von willebrand factor, in the blood |
front 37 ______ is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus | back 37 obesity |
front 38 Hep B is usually transmitted by exposure to (select all that apply) | back 38 sexual contact sharing needles, syringes, or other drug-injection equipment mother to child during birth |
front 39 ulcerative colitises commonly associated with at least... what? | back 39 colorectal cancer |
front 40 chronic pancreatitis may lead to ________ | back 40 weight loss and occasionally diarrhea |
front 41 diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from ____ | back 41 decreased myoinositol transport |
front 42 barret esophagus is a | back 42 condition in which tissue that is similar to the lining of your intestine replaces the tissue lining to your esophagus |
front 43 which is false about gestational diabetes mellitus? | back 43 diabetes is likely to persist in the mother after she has given birth, potentially for the rest of her life gestational diabetes mellitus = is a condition in which a hormone made by the placenta prevents the body from using insulin effectively |
front 44 which is false about diabetic ketoacidosis? (select all that apply) | back 44 caused by too much insulin diabetic ketoacidosis = a complication of diabetes in which acids build up in the blood to levels that can be life threatening |
front 45 which is false about ascites? | back 45 it is primarily caused by hypothyroidism ascites is a condition in which fluid collects in spaces within your abdomen ascites results from high pressure in certain veins of the liver (portal hypertension) and low blood levels of a protein called albumin |
front 46 which ones are correct about hep B (HBV)? (select all that apply) | back 46 transmitted through blood and body fluids can cause chronic infection vaccine available most people infected with HBV develop chronic infection |
front 47 which ones are false about hepatitis D (delta)? select all that apply | back 47 prevention of hep d includes hand washing and the hep d vaccine hep d is most commonly transmitted via the fecal-oral route HDV can only occur if you have HBV as HDV is an incomplete virus that requires the helper function of HBV to replicate |
front 48 Which is false about Cirrhosis? | back 48 it is most often caused by diabetes cirrhosis = is a condition in which your liver is scarred and permanently damaged |
front 49 Which one is false about Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)? | back 49 The disease occurs more frequently in women |
front 50 which is false about peptic ulcer? | back 50 it is caused by emotional stress and spicy food peptic ulcer = a sore that develops on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine |
front 51 Which is false about antibiotic-associated colitis (pseudomembranous entercolitis)? | back 51 overgrowth of the yeast Candida albicans causes necrosis of intestinal mucosa |
front 52 which is false about diventricular disease? | back 52 prevalence of diventricular disease decreases as we age diventricular disease = a condition in which small, bulging pouches develop in the digestive tract |
front 53 which is false about pancreatic cancer? | back 53 the 5 year survival rate us 80% pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that forms in the tissues of the pancreas |
front 54 which is not a prehepatic cause of jaundice? | back 54 prehepatic cause of jaundice = excess unconjugated bilirubin is produced faster than the liver is able to conjugate it for excretion causes: hemolytic anemia, hemolysis, ineffective erythropoiesis |
front 55 which is false about hepatic encephalopathy | back 55 hepatic encephalopathy = the loss of brain function when a damaged liver doesn't remove toxins from the blood |
front 56 the following are clinical manifestations of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, except | back 56 clinical manifestations are: patients with cirrhosis fever abdominal pain altered mental status abdominal tenderness hypotension |
front 57 which one is false about hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? | back 57 90% of the patients will have H63D mutation HH is a disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron from the diet |
front 58 which one is not part of the etiology of Wilsons disease? | back 58 Wilsons disease = an inherited disorder that causes too much copper to accumulate in the organs |
front 59 which is false about kernicterus? | back 59 kernicterus, or bilirubin encephalopathy, is a bilirubin-induced neurological damage, which is most commonly seen in infants |
front 60 which is false X-linked adrenal leukodystrophy? | back 60 X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (X-ALD) affects the nervous system and
the adrenal cortex. It is a X-chromosome mutation |
front 61 this is a rare autosomal recessive disorder marked by significant unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, two types exist | back 61 crigler-najjar syndrome |
front 62 which is true about lgA nephropathy (Berger disease)? | back 62 lgA nephropathy (berger disease) happens when a germ-fighting protein called immunoglobulin A (lgA) builds up in the kidneys. This causes a type of swelling called inflammation that, over time, can make it harder for the kidneys to filter waste from the blood. symptoms: bleeding in the urine |
front 63 Which is incorrect for Crescentic glomerulonephritis? | back 63 Crescentic glomerulonephritis (GN) = is a chronic immune mediated disease which causes severe glomerular inflammation and injury, and often leads to irreversible kidney failure. three types of crescentic glomerulonephritis (GN) glomerular basement membrane breaks which leaks blood cells and nutrients affects the people between their 50s and 60s |
front 64 Apoptis is a process that results in cellular | back 64 death |
front 65 the _____ is the study of causes or reasons for phenomena and identifies causal factors that, acting in concert, provoke a particular disease or injury | back 65 etiology |
front 66 hypotension, distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of | back 66 cardiac tamponade |
front 67 it is true that the synthesis of thyroid hormones | back 67 is inhibited by iodine deficiency |
front 68 systemic lupus erthematosus (SLE) is a rheumatic disease attributed to | back 68 autoimmune mechanisms |
front 69 characteristics of scoliosis include (select all that apply) | back 69 involvement of lateral curvature of the spine increase during periods of rapid growth identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence possibility of leading to respiratory complications |
front 70 the most common type of osteomyelitis is | back 70 hematogenous |
front 71 a person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop | back 71 hypercalcemia |
front 72 allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with | back 72 leg-mediated airway inflammation |
front 73 chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of | back 73 increased pulmonary vascular resistance |
front 74 croup is characterized by | back 74 inspiratory stridor a harsh cough hoarseness varying degrees of respiratory distress |
front 75 hyperaldosteronism causes | back 75 ECV excess & hypokalemia hyperaldosteronism causes excessive renal retention of sodium and water and excessive potassium excretion, which lead to ECV excess and hypokalemia. hyperaldosteronism does not cause ECV deficit, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, or excessive water reabsorption without affecting sodium concentration |
front 76 celiac sprue is a malabsorptive disorder associated with | back 76 inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods |
front 77 it is true that biliary cancer... | back 77 tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously |
front 78 a low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia? | back 78 iron-deficiency anemia |
front 79 the megakaryocyte is a precursor to | back 79 platelets |
front 80 second-degree heart block type I (wenckebach) is characterized by | back 80 a gradual prolongation of the PR interval over a few heart cycles until an atrial impulse is completely blocked, which manifests on the ECG as a P-wave not followed by a QRS complex. |
front 81 Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is caused by | back 81 contact with skin allergens atopic dermatitis (eczema)=is a condition that causes dry, itchy and inflamed skin |
front 82 deep pressure ulcers usually ______ | back 82 result from thrombosis of deep vessels |
front 83 corticosteroids are commonly administered for the management of skin disorders because they | back 83 reduce inflammation |
front 84 Manifestations of herpes zoster include _________ | back 84 a dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain symptoms prior to the rash appearing include: fever general weakness or pain burning or tingling sensation over an area on one side of body or face most common sites are chest, abdomen and waistline |
front 85 impetigo is a skin infection caused by ______ba | back 85 bacteria staphylococcus aureus streptococcus pyogenes |
front 86 scleroderma is characterized by | back 86 thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin scleroderma is chronic hardening and lightening of the skin and connective tissues |
front 87 what is the most common, benign form of skin cancer? | back 87 basal |
front 88 the difference between chickenpox and measles is that chickenpox... | back 88 causes vesicles that scab, whereas measles remains a macular rash |
front 89 a patient is diagnosed with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia). The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (select all that apply) | back 89 fatigue weight loss abdominal discomfort sweats |
front 90 during the first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium proliferates under the influence of .... WHAT? | back 90 estrogen |
front 91 From the time of fertilization until the end of the eighth week, the developing organism is referred to as the | back 91 embryo |
front 92 the heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development? | back 92 second trimester (4 to 6) |
front 93 pregnancy is associated with ... WHAT? | back 93 increased CO and blood volume (30-40%/1-2L) |
front 94 A 48 year old female who is having hot flashes, tachycardia, palpitations, and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to | back 94 perimenopause |
front 95 what laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia? | back 95 pancytopenia |
front 96 thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia because they are both | back 96 microcytic |
front 97 which is false about acute rheumatic fever | back 97 it is rarely fatal, even when untreated |
front 98 lusitropic impairment refers to | back 98 impaired diastolic relaxation |
front 99 an abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of | back 99 premature ventricular complexes |
front 100 beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they | back 100 reduce cardiac output |