front 1 What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue | back 1 striated, voluntary, parallel fibers, multinucleated, attached to skeleton |
front 2 what are the characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue (heart muscle) | back 2 branched fibers, intercalated discs, involuntary |
front 3 what are the characteristics of smooth muscle tissue (visceral) | back 3 spindle shaped, involuntary, found around hollow organs such as arteries, esophagus, stomach, no striations |
front 4 what are the characteristics of muscles | back 4 contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity |
front 5 why do muscles need a rich blood supply | back 5 to bring in oxygen and remove waste |
front 6 what is compartment syndrome | back 6 more muscle breaks then grows due to exercise |
front 7 what is the epimysium | back 7 tough outer coat of connective tissue surrounding the entire muscle |
front 8 what is the perimysium | back 8 several sheathed muscle fibers wrapped in a coarse membrane surrounding the endomysium |
front 9 what is the endomysium | back 9 a delicate connective sheath around a single muscle fiber |
front 10 what are the differences between tendons and ligaments | back 10 tendons connect two different things (bone to muscle) and ligaments connect two like things (bone to bone / muscle to muscle) |
front 11 what is the sarcolemma | back 11 plasma membrane of a muscle cell |
front 12 what is the sacroplasm | back 12 the cytoplasm membrane of a muscle cell |
front 13 what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum | back 13 for calcium storage |
front 14 what are myofibrils | back 14 made of thick and thin filaments that interact for muscle contracts |
front 15 what are the thick filaments made of | back 15 the protein myosin |
front 16 what are the thin filaments made of | back 16 the protein actin |
front 17 what are tropomyosin and troponin | back 17 regulatory proteins that block the contraction the muscle during rest |
front 18 what starts the process of muscle contraction | back 18 calcium |
front 19 what are the sarcomeres | back 19 the basic unit of striated muscle tissue that extends from one Z line to the next |
front 20 what happens to the z-lines when the muscle contracts | back 20 it brings the z-lines closer together |
front 21 what are the I bands | back 21 (light bands) made up of actin filaments are anchored to Z lines |
front 22 what are the A bands | back 22 (dark bands) are made up of overlapping thick and thin filaments |
front 23 what are the H zones | back 23 in the center of A bands consisting of myosin filaments only |
front 24 what do the transverse (T) tubules do | back 24 disperse calcium throughout the muscle that is previously stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum |
front 25 what is duchenne muscular dystrophy | back 25 the affected structure of dystrophin, if dystrophin is not built properly, then the ladder shape of the muscle will break down |
front 26 a patient has large calves, walk on tiptoes, positive Gowers' sign. what does this patient have and what causes this disease | back 26 Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to deformed dystrophin |
front 27 what is the order of how a muscle contracts | back 27 1. action potential arrives at axon terminal of motor neuron 2. voltage-gated calcium channels open, calcium enters the axon terminal moving down its electrochemical gradient 3. calcium entry causes ACh (a neurotransmitter) to be released by exocytosis 4. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to its receptors on the sarcolemma |
front 28 what does acetylcholinesterase do | back 28 it breaks down ACh and allows muscle to relax, blocking this can help with dementia |
front 29 what is myasthenia gravis | back 29 an autoimmune condition where the immune system is attacking ACh receptors, so she is unable to contract her muscles, unable to breathe, unable to swallow |
front 30 what is rigor mortis | back 30 calcium pumps runout of ATP --> calcium can't be removed --> continuous contraction |
front 31 what are the products of aerobic respiration | back 31 36 ATP and glucose |
front 32 what stores excess energy when the ATP supply is sufficient | back 32 creatine phosphate |
front 33 what forms when oxygen deficiency develops during strenuous exercise | back 33 pyruvic acid then reacts to form lactic acid |
front 34 what is the origin of muscle attachment | back 34 attachment site of a muscle or tendon to a bone that doesn't move during contraction |
front 35 what is the insertion of muscle attachment | back 35 attachment site of a muscle or tendon to a moving bone that moves during contraction |
front 36 what is the agonist muscle group | back 36 prime move, muscle that causes a movement |
front 37 what is the antagonist muscle group | back 37 opposes the muscle that stretches; regulates the muscle contraction |
front 38 what is the synergist muscle group | back 38 assists the prime mover |
front 39 what is the fixator muscle group | back 39 auxiliary muscles that steady a movement (immobilizes a bone or muscle's origin) |
front 40 supra (muscle naming) | back 40 above |
front 41 infra (muscle naming) | back 41 below |
front 42 sub (muscle naming) | back 42 underneath |
front 43 maximus (muscle naming) | back 43 largest |
front 44 minimis (muscle naming) | back 44 smallest |
front 45 vastus (muscle naming) | back 45 huge |
front 46 longus (muscle naming) | back 46 long |
front 47 brevis (muscle naming) | back 47 short |
front 48 major (muscle naming) | back 48 large |
front 49 minor (muscle naming) | back 49 small |
front 50 oblique (muscle naming) | back 50 slant muscle fibers |
front 51 rectus (muscle naming) | back 51 straight muscle fibers |
front 52 what is flexion | back 52 movement that decreases the angle between 2 bones |
front 53 what is extension | back 53 movement that increases the angle between 2 bones |
front 54 what is abduction | back 54 movement away from the midline of the body |
front 55 what is adduction | back 55 movement toward the midline of the body |
front 56 what is dorsiflexion | back 56 upward movement of the foot (take your foot off the gas) |
front 57 what is plantarflexion | back 57 downward movement of the food (mash on the gas) |
front 58 what is inversion | back 58 movement of the foot/ankle causing the sole of the foot to turn inward |
front 59 what is eversion | back 59 movement of the foot/ankle causing the sole of the foot to turn outward |
front 60 what is pronation | back 60 movement causing the palm of the hand to turn down |
front 61 what is supination | back 61 movement causing the palm of the hand to turn upward |
front 62 what is the muscle function of the orbicularis oculi | back 62 closes the eyelids; causes squinting, winking, and blinking |
front 63 what is the muscle function of the buccinator | back 63 compresses the cheeks to hold food during chewing, sucking in cheeks and allows to blow a horn |
front 64 what is the muscle function of the masseter | back 64 raises mandible and brings it forward. chewing muscle |
front 65 what is the muscle function of the sternocleidomastoid | back 65 flexes head and bends it laterally |
front 66 what is the muscle function of the external intercostals | back 66 elevate ribs and enlarge thorax for breathing |
front 67 what is the muscle function of the diaphragm | back 67 expands thorax, compresses contents of abdominal cavity (primary quiet breathing muscle) |
front 68 what is the function of trapezius | back 68 allow you to shrug your shoulders, keeps scapula pinned down to the back |
front 69 what are the rotator cuff muscles | back 69 supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis (SItS muscles) |
front 70 what is the muscle function of the biceps brachii | back 70 flexion of the elbow and shoulder and supinates the forearm |
front 71 what is the muscle function of the triceps brachii | back 71 extends the elbow; adducts and extends the shoulder |
front 72 what is the muscle function of the sartorius | back 72 flexion, external rotation and abduction of the hip; flexion and internal rotation of the knee |
front 73 what is the largest muscle | back 73 gluteus maximus |
front 74 what is the longest muscle | back 74 sartorius |
front 75 what is the strongest muscle | back 75 masseter |
front 76 what is the central nervous system | back 76 brain and spinal cord of dorsal body cavity, integration and control center, interprets sensory input and dictates motor output |
front 77 what is the peripheral nervous system (PNS) | back 77 the portion of the nervous system outside CNS, consists mainly of nerves that extend from brain and spinal cord, spinal nerves to and from spinal cord, cranial nerves to and from brain |
front 78 what is the sensory (afferent) division | back 78 impulses coming into the nervous system (arrive) |
front 79 what is the motor (efferent) division | back 79 impulse exiting the nervous system |
front 80 what is the autonomic nervous system | back 80 involuntary nervous system made of sympathetic and parasympathetic |
front 81 what are neuroglia | back 81 small cells that surround and wrap delicate neurons, hold the nervous system together |
front 82 what are neurons | back 82 excitable cells that transmit electrical signs, send and receive signals |
front 83 what are the neuroglia | back 83 astrocytes (CNS), microglial cells (CNS), ependymal cells (CNS), oligodendrocytes(CNS), satellite cells (PNS), schwann cells (PNS) |
front 84 what are the most abundant neuroglia | back 84 astrocytes |
front 85 what are microglial cells | back 85 migrate toward injured neurons, can transform to phagocytize microorganisms and neuronal debris |
front 86 what is catiousnecrosis | back 86 find the neurons that are dead or dying and turn them into a cottage cheese like material that protects the brain by being bacteriostatic (prevents the growth of bacteria) |
front 87 what are ependymal cells | back 87 may be ciliated, line the central cavities of the brain and spinal column, form permeable barrier between cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in cavities and tissue fluid bathing CNS cells, hold together the corriol plexus |
front 88 what are oligodendrocytes | back 88 make the myelin sheath for the CNS only |
front 89 what are the schwann cells (neurolemmocytes) | back 89 surround all peripheral nerve fibers and form myelin sheath in thicker nerve fibers only |
front 90 a patient uses chainsaw to cut limb from tree, ladder moves and tries to grab the chainsaw, cuts his arm through the radius but not the ulna, touching his middle finger he thinks its his thumb, why is this happening | back 90 his schwann cells helped to regenerate his sensation but not always correctly |
front 91 what are neurons | back 91 structural units of nervous system, extreme longevity, amitotic (do not go through mitosis), high metabolic rate - requires continuous supply of oxygen and glucose |
front 92 where do neurons receive signals from | back 92 dendrites |
front 93 what do axons do | back 93 send signals out |
front 94 where do axons arise from | back 94 axon hillock |
front 95 what is anterograde | back 95 transport along the axon away from cell body |
front 96 what is retrograde | back 96 transport along the axon toward cell body |
front 97 what is rabies | back 97 bullet shaped virus and and an example of retrograde |
front 98 what is the function of myelin | back 98 protects and electrically insulates axon, increases speed of nerve impulse transmission, make sure the transition speed moves faster |
front 99 what are multipolar neurons | back 99 3 or more processes, most common type; major neuron in CNS |
front 100 what are bipolar neurons | back 100 2 processes, rare, only found in eyes and nose |
front 101 what are the three types of functional classifications of neurons | back 101 sensory (afferent), motor (efferent), and interneurons |
front 102 what are sensory (afferent) neurons | back 102 transmit impulses from sensory receptors toward CNS, cell bodies in ganglia in PNS |
front 103 what are motor (efferent) neurons | back 103 carry impulses from CNS to effectors |
front 104 what are interneurons (association neurons) | back 104 lie between motor and sensory neurons, shuttle signals through CNS pathways, 99% of body's neurons, cause the reflex to pull away from danger (child touching a hot plate) |
front 105 what are leakage (nongated) ion channels | back 105 always open |
front 106 what are gated ion channels | back 106 part of protein changes shape to open/close channel |
front 107 what is the potential energy difference across the membrane of a resting cell | back 107 -70 mV in neurons, membrane termed polarized |
front 108 does ECF or ICF have a higher concentration of Na+ | back 108 ECF |
front 109 does ECF or ICF have a higher concentration of K+ | back 109 ICF |
front 110 what plays the most important role in membrane potential | back 110 K+ (potassium) |
front 111 what diffuses faster in the sodium-potassium pump | back 111 more potassium diffuses out than sodium diffuses in, establishes resting membrane potential; 3 Na+ pumped out of cell; two K+ pumped in |
front 112 what is graded potentials | back 112 incoming signals operating over short distances |
front 113 what are action potentials | back 113 long-distance signals of axons |
front 114 what is depolarization | back 114 decrease in membrane potential (toward zero and above), inside of membrane becomes less negative than resting membrane potential, increases probability of producing a nerve impulse |
front 115 what is hyperpolarization | back 115 an increase in membrane potential (away from zero, more negative than -70), inside of cell more negative than resting membrane potential, this makes it more difficult to fire down the axon |
front 116 what is degree of myelination | back 116 continuous conduction in unmyelinated axons is slower than saltatory (bouncing from nod to nod) conduction in myelinated axons |
front 117 what is the associated sensory receptors of type Ia | back 117 responsible for proprioception |
front 118 what is the associated sensory receptors of type Ib | back 118 golgi tendon organ |
front 119 what is multiple sclerosis (MS) | back 119 autoimmune disease affecting primarily young adults, myelin sheaths in CNS destroyed, starts out with blurred vision or loss of bladder control |
front 120 what are synapses | back 120 where the message is delivered |
front 121 what event is transmission across synaptic cleft | back 121 chemical event |
front 122 what starts the information transfer across chemical synapses | back 122 calcium |
front 123 what are the effects of termination of neurotransmitters | back 123 reuptake by astrocytes or axon terminal, degradation by enzymes (primarily by acetylcholine), diffusion away from synaptic cleft |
front 124 what is acetylcholine (ACh) | back 124 synthesized from acetic and choline by enzyme choline acetyltransferase, degraded by enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE) |
front 125 what are catecholamines | back 125 dopamine, norepinephrine (NE), and epinephrine, synthesized from amino acid tyrosine |
front 126 what does the GABA amino acid neurotransmitter do | back 126 it is an inhibitor that is normally used when we need to inhibit the brain |
front 127 what are substance P neurotransmitters | back 127 pain signals |
front 128 what are endorphin neurotransmitters | back 128 act as natural opiates; reduce pain perception |
front 129 what are the purine neurotransmitters | back 129 ATP, Adenosine and they are potent inhibitors in the brain |
front 130 what is a main gasotranmitter | back 130 nitric oxide (NO) |
front 131 what are endocannabinoid neurotransmitters | back 131 act as same receptors as THC, mostly used to control appetite and suppresses nausea |
front 132 where does ACh have an excitatory effect | back 132 at neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle |
front 133 where does ACh have an inhibitory effect | back 133 in cardiac muscle |
front 134 what is apoptosis | back 134 programmed cell death |
front 135 what is necrosis | back 135 abnormal or premature cell death |
front 136 what is parasympathetic in the ANS | back 136 rest and digest, postganglionic axons release acetylcholine (cholinergic) |
front 137 what is sympathetic in ANS | back 137 fight or flight, increase heart rate, respiration, and vasoconstriction, postganglionic axons release norepinephrine (adrenergic) |
front 138 what is horner's syndrome | back 138 loss of sympathetic innervation to an eye, ptosis, anhidrosis, miosis |
front 139 a patient has drooping eye lids, drying of the eyes, and large pupils. what does this patient have | back 139 horner's syndrome |
front 140 what are the twelve cranial nerves | back 140 olfactory nerve, optic nerve, oculomotor nerve, trochlear nerve, trigeminal nerve, abducens nerve, facial nerve, vestibulocochlear nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, vagus nerve, accessory nerve, hypoglossal nerve |
front 141 what are the olfactory nerves | back 141 sensory nerves of smell, purely sensory (olfactory) function cranial nerve 1 |
front 142 a patient is rollerblading and did a trick and fell back and hit the back of his head, loss of smell, patient has anosmia and this is because of a tearing of the olfactory nerve, permanent loss of smell. what does this patient have | back 142 anosmia due to damage of the olfactory nerve |
front 143 what are the optic nerves | back 143 purely sensory (visual) function cranial nerve 2 |
front 144 a young girl is growing out of control and her parents are both short, she started not being able to see things out of the corner of her eyes, what does she have | back 144 she has a pituitary adenoma which is pressing on the optic chiasma and increasing the pituitary hormones |
front 145 what are the oculomotor nerves | back 145 function in raising eyelid, directing eyeball, constricting iris (parasympathetic), and controlling lens shape, does the motor function for the muscles in the eyes cranial nerve 3 |
front 146 what is the formula to remember the nerves for functions of eyes | back 146 LR6SO4AO3 lateral rectus controlled by cranial nerve 6, superior oblique are controlled by cranial nerve 4, all other muscles of the eye are controlled by cranial nerve 3 |
front 147 what are the trochlear nerves | back 147 control superior oblique muscle cranial nerve 4 |
front 148 what are the trigeminal nerves | back 148 largest of the cranial nerves, ophthalmic (V1) supraorbital foramen (notch), maxillary (V2) infraorbital foramen, mandibular (V3) mental foramen cranial nerve 5 |
front 149 what are the abducens nerves | back 149 control lateral rectus muscle cranial nerve 6 |
front 150 what are the facial nerves | back 150 facial expression, parasympathetic impulses to lacrimal and salivary glands, sensory function (taste) from anterior two-thirds of tongue cranial nerve 7 |
front 151 what is bell's palsy | back 151 one side of the face is dropping, no wrinkles on affected side, no smile on the affected side, this is not a stroke because it only affects the facial nerves, due to paralysis of facial nerve |
front 152 what are the vestibulocochlear nerves | back 152 hearing receptors and equilibrium receptors cranial nerve 8 |
front 153 what are the glossopharyngeal nerves | back 153 sensory function that deal with taste, deals with tongue and pharynx cranial nerve 9 |
front 154 what are the vagus nerves | back 154 only cranial nerves that extend beyond head and neck region cranial nerve 10 |
front 155 patient was feeling hoarse, everyone around her had an upper respiratory infection, hoarseness is getting worse after a month, gets an echo and finds that she had something pressing on her left recurrent nerve what does this cause | back 155 she has vagal nerve paralysis, the left recurrent nerve is part of the vagus nerve |
front 156 what are the accessory nerves | back 156 trapezius and sternocleidomastoid, loss of function leads to inability to shrug your shoulders and not turn your head to affected side cranial nerve 11 |
front 157 what are the hypoglossal nerves | back 157 swallowing and speech, below the tongue cranial nerve 12 |
front 158 what cells are found in chemoreceptors | back 158 gustatory cells |
front 159 what cranial nerves involve taste | back 159 cranial nerve 7 and 9 to medulla oblongata |
front 160 what cranial nerve involves smell | back 160 cranial nerve 1 |
front 161 what is the mucous membrane in the eyelid (palpebrae) | back 161 conjunctiva |
front 162 what is conjunctivitis | back 162 pink eye, inflammation that connects the eye lid to the scara |
front 163 what are the ducts superior and lateral to the eyes and what do they do | back 163 lacrimal glands and they keep the eyes moist |
front 164 what are the nasolacrimal ducts | back 164 empties to nasal cavity |
front 165 what are the 3 tunics (layers) of the eyeball | back 165 sclera, choroid, and retina |
front 166 what is the sclera | back 166 the tunic of the eyeball that is the outermost, thickest, and toughest |
front 167 what is the choroid | back 167 the tunic of the eyeball that is very black, keeps light out of the eye except for the pupil |
front 168 what is the retina | back 168 made up completely of photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) |
front 169 what is the cornea | back 169 transparent anterior part of the eyeball |
front 170 what is the iris | back 170 the colorful part of the eye |
front 171 what does the ciliary muscle do | back 171 moves the iris |
front 172 what happens to the pupil when light is shined in the eye | back 172 the pupil gets smaller |
front 173 what do rods see | back 173 black/white vision, dim light |
front 174 what do cones see | back 174 color vision, intense light |
front 175 what is the route in order to see color | back 175 cone --> bipolar cell--> ganglion cell--> axon of ganglion |
front 176 why should you check the eyes of patients with diabetes | back 176 because clots can form in the eyes due to high blood sugar |
front 177 what is glaucoma | back 177 when there is a blockage in the eye causing the aqueous humor to not be able to escape |
front 178 what are cataracts | back 178 abnormal crystallization of the lens, common in diabetes, injury, heredity |
front 179 a patient is a heavy smoker or has diabetes and their lens of their eyes become cloudy what do they have | back 179 cataracts |
front 180 what are the important points of the ear | back 180 hearing, balance, cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear) |
front 181 what is cerumen | back 181 ear wax |
front 182 what are things that arise from diencephalon | back 182 epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, retina, ciliary body, iris, vitreous humor, and cranial nerve 2 |
front 183 what makes up the brain stem | back 183 midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata |
front 184 does the brain or the spinal cord have white matter on the inside and gray on the outside | back 184 brain, spinal cord is reversed |
front 185 what are the ventricles of the brain filled with | back 185 cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), makes the entire CNS float |
front 186 what are the ventricles of the brain lined with | back 186 ependymal cells |
front 187 what are the ventricles of the brain connected to | back 187 central canal of the spinal cord |
front 188 how are lateral ventricles connected to third ventricles | back 188 interventricular foramen |
front 189 how is the third ventricles connected to the fourth ventricle | back 189 cerebral aqueduct |
front 190 what are the ridges of the brain called | back 190 gyri |
front 191 what are the shallow grooves of the brain called | back 191 sulci |
front 192 what are the deep grooves of the brain called | back 192 fissures |
front 193 how is the brain separated by longitudinal fissure | back 193 separated into two hemispheres |
front 194 how is the brain separated by transsverse cerebral fissure | back 194 separated into cerebrum and cerebellum |
front 195 what are the five lobes of the cerebral hemispheres | back 195 frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, and insula |
front 196 what is the function of the insula | back 196 makes us who we are, helps us enjoy basic emotions, may be responsible for addiction |
front 197 what is the cerebral cortex | back 197 the outer layer of your brain's surface |
front 198 what are the three types of functional areas of the cerebral cortex | back 198 motor areas, sensory areas, association areas |
front 199 what does the motor areas of the cerebral cortex do | back 199 control voluntary movement |
front 200 what does the sensory areas of the cerebral cortex do | back 200 conscious awareness of sensation |
front 201 what does the association areas of the cerebral cortex do | back 201 integrate diverse information |
front 202 what does it mean that the brain is contralateral | back 202 if you are right handed then the left side of your brain is more developed |
front 203 what does the frontal lobe control | back 203 voluntary movement |
front 204 what does the broca's area control | back 204 speech production, motor speech area |
front 205 where is the broca's area | back 205 present in one hemisphere, usually the left |
front 206 what is broca's aphasia | back 206 when the broca's area is damaged or broken which leads to the inability to speak |
front 207 how does the primary auditory cortex interpret information | back 207 from inner ear as pitch, loudness, and location |
front 208 what does the auditory association area do | back 208 stores memories of sounds |
front 209 what is the wernicke's area | back 209 involved in understanding written and spoken language |
front 210 what is wernicke's aphasia | back 210 when the wernicke's area is damaged leading to the inability to understand written and spoken language |
front 211 what does the limbic association area do | back 211 provides emotional impact that makes scene important and helps establish memories |
front 212 what makes up the basal nuclei (ganglia) | back 212 caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus |
front 213 what are the functions of the thalamus | back 213 gateway to cerebral cortex, sorts, edits, and relays ascending input, everything comes up through the thamalmus before |
front 214 what are the functions of the hypothalamus | back 214 controls autonomic nervous system and physical response to emotions (limbic system) |
front 215 what does the pineal gland secrete and what does this help regulate | back 215 melatonin and it helps regulate sleep-wake cycle (circadian rhythm) |
front 216 what is the corpora quadrigemina | back 216 reflex center that is located in the midbrain and contains two types of colliculi |
front 217 what is the superior colliculi | back 217 part of the corpora quadrigemina that deals with visual reflexes |
front 218 how can you test which side a lesion may be on the corpora quadrigemina and what are the signs | back 218 if a patient is feeling dizzy and falling often you can perform a romberg test |
front 219 what is the romberg test | back 219 when a patient stants in the middle of the room tilts their head back and closes their eyes and the way they fall is the side of the brain with the lesion |
front 220 what do the pons do | back 220 help maintain normal rhythm of breathing |
front 221 what is the function of the medulla oblongata | back 221 it is the cardiovascular center which adjusts force and rate of heart contraction and adjusts blood vessel diameter for blood pressure regulation. it also controls the rate and depth of breathing |
front 222 what is the cerebellum | back 222 allows smooth, coordinated movements |
front 223 a patient is moving and talking in a distinct order, like a robot, special ed in school, thick glasses, starts falling, alwaying falling to the right. what is wrong with this patient | back 223 there is a problem on the right side of her cerebellum, when the cerebellum is not working properly it cannot cut out extra information that is not needed |
front 224 what is the arbor vitae | back 224 treelike pattern of cerebellar white matter |
front 225 what are all fibers in the cerebellum and what does this mean | back 225 they are ipsilateral, and this means if there is a problem to the right side of the cerebellum, then the right side will be effects, and vice versa |
front 226 what is the amygdala | back 226 part of the limbic system that recognizes angry or fearful facial expressions, assesses danger, and elicits fear response |
front 227 what does the reticular activating system do | back 227 filters out repetitive, familiar, or weak stimuli, inhibited by sleep centers, alcohol, and drugs, severe injury results in permanent unconsciousness (coma) |
front 228 what are delta waves | back 228 high-amplitude waves of deep sleep; indicate brain damage in awake adult |
front 229 what is epilepsy | back 229 victims may lose consciousness, fall stiffly, and have uncontrollable jerking |
front 230 what is aura | back 230 sensory hallucination that may precede seizure |
front 231 what is syncope | back 231 brief loss of consciousness |
front 232 what is rem sleep | back 232 reverse learning process where superfluous information purged from brain, declines steadily and may disappear after age 60 |
front 233 what is sleep apnea | back 233 temporary cessation of breathing during sleep, not breathing for a period when asleep |
front 234 what is a key factor in memory | back 234 ACh is necessary for memory formation and retrieval |
front 235 what are the three layers of the meninges | back 235 dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater |
front 236 what is meningitis | back 236 inflammation of meninges |
front 237 what is the strongest layer of the meninges | back 237 dura mater |
front 238 what is the subarachnoid space of the arachnoid mater | back 238 contains CSF and largest blood vessels of brain |
front 239 what is the arachnoid villi of the arachnoid mater | back 239 protrude into superior sagittal sinus and permit CSF reabsorption |
front 240 what is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) | back 240 watery solution formed from blood plasma |
front 241 what is hydrocephalus | back 241 obstruction blocks CSF circulation or drainage and causing swelling in the brain |
front 242 what is the blood brain barrier | back 242 separates neurons from some bloodborne substances, helps prevent the neurons from being killed by what goes into the blood |
front 243 what are subdural or subarachnoid hemorrhages | back 243 may force brain stem through foramen magnum, resulting in death |
front 244 what is ischemia | back 244 not getting enough blood to the brain tissues |
front 245 what is alzheimer's disease | back 245 plaques of beta-amyloid peptide form in brain, neurofibrillary tangles inside neurons kill them, brain shrinks |
front 246 what is parkinson's disease and what are the signs | back 246 degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons of substantia nigra, signs are moving in a distint way, dragging the feet, or pill rolling trimmer |
front 247 where does the spinal cord end | back 247 L1 or L2 vertebra |
front 248 what is the site for a lumbar puncture or tap | back 248 L3 or L4 |
front 249 what does the filum terminale do | back 249 anchors spinal cord |
front 250 how many spinal nerves are in the cervical region | back 250 8 |
front 251 what are second-order neurons | back 251 extend/ends at the thalamus |
front 252 what is the difference between paresthesia and paralysis | back 252 paresthesia is sensory loss, pins and needles, and paralysis is permanent loss of motor function |
front 253 what is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) (Lou Gehrig's Disease) | back 253 paralysis that starts with paresthesia in fingers and toes then paralysis moves inward |
front 254 maternal exposure to what can be teratogens | back 254 radiation, drugs, alcohol, opiates, infection, and smoking |