What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue
striated, voluntary, parallel fibers, multinucleated, attached to skeleton
what are the characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue (heart muscle)
branched fibers, intercalated discs, involuntary
what are the characteristics of smooth muscle tissue (visceral)
spindle shaped, involuntary, found around hollow organs such as arteries, esophagus, stomach, no striations
what are the characteristics of muscles
contractility, excitability, extensibility, elasticity
why do muscles need a rich blood supply
to bring in oxygen and remove waste
what is compartment syndrome
more muscle breaks then grows due to exercise
what is the epimysium
tough outer coat of connective tissue surrounding the entire muscle
what is the perimysium
several sheathed muscle fibers wrapped in a coarse membrane surrounding the endomysium
what is the endomysium
a delicate connective sheath around a single muscle fiber
what are the differences between tendons and ligaments
tendons connect two different things (bone to muscle) and ligaments connect two like things (bone to bone / muscle to muscle)
what is the sarcolemma
plasma membrane of a muscle cell
what is the sacroplasm
the cytoplasm membrane of a muscle cell
what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum
for calcium storage
what are myofibrils
made of thick and thin filaments that interact for muscle contracts
what are the thick filaments made of
the protein myosin
what are the thin filaments made of
the protein actin
what are tropomyosin and troponin
regulatory proteins that block the contraction the muscle during rest
what starts the process of muscle contraction
calcium
what are the sarcomeres
the basic unit of striated muscle tissue that extends from one Z line to the next
what happens to the z-lines when the muscle contracts
it brings the z-lines closer together
what are the I bands
(light bands) made up of actin filaments are anchored to Z lines
what are the A bands
(dark bands) are made up of overlapping thick and thin filaments
what are the H zones
in the center of A bands consisting of myosin filaments only
what do the transverse (T) tubules do
disperse calcium throughout the muscle that is previously stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
what is duchenne muscular dystrophy
the affected structure of dystrophin, if dystrophin is not built properly, then the ladder shape of the muscle will break down
a patient has large calves, walk on tiptoes, positive Gowers' sign. what does this patient have and what causes this disease
Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to deformed dystrophin
what is the order of how a muscle contracts
1. action potential arrives at axon terminal of motor neuron
2. voltage-gated calcium channels open, calcium enters the axon terminal moving down its electrochemical gradient
3. calcium entry causes ACh (a neurotransmitter) to be released by exocytosis
4. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to its receptors on the sarcolemma
what does acetylcholinesterase do
it breaks down ACh and allows muscle to relax, blocking this can help with dementia
what is myasthenia gravis
an autoimmune condition where the immune system is attacking ACh receptors, so she is unable to contract her muscles, unable to breathe, unable to swallow
what is rigor mortis
calcium pumps runout of ATP --> calcium can't be removed --> continuous contraction
what are the products of aerobic respiration
36 ATP and glucose
what stores excess energy when the ATP supply is sufficient
creatine phosphate
what forms when oxygen deficiency develops during strenuous exercise
pyruvic acid then reacts to form lactic acid
what is the origin of muscle attachment
attachment site of a muscle or tendon to a bone that doesn't move during contraction
what is the insertion of muscle attachment
attachment site of a muscle or tendon to a moving bone that moves during contraction
what is the agonist muscle group
prime move, muscle that causes a movement
what is the antagonist muscle group
opposes the muscle that stretches; regulates the muscle contraction
what is the synergist muscle group
assists the prime mover
what is the fixator muscle group
auxiliary muscles that steady a movement (immobilizes a bone or muscle's origin)
supra (muscle naming)
above
infra (muscle naming)
below
sub (muscle naming)
underneath
maximus (muscle naming)
largest
minimis (muscle naming)
smallest
vastus (muscle naming)
huge
longus (muscle naming)
long
brevis (muscle naming)
short
major (muscle naming)
large
minor (muscle naming)
small
oblique (muscle naming)
slant muscle fibers
rectus (muscle naming)
straight muscle fibers
what is flexion
movement that decreases the angle between 2 bones
what is extension
movement that increases the angle between 2 bones
what is abduction
movement away from the midline of the body
what is adduction
movement toward the midline of the body
what is dorsiflexion
upward movement of the foot (take your foot off the gas)
what is plantarflexion
downward movement of the food (mash on the gas)
what is inversion
movement of the foot/ankle causing the sole of the foot to turn inward
what is eversion
movement of the foot/ankle causing the sole of the foot to turn outward
what is pronation
movement causing the palm of the hand to turn down
what is supination
movement causing the palm of the hand to turn upward
what is the muscle function of the orbicularis oculi
closes the eyelids; causes squinting, winking, and blinking
what is the muscle function of the buccinator
compresses the cheeks to hold food during chewing, sucking in cheeks and allows to blow a horn
what is the muscle function of the masseter
raises mandible and brings it forward. chewing muscle
what is the muscle function of the sternocleidomastoid
flexes head and bends it laterally
what is the muscle function of the external intercostals
elevate ribs and enlarge thorax for breathing
what is the muscle function of the diaphragm
expands thorax, compresses contents of abdominal cavity (primary quiet breathing muscle)
what is the function of trapezius
allow you to shrug your shoulders, keeps scapula pinned down to the back
what are the rotator cuff muscles
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis (SItS muscles)
what is the muscle function of the biceps brachii
flexion of the elbow and shoulder and supinates the forearm
what is the muscle function of the triceps brachii
extends the elbow; adducts and extends the shoulder
what is the muscle function of the sartorius
flexion, external rotation and abduction of the hip; flexion and internal rotation of the knee
what is the largest muscle
gluteus maximus
what is the longest muscle
sartorius
what is the strongest muscle
masseter
what is the central nervous system
brain and spinal cord of dorsal body cavity, integration and control center, interprets sensory input and dictates motor output
what is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)
the portion of the nervous system outside CNS, consists mainly of nerves that extend from brain and spinal cord, spinal nerves to and from spinal cord, cranial nerves to and from brain
what is the sensory (afferent) division
impulses coming into the nervous system (arrive)
what is the motor (efferent) division
impulse exiting the nervous system
what is the autonomic nervous system
involuntary nervous system made of sympathetic and parasympathetic
what are neuroglia
small cells that surround and wrap delicate neurons, hold the nervous system together
what are neurons
excitable cells that transmit electrical signs, send and receive signals
what are the neuroglia
astrocytes (CNS), microglial cells (CNS), ependymal cells (CNS), oligodendrocytes(CNS), satellite cells (PNS), schwann cells (PNS)
what are the most abundant neuroglia
astrocytes
what are microglial cells
migrate toward injured neurons, can transform to phagocytize microorganisms and neuronal debris
what is catiousnecrosis
find the neurons that are dead or dying and turn them into a cottage cheese like material that protects the brain by being bacteriostatic (prevents the growth of bacteria)
what are ependymal cells
may be ciliated, line the central cavities of the brain and spinal column, form permeable barrier between cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in cavities and tissue fluid bathing CNS cells, hold together the corriol plexus
what are oligodendrocytes
make the myelin sheath for the CNS only
what are the schwann cells (neurolemmocytes)
surround all peripheral nerve fibers and form myelin sheath in thicker nerve fibers only
a patient uses chainsaw to cut limb from tree, ladder moves and tries to grab the chainsaw, cuts his arm through the radius but not the ulna, touching his middle finger he thinks its his thumb, why is this happening
his schwann cells helped to regenerate his sensation but not always correctly
what are neurons
structural units of nervous system, extreme longevity, amitotic (do not go through mitosis), high metabolic rate - requires continuous supply of oxygen and glucose
where do neurons receive signals from
dendrites
what do axons do
send signals out
where do axons arise from
axon hillock
what is anterograde
transport along the axon away from cell body
what is retrograde
transport along the axon toward cell body
what is rabies
bullet shaped virus and and an example of retrograde
what is the function of myelin
protects and electrically insulates axon, increases speed of nerve impulse transmission, make sure the transition speed moves faster
what are multipolar neurons
3 or more processes, most common type; major neuron in CNS
what are bipolar neurons
2 processes, rare, only found in eyes and nose
what are the three types of functional classifications of neurons
sensory (afferent), motor (efferent), and interneurons
what are sensory (afferent) neurons
transmit impulses from sensory receptors toward CNS, cell bodies in ganglia in PNS
what are motor (efferent) neurons
carry impulses from CNS to effectors
what are interneurons (association neurons)
lie between motor and sensory neurons, shuttle signals through CNS pathways, 99% of body's neurons, cause the reflex to pull away from danger (child touching a hot plate)
what are leakage (nongated) ion channels
always open
what are gated ion channels
part of protein changes shape to open/close channel
what is the potential energy difference across the membrane of a resting cell
-70 mV in neurons, membrane termed polarized
does ECF or ICF have a higher concentration of Na+
ECF
does ECF or ICF have a higher concentration of K+
ICF
what plays the most important role in membrane potential
K+ (potassium)
what diffuses faster in the sodium-potassium pump
more potassium diffuses out than sodium diffuses in, establishes resting membrane potential; 3 Na+ pumped out of cell; two K+ pumped in
what is graded potentials
incoming signals operating over short distances
what are action potentials
long-distance signals of axons
what is depolarization
decrease in membrane potential (toward zero and above), inside of membrane becomes less negative than resting membrane potential, increases probability of producing a nerve impulse
what is hyperpolarization
an increase in membrane potential (away from zero, more negative than -70), inside of cell more negative than resting membrane potential, this makes it more difficult to fire down the axon
what is degree of myelination
continuous conduction in unmyelinated axons is slower than saltatory (bouncing from nod to nod) conduction in myelinated axons
what is the associated sensory receptors of type Ia
responsible for proprioception
what is the associated sensory receptors of type Ib
golgi tendon organ
what is multiple sclerosis (MS)
autoimmune disease affecting primarily young adults, myelin sheaths in CNS destroyed, starts out with blurred vision or loss of bladder control
what are synapses
where the message is delivered
what event is transmission across synaptic cleft
chemical event
what starts the information transfer across chemical synapses
calcium
what are the effects of termination of neurotransmitters
reuptake by astrocytes or axon terminal, degradation by enzymes (primarily by acetylcholine), diffusion away from synaptic cleft
what is acetylcholine (ACh)
synthesized from acetic and choline by enzyme choline acetyltransferase, degraded by enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
what are catecholamines
dopamine, norepinephrine (NE), and epinephrine, synthesized from amino acid tyrosine
what does the GABA amino acid neurotransmitter do
it is an inhibitor that is normally used when we need to inhibit the brain
what are substance P neurotransmitters
pain signals
what are endorphin neurotransmitters
act as natural opiates; reduce pain perception
what are the purine neurotransmitters
ATP, Adenosine and they are potent inhibitors in the brain
what is a main gasotranmitter
nitric oxide (NO)
what are endocannabinoid neurotransmitters
act as same receptors as THC, mostly used to control appetite and suppresses nausea
where does ACh have an excitatory effect
at neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle
where does ACh have an inhibitory effect
in cardiac muscle
what is apoptosis
programmed cell death
what is necrosis
abnormal or premature cell death
what is parasympathetic in the ANS
rest and digest, postganglionic axons release acetylcholine (cholinergic)
what is sympathetic in ANS
fight or flight, increase heart rate, respiration, and vasoconstriction, postganglionic axons release norepinephrine (adrenergic)
what is horner's syndrome
loss of sympathetic innervation to an eye, ptosis, anhidrosis, miosis
a patient has drooping eye lids, drying of the eyes, and large pupils. what does this patient have
horner's syndrome
what are the twelve cranial nerves
olfactory nerve, optic nerve, oculomotor nerve, trochlear nerve, trigeminal nerve, abducens nerve, facial nerve, vestibulocochlear nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, vagus nerve, accessory nerve, hypoglossal nerve
what are the olfactory nerves
sensory nerves of smell, purely sensory (olfactory) function
cranial nerve 1
a patient is rollerblading and did a trick and fell back and hit the back of his head, loss of smell, patient has anosmia and this is because of a tearing of the olfactory nerve, permanent loss of smell. what does this patient have
anosmia due to damage of the olfactory nerve
what are the optic nerves
purely sensory (visual) function
cranial nerve 2
a young girl is growing out of control and her parents are both short, she started not being able to see things out of the corner of her eyes, what does she have
she has a pituitary adenoma which is pressing on the optic chiasma and increasing the pituitary hormones
what are the oculomotor nerves
function in raising eyelid, directing eyeball, constricting iris (parasympathetic), and controlling lens shape, does the motor function for the muscles in the eyes
cranial nerve 3
what is the formula to remember the nerves for functions of eyes
LR6SO4AO3
lateral rectus controlled by cranial nerve 6, superior oblique are controlled by cranial nerve 4, all other muscles of the eye are controlled by cranial nerve 3
what are the trochlear nerves
control superior oblique muscle
cranial nerve 4
what are the trigeminal nerves
largest of the cranial nerves, ophthalmic (V1) supraorbital foramen (notch), maxillary (V2) infraorbital foramen, mandibular (V3) mental foramen
cranial nerve 5
what are the abducens nerves
control lateral rectus muscle
cranial nerve 6
what are the facial nerves
facial expression, parasympathetic impulses to lacrimal and salivary glands, sensory function (taste) from anterior two-thirds of tongue
cranial nerve 7
what is bell's palsy
one side of the face is dropping, no wrinkles on affected side, no smile on the affected side, this is not a stroke because it only affects the facial nerves, due to paralysis of facial nerve
what are the vestibulocochlear nerves
hearing receptors and equilibrium receptors
cranial nerve 8
what are the glossopharyngeal nerves
sensory function that deal with taste, deals with tongue and pharynx
cranial nerve 9
what are the vagus nerves
only cranial nerves that extend beyond head and neck region
cranial nerve 10
patient was feeling hoarse, everyone around her had an upper respiratory infection, hoarseness is getting worse after a month, gets an echo and finds that she had something pressing on her left recurrent nerve what does this cause
she has vagal nerve paralysis, the left recurrent nerve is part of the vagus nerve
what are the accessory nerves
trapezius and sternocleidomastoid, loss of function leads to inability to shrug your shoulders and not turn your head to affected side
cranial nerve 11
what are the hypoglossal nerves
swallowing and speech, below the tongue
cranial nerve 12
what cells are found in chemoreceptors
gustatory cells
what cranial nerves involve taste
cranial nerve 7 and 9 to medulla oblongata
what cranial nerve involves smell
cranial nerve 1
what is the mucous membrane in the eyelid (palpebrae)
conjunctiva
what is conjunctivitis
pink eye, inflammation that connects the eye lid to the scara
what are the ducts superior and lateral to the eyes and what do they do
lacrimal glands and they keep the eyes moist
what are the nasolacrimal ducts
empties to nasal cavity
what are the 3 tunics (layers) of the eyeball
sclera, choroid, and retina
what is the sclera
the tunic of the eyeball that is the outermost, thickest, and toughest
what is the choroid
the tunic of the eyeball that is very black, keeps light out of the eye except for the pupil
what is the retina
made up completely of photoreceptor cells (rods and cones)
what is the cornea
transparent anterior part of the eyeball
what is the iris
the colorful part of the eye
what does the ciliary muscle do
moves the iris
what happens to the pupil when light is shined in the eye
the pupil gets smaller
what do rods see
black/white vision, dim light
what do cones see
color vision, intense light
what is the route in order to see color
cone --> bipolar cell--> ganglion cell--> axon of ganglion
why should you check the eyes of patients with diabetes
because clots can form in the eyes due to high blood sugar
what is glaucoma
when there is a blockage in the eye causing the aqueous humor to not be able to escape
what are cataracts
abnormal crystallization of the lens, common in diabetes, injury, heredity
a patient is a heavy smoker or has diabetes and their lens of their eyes become cloudy what do they have
cataracts
what are the important points of the ear
hearing, balance, cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear)
what is cerumen
ear wax
what are things that arise from diencephalon
epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, retina, ciliary body, iris, vitreous humor, and cranial nerve 2
what makes up the brain stem
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
does the brain or the spinal cord have white matter on the inside and gray on the outside
brain, spinal cord is reversed
what are the ventricles of the brain filled with
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), makes the entire CNS float
what are the ventricles of the brain lined with
ependymal cells
what are the ventricles of the brain connected to
central canal of the spinal cord
how are lateral ventricles connected to third ventricles
interventricular foramen
how is the third ventricles connected to the fourth ventricle
cerebral aqueduct
what are the ridges of the brain called
gyri
what are the shallow grooves of the brain called
sulci
what are the deep grooves of the brain called
fissures
how is the brain separated by longitudinal fissure
separated into two hemispheres
how is the brain separated by transsverse cerebral fissure
separated into cerebrum and cerebellum
what are the five lobes of the cerebral hemispheres
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, and insula
what is the function of the insula
makes us who we are, helps us enjoy basic emotions, may be responsible for addiction
what is the cerebral cortex
the outer layer of your brain's surface
what are the three types of functional areas of the cerebral cortex
motor areas, sensory areas, association areas
what does the motor areas of the cerebral cortex do
control voluntary movement
what does the sensory areas of the cerebral cortex do
conscious awareness of sensation
what does the association areas of the cerebral cortex do
integrate diverse information
what does it mean that the brain is contralateral
if you are right handed then the left side of your brain is more developed
what does the frontal lobe control
voluntary movement
what does the broca's area control
speech production, motor speech area
where is the broca's area
present in one hemisphere, usually the left
what is broca's aphasia
when the broca's area is damaged or broken which leads to the inability to speak
how does the primary auditory cortex interpret information
from inner ear as pitch, loudness, and location
what does the auditory association area do
stores memories of sounds
what is the wernicke's area
involved in understanding written and spoken language
what is wernicke's aphasia
when the wernicke's area is damaged leading to the inability to understand written and spoken language
what does the limbic association area do
provides emotional impact that makes scene important and helps establish memories
what makes up the basal nuclei (ganglia)
caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus
what are the functions of the thalamus
gateway to cerebral cortex, sorts, edits, and relays ascending input, everything comes up through the thamalmus before
what are the functions of the hypothalamus
controls autonomic nervous system and physical response to emotions (limbic system)
what does the pineal gland secrete and what does this help regulate
melatonin and it helps regulate sleep-wake cycle (circadian rhythm)
what is the corpora quadrigemina
reflex center that is located in the midbrain and contains two types of colliculi
what is the superior colliculi
part of the corpora quadrigemina that deals with visual reflexes
how can you test which side a lesion may be on the corpora quadrigemina and what are the signs
if a patient is feeling dizzy and falling often you can perform a romberg test
what is the romberg test
when a patient stants in the middle of the room tilts their head back and closes their eyes and the way they fall is the side of the brain with the lesion
what do the pons do
help maintain normal rhythm of breathing
what is the function of the medulla oblongata
it is the cardiovascular center which adjusts force and rate of heart contraction and adjusts blood vessel diameter for blood pressure regulation. it also controls the rate and depth of breathing
what is the cerebellum
allows smooth, coordinated movements
a patient is moving and talking in a distinct order, like a robot, special ed in school, thick glasses, starts falling, alwaying falling to the right. what is wrong with this patient
there is a problem on the right side of her cerebellum, when the cerebellum is not working properly it cannot cut out extra information that is not needed
what is the arbor vitae
treelike pattern of cerebellar white matter
what are all fibers in the cerebellum and what does this mean
they are ipsilateral, and this means if there is a problem to the right side of the cerebellum, then the right side will be effects, and vice versa
what is the amygdala
part of the limbic system that recognizes angry or fearful facial expressions, assesses danger, and elicits fear response
what does the reticular activating system do
filters out repetitive, familiar, or weak stimuli, inhibited by sleep centers, alcohol, and drugs, severe injury results in permanent unconsciousness (coma)
what are delta waves
high-amplitude waves of deep sleep; indicate brain damage in awake adult
what is epilepsy
victims may lose consciousness, fall stiffly, and have uncontrollable jerking
what is aura
sensory hallucination that may precede seizure
what is syncope
brief loss of consciousness
what is rem sleep
reverse learning process where superfluous information purged from brain, declines steadily and may disappear after age 60
what is sleep apnea
temporary cessation of breathing during sleep, not breathing for a period when asleep
what is a key factor in memory
ACh is necessary for memory formation and retrieval
what are the three layers of the meninges
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
what is meningitis
inflammation of meninges
what is the strongest layer of the meninges
dura mater
what is the subarachnoid space of the arachnoid mater
contains CSF and largest blood vessels of brain
what is the arachnoid villi of the arachnoid mater
protrude into superior sagittal sinus and permit CSF reabsorption
what is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
watery solution formed from blood plasma
what is hydrocephalus
obstruction blocks CSF circulation or drainage and causing swelling in the brain
what is the blood brain barrier
separates neurons from some bloodborne substances, helps prevent the neurons from being killed by what goes into the blood
what are subdural or subarachnoid hemorrhages
may force brain stem through foramen magnum, resulting in death
what is ischemia
not getting enough blood to the brain tissues
what is alzheimer's disease
plaques of beta-amyloid peptide form in brain, neurofibrillary tangles inside neurons kill them, brain shrinks
what is parkinson's disease and what are the signs
degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons of substantia nigra, signs are moving in a distint way, dragging the feet, or pill rolling trimmer
where does the spinal cord end
L1 or L2 vertebra
what is the site for a lumbar puncture or tap
L3 or L4
what does the filum terminale do
anchors spinal cord
how many spinal nerves are in the cervical region
8
what are second-order neurons
extend/ends at the thalamus
what is the difference between paresthesia and paralysis
paresthesia is sensory loss, pins and needles, and paralysis is permanent loss of motor function
what is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) (Lou Gehrig's Disease)
paralysis that starts with paresthesia in fingers and toes then paralysis moves inward
maternal exposure to what can be teratogens
radiation, drugs, alcohol, opiates, infection, and smoking