1) What type of immunity results from vaccination?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: D
2) What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: E
3) What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: B
4) Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?
A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors
B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules
C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens
D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies
E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins
Answer: D
5) Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of
A) innate immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) naturally acquired passive immunity.
D) artificially acquired active immunity.
E) artificially acquired passive immunity.
Answer: C
6) Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction?
A) clonal deletion
B) activation of complement
C) opsonization
D) ADCC
E) agglutination
Answer: A
7) Which of the following cells is NOT an APC?
A) dentritic cells
B) macrophages
C) mature B cells
D) natural killer cells
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs.
Answer: D
8) When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as
A) agglutination.
B) opsonization.
C) ADCC.
D) apoptosis.
E) neutralization.
Answer: E
9) CD4+ T cells are activated by
A) interaction between CD4+and MHC II.
B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II.
C) cytokines released by dendritic cells.
D) cytokines released by B cells.
E) complement.
Answer: A
10) Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
A) TCcell
B) B cell
C) THcell
D) natural killer cell
E) basophil
Answer: C
11) The specificity of an antibody is due to
A) its valence.
B) the H chains.
C) the L chains.
D) the constant portions of the H and L chains.
E) the variable portions of the H and L chains.
Answer: E
12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?
A) They originate in bone marrow.
B) They have antibodies on their surfaces.
C) They are responsible for the memory response.
D) They are responsible for antibody formation.
E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
Answer: E
13) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?
A) The cells originate in bone marrow.
B) Cells are processed in the thymus gland.
C) It can inhibit the immune response.
D) B cells make antibodies.
E) T cells react with antigens.
Answer: D
14) Plasma cells are activated by a(n)
A) antigen.
B) T cell.
C) B cell.
D) memory cell.
E) APC.
Answer: A
15) The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: C
16) The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist as monomers, are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: D
17) The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: E
18) In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are
A) IgM.
B) IgA.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: A
19) Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: B
20) The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: A
21) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: C
22) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patient's response to a second and distinct/different antigen?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: E
23) In Figure 17.1, the arrow at time (c) indicates
A) the time of exposure to the same antigen as at time (a).
B) the secondary response.
C) the primary response.
D) exposure to a new antigen.
E) the T-cell response.
Answer: B
24) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The variable region of a heavy chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
B) The variable region of a light chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
C) The Fc region attaches to a host cell.
D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
25) Which of the following is the best definition of antigen?
A) something foreign in the body
B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies
C) a chemical that combines with antibodies
D) a pathogen
E) a protein that combines with antibodies
Answer: B
26) Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) helper T cells
C) NK cells
D) M cells
E) B cells
Answer: D
27) The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step?
A) Antigen-digest goes to surface of APC.
B) APC phagocytizes antigen.
C) B cell is activated.
D) THcell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II.
E) THcell produces cytokines.
Answer: D
28) In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
E) b and d
Answer: D
29) In Figure 17.2, which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
Answer: A
30) In Figure 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
E) b and d
Answer: A
31) In Figure 17.2, what portion will typically attach to a host cell?
A) a and c
B) b
C) b and c
D) a and d
E) e
Answer: E
32) Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens?
A) capsule
B) flagellum
C) pili
D) ribosome
E) plasmid
Answer: A
33) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgE
Answer: C
34) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?
A) CTL
B) Treg
C) TH
D) dendritic cells
E) B cells
Answer: A
35) The following events occur in cellular immunity, leading to a response from TH cells. What is the third step?
A) Antibodies are produced.
B) Dendritic cell takes up antigen.
C) Antigen enters M cell.
D) THcell produces cytokines.
E) THcells proliferate.
Answer: E
36) Cytokines released by TH1 cells
A) activate CD8+cells to CTLs.
B) convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells.
C) convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells.
D) kill parasites.
E) convert B cells to T cells.
Answer: A
37) Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells?
A) granzymes
B) hapten
C) IL-1
D) IL-2
E) perforin
Answer: E
38) At a minimum, the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how many different antigens?
A) 105
B) 1010
C) 1015
D) 1020
E) 1025
Answer: C
39) Thymic selection
A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC.
B) destroys B cells that make antibodies against self.
C) destroys MHC molecules.
D) destroys CD4+cells that attack self.
E) activates B cells.
Answer: A
40) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?
A) They destroy virus-infected cells.
B) They destroy tumor cells.
C) They destroy cells lacking MHC I.
D) They are stimulated by an antigen.
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.
Answer: D
41) An antibody's Fc region can be bound by
A) antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) T helper cells.
D) B cells.
E) CTLs.
Answer: B
42) A Treg cell deficiency could result in
A) increased number of viral infections.
B) increased number of bacterial infections.
C) autoimmunity.
D) increased severity of bacterial infections.
E) transplant rejection.
Answer: C
43) ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying
A) eukaryotic pathogens.
B) prions.
C) extracellular viruses.
D) bacterial pathogens.
E) bacterial toxins.
Answer: A
44) IL-2, produced by TH cells,
A) activates macrophages.
B) stimulates THcell maturation.
C) causes phagocytosis.
D) activates antigen-presenting cells.
E) activates TCcells to CTLs.
Answer: B
45) Which of the following statements about IL-12 is FALSE?
A) It activates macrophages.
B) It inhibits some tumor cells.
C) It activates the TH1 pathway.
D) It causes autoimmune diseases.
E) It causes THcells to respond to HIV.
Answer: D
1) Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents.
Answer: FALSE
2) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.
Answer: TRUE
3) Only dendritic cells produce interleukins.
Answer: FALSE
4) The production of interferons at an infection site is critical for chemotaxis.
Answer: FALSE
5) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.
Answer: TRUE
6) The variable region of the antibody is solely responsible the significant diversity of antigen targets.
Answer: FALSE
7) Plasma cells will eventually differentiate into memory cells.
Answer: FALSE
8) Memory cells do not require B cell receptors.
Answer: FALSE
9) The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ theory of disease.
Answer: TRUE
10) When haptens attach to carrier molecules, an epitope forms on hapten which then can be bound to antibody.
Answer: FALSE