1) What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy
by breaking down complex molecules?
A) catabolic pathways
B)
thermodynamic pathways
C) anabolic pathways
D) fermentation
pathways
E) bioenergetic pathways
A
2) During cellular respiration, a glucose molecule loses an electron
as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction,
and thereby
becomes _____.
A) hydrolyzed
B) hydrogenated
C)
oxidized
D) transmitted
E) reduced
C
3) Which of the following statements about NAD+ is true?
A) NAD+
does not ever participate in cellular respiration
B) In the
absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.
C) NAD+ is
reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric
acid cycle.
D) NAD+ (rather than NADH) can donate electrons for
use in oxidative phosphorylation.
E) NAD+ has more chemical
energy than NADH, glucose, and ATP combined
C
4) How many oxygen molecules (O2) are required each time a molecule
of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely
oxidized to carbon dioxide and
water via aerobic respiration?
A) 6 B) 1 C) 30 D) 3 E) 12
A
5) Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether
oxygen (O2) is present or absent?
A) glycolysis
B) the
citric acid cycle
C) electron transport
D)
chemiosmosis
E) oxidative phosphorylation
A
6) In addition to ATP, what are the end products of
glycolysis?
A) H2O, FADH2, and citrate
B) CO2 and
pyruvate
C) NADH and pyruvate
D) CO2 and H2O
E) CO2 and NADH
C
7) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+
into which location in eukaryotic cells?
A) mitochondrial
intermembrane space
B) cytosol
C) nucleus
D)
lysosomes
E) golgi apparatus
A
8) Which of the following are products of the light reactions of
photosynthesis that are utilized as an energy source
in the
Calvin cycle?
A) drugs and alcohol
B) ADP, i, and
NADP+
C) nitrogen and sulfur
D) ATP and NADPH
E) high
fructose corn syrup
D
9) When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, a process
called oxigenic photosynthesis, it is a direct
by-product of
_____.
A) reducing NADP+
B) the electron transfer system of
cellular respiration
C) splitting water molecules
D) the
electron transfer system of photosystem I
E) chemiosmosis
C
10) What is the main purpose of light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis?
A) to produce NAD+ for use in respiration
B)
to use ATP to make glucose
C) to produce NADPH and ATP for use in
the calvin cycle
D) to generate heat
C
11) In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes
located?
A) nuclear membrane
B) thylakoid membrane and inner
mitochondrial membrane
C) lysosomes
D) nucleaus
E)
plasma membrane
B
12) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take
place?
A) cytosol around the nucleus
B) stroma of the
chloroplast
C) in the nucleus
D) matrix of the
mitochondria
E) subdural space
B
13) What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?
A) split
water and release oxygen
B) use ADP to release carbon
dioxide
C) use NAD+ to release carbon dioxide
D) synthesize
simple sugars from carbon dioxide
E) transport RuBP out of the chloroplast
D
14) How are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of
photosynthesis related?
A) The products of light-dependent
reactions are used in light-independent reactions.
B) The
products of light-independent reactions are used in light-dependent
reactions.
C) The products of light-independent reactions must be
present for light-dependent reactions to take place.
D) They are
not related.
A
15) Mendel studied seven different traits in the garden pea. What
genetic term is used to describe an observable
trait, such as
those studied by Mendel?
A) appearance B) genotype C) haplotype
D) phenotype E) category
D
16) Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio
for a particular trait. This ratio suggests that _____.
Drawing a
punnett square will help you answer this question!
A) the
particular trait shows incomplete dominance
B) the parents were
both heterozygous for the particular trait
C) the parents were
recessive for the trait
D) each offspring has the same alleles
for each of two different traits
E) a blending of traits has occurred
B
17) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a
single trait with a heterozygote, what is the
chance of producing
an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype? Drawing a
punnett square will
help you answer this question!
A) 50% B)
75% C) 25% D) 0% E) 100%
A
18) Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. A man
and woman are both of normal pigmentation,
but both have one
parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). What is the
probability that their child
will be an albino? Drawing a punnett
square will help you answer this question!
A) 1/4 B) 0 C) 1 D)
1/8 E) 1/2
A
19) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies
to each other, the F2 generation included
both red- and
white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What
was the explanation for
this result?
A) The gene involved is
on the X chromosome.
B) Other female-specific factors influence
eye color in flies.
C) Other male-specific factors influence eye
color in flies.
D) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only
in males.
E) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
A
20) Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of
inheritance as expressed in the early
twentieth century?
A)
Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and, in turn,
segregate during meiosis.
B) Homologous chromosomes give rise to
some genes and crossover chromosomes to other genes.
C)
Individuals inherit all phenotypes based on blood type
D) No more
than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy normal
cell.
E) Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays
rather than on genes.
A
21) Which of the following describes the ability of a single allele
to have multiple phenotypic effects (as is the case
in Marfan
Syndrome)?
A) epistasis B) incomplete dominance
C) multiple
alleles D) pleiotropy
D
22) DNA contains the template needed to copy itself, but it has no
catalytic activity in cells. What enzyme catalyzes
the formation
of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides in the DNA
polymer being formed?
A) ribozymes B) DNA polymerase
C)
deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates D) ATP
B
23) In the figure above, which is the template strand?
A) a B) b
C) c D) d
A
24) The leading and the lagging strands differ in that _____.
A)
the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging
strand
B) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction
as the movement of the replication fork, and the
lagging strand
is synthesized in the opposite direction
C) the lagging strand is
synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in
short
fragments that are ultimately stitched together
D) the
leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3 end of
the growing strand, and the
lagging strand is synthesized by
adding nucleotides to the 5 end
B
25) Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart
while they are being replicated?
A) DNA polymerase
B)
primase
C) ligase
D) single-strand DNA binding
proteins
E) nuclease
D
26) Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the
chromosome. This is a consequence of which of
the
following?
A) the evolution of helicase enzyme
B) gaps left
at the 3' end of the lagging strand because of the need for a
primer
C) gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand
D)
the "no ends" of a circular chromosome
E) DNA
polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5
C
27) In a healthy cell, the rate of DNA repair is equal to the rate of
DNA mutation. When the rate of repair lags
behind the rate of
mutation, particularly when mutations occur in genes which regulate
the cell cycle, what is a
possible fate of the cell?
A) RNA
may be used instead of DNA as inheritance material.
B) The cell
will always become healthier.
C) DNA synthesis will continue by a
new mechanism.
D) The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell.
D
28) Because of their linear (non-circular) choromosomes, telomere
shortening is a problem in which types of cells?
A) only
eukaryotic cells B) prokaryotes and eukaryotes C) only prokaryotic cells
A
29) Which of the following is NOT synthesized from a DNA
template?
A) amino acids
B) messenger RNA
C) ribosomal RNA
D) tRNA
A
30) In the process of transcription, _____.
A) mRNA attaches to
lysosomes B) RNA is synthesized
C) DNA is replicated D) proteins
are synthesized
B
31) The statement "DNA -> RNA -> Proteins"
_____.
A) describes viral infection B) descibes cell
theory
C) is known as central dogma D) describes evolution
C
32) The HIV virus that causes AIDS is an RNA retrovirus, meaning it
is made of RNA and not DNA. A retrovirus
_____.
A) makes
proteins directly from RNA
B) a cellular virus that uses
ribosomes to reproduce inside a living cell
C) uses reverse
transcriptase to make DNA from RNA
D) uses DNA as a template in
the process of translation
C
33) What does it mean when we say the genetic code is
redundant?
A) A single codon can specify many types of amino
acids.
B) The genetic code is different for different domains of
organisms.
C) More than one codon can specify the addition of the
same amino acid.
D) The genetic code is not meaningful
C
34) Which one of the following is true? A codon _____.
A)
consists of four nucleotides
B) is the basic unit of the genetic
code and contains 3 nucleotides
C) can code for up to four
different amino acids
D) extends from one end of a tRNA molecule
B
35) The mutation resulting in sickle-cell disease changes one base
pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a
different amino acid
so it is an example of a _____.
A) nonsense mutation B) missense
mutation
C) silent mutation D) frameshift mutation
B
36) The core enzyme which initiates transcription and is shown in the
figure above is _____.
A) RNA polymerase B) helicase C) DNA
polymerase D) topoisomerase
A
37) Refer to the figure above. The mRNA in eukaryotes is smaller than
the length of the gene in the DNA that codes
for it because
_____.
A) post-transcriptional modification removes the exons
from the mRNA
B) bases are added to the tail of the primary
transcript
C) the regulatory regions (exons) of the gene are not
transcribed
D) post-transcriptional modification removes the
introns from the mRNA
D
38) Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA _____.
A)
before transcription is complete, meaning transcription and
translation can occur simultaneously on a
single mRNA
B)
only after replication is complete
C) only after
post-transcriptional modification of the protein is complete
D)
only after the primary transcript has been released from RNA polymerase
A
39) There are sixty-one mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but
only forty-five tRNAs. This is best explained
by the fact that
_____.
A) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed
by nucleases
B) the DNA codes for all sixty-one tRNAs, but some
are then destroyed
C) some tRNAs have anticodons that don't
work.
D) the wobble hypothesis, which states that the rules for
base pairing between the third base of a codon and
tRNA are
flexible
E) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that
recognize them are dispensable
D
40) Refer to the figure above. What is the function of the AGU on the
loop of the tRNA?
A) It stabilizes the gene.
B) It attaches
to the amino acid.
C) It is the anticodon, and base pairs with a
codon of mRNA.
D) It is the active site of this ribozyme.
C
41) Refer to the figure above. What is the function of the CCA sequence at the 3ƍ end?
A) It stabilizes the gene.B) It attaches to an amino acid. C) It is the active site of this ribozyme. D) It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.
B
42) Translation directly involves _____.
A) mRNA, tRNA,
ribosomes, and DNA
B) mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes
C) tRNA,
ribosomes, and DNA
D) mRNA, ribosomes, and DNA
E) mRNA,
tRNA, and DNA
B
43) Regulating levels of gene expression serves an organism's
survival by _____.
A) organizing gene expression, so that genes
are always expressed in a given order
B) allowing environmental
changes to alter a prokaryote's genome
C) allowing organisms to
always express the same genes in the same quantities
D) allowing
each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
E) allowing an
organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
E
44) Which of the following levels of gene expression allows the most
rapid response to environmental change?
A) translational control
B) post-translational control C) transcriptional control
B
45) The greatest expression of the lac operon occurs when lactose
levels are _____ and glucose levels are _____.
A) high , low B)
high, high C) low, low D) low, high
A
46) The product of the lacI gene is _____.
A) an enzyme
B)
the repressor
C) B-galactosidase
D) a transport protein
embedded within the membrane
B
47) The arabinose operon (ara) provides a particularly interesting
example of ___________ in that when arabinose is
present in the
environment, the operon is transcribed.
A) negative
control
B) reverse transcription
C) positive control
D)
positive translation
E) push forward control
C
48) Under what condition is the AraC protein an activator?
A)
The AraC protein is an activator when it is bound to lactose.
B)
The AraC protein is an activator when it is bound to
arabinose.
C) The AraC protein is an activator when it is bound
to cyclic AMP.
D) The AraC protein is an activator when it is
bound to any sugar molecule.
E) The AraC protein is an activator
when it is bound to glucose.
B
49) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains.
What are the domains?
A) Bacteria and Archaea
B) Archaea and
Monera
C) Bacteria and Protista
D) Bacteria and
Eukarya
E) Eukarya and Monera
A
50) While examining a rock surface, you have discovered an
interesting new organism. Which of the following
criteria will
allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Prokary, not
Eukarya?
A) The lipids in its plasma membrane consist of glycerol
bonded to straight-chain fatty acids.
B) It is
unicellular.
C) It can survive at room temprature
D) The
organism does not have nucleus..
E) The organism does not have ribosomes
D