All marketing strategy is built on STP segmentation, targeting, and
________.
A) positioning
B) product
C) planning
D) promotion
E) performance
Page: 275
A
________ is the act of designing the company's offering and image to
occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market.
A)
Positioning
B) Valuation
C) Pricing
D)
Commercialization
E) Launching
Page: 276
A
The goal of positioning is ________.
A) to locate the brand in
the minds of consumers to maximize the potential benefit to the
firm
B) to discover the different needs and groups existing in
the marketplace
C) to target those customers marketers can
satisfy in a superior way
D) to collect information about
competitors that will directly influence the firms' strategy
E)
to help the firm anticipate what the actions of its competitors will be
Page: 276
A
The result of positioning is the successful creation of ________,
which provides a cogent reason why the target market should buy the
product.
A) an award-winning promotional campaign
B) a
customer-focused value proposition
C) a demand channel
D)
everyday low pricing
E) employee value proposition
Page: 276
B
Which of the following best describes a car company's value
proposition?
A) We charge a 20% premium on our cars.
B) We
target safety-conscious upscale families.
C) We sell the safest,
most durable wagon.
D) We are the market leader in the small car
category.
E) We focus on expanding in faster-growing markets.
Page: 276
C
Which of the following best describes BR Chicken's value proposition?
A) We sell chicken at most major malls.
B) We undertake
home delivery services.
C) We target quality-conscious consumers
of chicken.
D) We sell tender golden chicken at a moderate
price.
E) We charge a 10% premium on our chicken.
Page: 276
D
The ________ defines which other brands a brand competes with and
therefore which brands should be the focus of competitive
analysis.
A) consumer profitability analysis
B) competitor
indexing
C) service blueprint
D) competitive frame of
reference
E) cluster analysis
Page: 276
D
________ refers to the products or sets of products with which a
brand competes and which function as close substitutes.
A)
Consumer profitability analysis
B) Competitive frame of
reference
C) Category membership
D) Value membership
E) Demand field
Page: 277
C
________ are defined as companies that satisfy the same customer
need.
A) Communities
B) Competitors
C)
Trendsetters
D) Industries
E) Task groups
Page: 278
B
A(n) ________ is a group of firms offering a product or class of
products that are close substitutes for one another.
A)
community
B) task force
C) industry
D) focus
group
E) umbrella brand
Page: 278
C
Which of the following statements about blue ocean thinking is
true?
A) It involves designing creative business ventures to
positively affect both a company's cost structure
and its value
proposition to consumers.
B) In blue ocean thinking, industry
boundaries are defined and accepted, and the competitive rules of the
game are known.
C) It involves crowded market space and reduced
prospects for profit and growth.
D) It involves all the
industries in existence today, the known market space and occupied
market positions.
E) In blue ocean thinking, value to consumers
comes from reintroducing factors the industry has previously offered.
Page: 278
A
Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the
statement: "attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate
with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not
find to the same extent with a competitive brand"?
A)
points-of-inflection
B) points-of-difference
C)
points-of-parity
D) points-of-value
E) points-of-presence
Page: 280
B
________ are product associations that are not necessarily unique to
the brand but may in fact be shared with other brands.
A)
Points-of-parity
B) Points-of-difference
C)
Points-of-inflection
D) Points-of-presence
E) Points-of-divergence
Page: 280
A
The three criteria that determine whether a brand association can
truly function as a point-of-difference are ________.
A)
comparability, authenticity, deliverability
B) desirability,
peculiarity, deliverability
C) deviance, peculiarity,
deformity
D) desirability, deliverability,
differentiability
E) differentiability, authenticity, desirability
Page: 280
D
Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand
association as personally relevant to them?
A)
deliverability
B) authenticity
C) desirability
D)
differentiability
E) feasibility
Page: 280
C
Which of the following criteria relates to the company having the
internal resources and commitment to feasibly and profitably create
and maintain the brand association in the minds of consumers?
A)
differentiability
B) peculiarity
C) desirability
D)
believability
E) deliverability
Page: 280
E
Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand
association as distinctive and superior to relevant
competitors?
A) desirability
B) differentiability
C)
believability
D) deliverability
E) deviance
Page: 280
B
The brand must demonstrate ________, for it to function as a true
point-of-difference.
A) clear superiority on an attribute or
benefit
B) clear profitability to the company
C) clear
similarity to the attributes of other brands
D) technological
advances for an attribute or benefit
E) exploitation of
competitors' weakness
Page: 280
A
The two basic forms of points-of-parity are ________ and
________.
A) conceptual points-of-parity; competitive
points-of-parity
B) strategic points-of-parity; conceptual
points-of-parity
C) category points-of-parity; deliverable
points-of-parity
D) competitive points-of-parity; peculiar
points-of-parity
E) category points-of parity; competitive points-of-parity
Page: 280
E
________ are attributes or benefits that consumers view as essential
to a legitimate and credible offering within a certain product or
service class.
A) Category points-of-difference
B)
Conceptual points-of-parity
C) Competitive points-of-parity
D) Category points-of-parity
E) Competitive points-of-difference
Page: 280
D
Philip Morris bought Miller brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at
a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does
not taste as good as normal beer. What does the company assure by
stating that the beer tastes good?
A)
points-of-difference
B) points-of-presence
C)
points-of-parity
D) points-of-conflict
E) points-of-inflection
Page: 280-281
C
Philip Morris bought Miller brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at
a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does
not taste as good as normal beer. What did the company try to build
when they conveyed the fact that the beer contained one third less
calories and hence it is less filling?
A)
points-of-difference
B) points-of-conflict
C)
points-of-parity
D) points-of-presence
E) points-of-inflection
Page: 280- 281
A
Consumers might not consider a hand sanitizer truly a hand sanitizer
unless they are gels designed to apply topically, contain alcohol that
kills the germs present on the skin, and developed for use after
washing hands or for those times when soap and water are not
available. These service elements are considered ________.
A)
competitive points-of-difference
B) competitive points-of-parity
C) category points-of-difference
D) category
points-of-parity
E) conceptual points-of-parity
Page: 280- 281
D
Nivea became the leader in the skin cream class on the
"gentle", "protective" and "caring"
platform. The company further moved into classes such as deodorants,
shampoos and cosmetics. Attributes like gentle and caring were of no
value unless consumers believed that its deodorant was strong enough,
its shampoo would cleanse and its cosmetics would be colorful enough.
This is an example of ________.
A) competitive points-of-parity
B) competitive points-of-difference
C) category
points-of-parity
D) category points-of-difference
E)
competitive points-of-presence
Page: 280- 281
C
________ are associations designed to overcome perceived weaknesses
of the brand.
A) Conceptual points-of-parity
B) Category
points-of-difference
C) Competitive points-of-parity
D)
Competitive points-of-difference
E) Category points-of-parity
Page: 281
C
As a marketing manager, which of the following would be the best
purpose for your organization's competitive points-of-parity?
A)
to point out competitors' points-of-difference
B) to emphasize
competitors' points-of-difference
C) to rationalize competitors'
perceived points-of-difference
D) to globalize competitors'
perceived points-of-difference
E) to negate competitors'
perceived points-of-difference
Page: 281
E
A marketer that wants to anchor a point-of-difference for Dove soap
on brand benefits might emphasize which of the following?
A) the
soap is one-quarter cleansing cream
B) Dove products include bar
soaps and shampoos
C) Dove soap helps users have softer
skin
D) the soap brand has global presence
E) the brand has
recently launched soap for men
Page: 283
C
Subway restaurants are positioned as offering healthy, great-tasting
sandwiches. ________ allows the brand to create a point-of-parity
(POP) on taste and a point-of-difference (POD) on health with respect
to quick-serve restaurants such as McDonald's and Burger King and, at
the same time, a POP on health and a POD on taste with respect to
health food restaurants and cafés.
A) Category-based
positioning
B) Need-based positioning
C) Noncomparitive
positioning
D) Straddle positioning
E) Price-quality positioning
Page: 283
D
BMW positioned itself as the only automobile that offered both luxury
and performance. At that time, consumers saw U.S. luxury cars as
lacking performance. It was able to achieve a point-of-difference on
performance and a point-of-parity on luxury with respect to U.S.
luxury cars like Cadillac. This is an example of ________.
A)
straddle positioning
B) category-based positioning
C)
need-based positioning
D) noncomparitive positioning
E)
price-quality positioning
Page: 283
A
Marketers typically focus on ________ in choosing the
points-of-parity and points-of-difference
that make up their
brand positioning.
A) brand equity
B) brand
awareness
C) brand benefits
D) brand architecture
E)
brand extensions
Page: 283
C
________ are visual representations of consumer perceptions and
preferences.
A) Procedural maps
B) Brain maps
C)
Perceptual maps
D) Procedural models
E) Cognitive maps
Page: 283
C
Straddle positions ________.
A) help firms to analyze who their
competitors are
B) allow brands to expand their market coverage
and potential customer base
C) are a necessity while creating a
firm's vision and mission statement
D) assist firms in collecting
information on competitors that will directly influence their
strategy
E) are ambiguous moral principles behind the operation
and regulation of marketing
Page: 283
B
Which of the following statements about brand mantras is
true?
A) They guide only major decisions, they have no influence
on mundane decisions.
B) Their influence does not extend beyond
tactical concerns.
C) They must economically communicate what the
brand is and avoid communicating what it is not.
D) They can
provide guidance about what ad campaigns to run and where and how to
sell the brand.
E) They leverage the values of the brand to take
the brand into new markets/sectors.
Page: 285
D
American Express'- "Worldclass Service, Personal
Recognition," Mary Kay's - "Enriching women's lives,"
Hallmark's- "Caring Shared," and Starbucks'-"Rewarding
Everyday Moments" are examples of ________.
A) brand
mantras
B) brand parity
C) brand identity
D) brand
architecture
E) brand extension
Page: 284- 285
A
________ are short, three- to five-word phrases that capture the
irrefutable essence or spirit of the brand positioning and ensure that
the company's own employees understand what the brand
represents.
A) Brand mantras
B) Brand symbols
C) Brand
logos
D) Brand alliances
E) Brand extensions
Page: 284- 285
A
A ________ is a translation of the brand mantra that attempts to
creatively engage consumers and others external to the
company.
A) brand vision
B) brand extension
C) brand
architecture
D) brand slogan
E) brand alliance
Page: 286
D
BMW's "The ultimate driving machine," American Express'
"Don't leave home without it," New York Times' "All the
news that's fit to print," and AT&T's "Reach out and
touch someone" are all examples of ________.
A) brand
slogan
B) brand personality
C) brand mission
D) brand
architecture
E) brand vision
Page: 286
A
A brand mantra should be ________.
A) original, ambiguous, and
straightforward
B) unique, complex, and inspirational
C)
communicative, simple, and inspirational
D) competitive,
sensitive, and simple
E) unique, sensitive, and explanatory
Page: 286
C
Brand mantras typically are designed to capture the brand's ________,
that is, what is unique about the brand.
A)
points-of-conflict
B) points-of-parity
C)
points-of-inflection
D) points-of-difference
E) points-of-presence
Page: 286
D
Points-of-parity are important while designing brand mantras for
brands facing ________.
A) rapid growth
B) market
saturation
C) slow and steady growth
D) rapid
decline
E) stability in sales volume
Page: 286
A
For brands in more stable categories where extensions into more
distinct categories are less likely to occur, the brand mantra may
focus more exclusively on ________.
A)
points-of-difference
B) points-of-presence
C)
points-of-inflection
D) points-of-parity
E) points-of-conflict
Page: 286
A
Tums claims to have the most acid-reducing components of any antacid.
In what way is the brand's category membership being conveyed?
A) comparing to exemplars
B) relying on the product
descriptor
C) announcing category benefits
D) focusing on
reliability
E) persuasion based on believability
Page: 288
C
The typical approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a
brand's category membership before stating its ________,
A)
point-of-parity
B) point-of-difference
C)
point-of-conflict
D) point-of-weakness
E) point-of-presence
Page: 288
B
In which of the following examples is a company communicating
category membership using a product descriptor?
A) Use Zipex for
quick and thorough cleaning.
B) Barry's Oats, when you want
nutrition and flavor.
C) Clarity offers you the best prices for
the best quality.
D) Choose Grissom's for an unparalleled
shopping experience.
E) Chloe: All you need for a beautiful you.
Page: 288
B
Industrial tools claiming to have durability, and antacids announcing
their efficacy convey a brand's category membership by
________.
A) relying on the product descriptor
B) comparing
to exemplars
C) announcing category benefits
D)
communicating deliverability variables
E) identifying counter
examples
Page: 288
C
A well-known car manufacturing company introduces a new hatchback
model by describing its distinctive features and then stressing the
speed and safety qualities of the car. Which of the following is the
company using to convey its membership in the hatchback
segment?
A) announcing category benefits
B) comparing to
exemplars
C) relying on the product descriptor
D) using
channel differentiation
E) maximizing negatively correlated attributes
Page: 288
A
Which of the following ways to conveying a brand's category
membership relates to well-known,
noteworthy brands in a
category helping a brand specify its category membership?
A)
comparing to exemplars
B) communicating deliverability variables
C) identifying counter examples
D) announcing category
benefits
E) relying on the product descriptor
Page: 288
A
SJC is a new retailer that targets the youth market. SJC needs to
make an impression using advertising, and decides to use funny or
irreverent ads to get its point across. Each ad features one of SJC's
competitors and conveys an advantage SJC has over that competitor.
Which of the following is the company using to convey its membership
in the retail segment?
A) announcing category benefits
B)
comparing to exemplars
C) relying on the product descriptor
D) using channel differentiation
E) maximizing negatively
correlated attributes
Page: 288
B
When Tommy Hilfiger was an unknown brand, advertising announced his
membership as a great U.S. designer by associating him with Geoffrey
Beene, Stanley Blacker, Calvin Klein, and Perry Ellis, who were
recognized members of that category. Tommy Hilfiger conveyed the
brand's category membership by ________.
A) relying on the
product descriptor
B) focusing on reliability
C) comparing
to exemplars
D) announcing category benefits
E)
identifying counter examples
Page: 288
C
Ford Motor Co. invested more than $1 billion on a radical new 2004
model called the X-Trainer, which combined the attributes of an SUV, a
minivan, and a station wagon. To communicate its unique position—and
to avoid association with its Explorer and Country Squire models—the
vehicle, eventually called Freestyle, was designated a "sports
wagon". According to the given scenario, Ford Motor Co. conveyed
their brand's category membership by ________.
A) announcing
category benefits
B) identifying counter examples
C)
relying on the product descriptor
D) focusing on reliability
E) comparing to exemplars
Page: 288
C
One common difficulty in creating a strong, competitive brand
positioning is that many of the attributes or benefits that make up
the points-of-parity and points-of-difference are ________.
A)
negatively correlated
B) always correlated
C) directly
proportional
D) never correlated
E) positively correlated
Page: 288
A
________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that
competitors cannot or will not match.
A) Brand positioning
B) Market research
C) Competitive advantage
D)
Competitor analysis
E) Competitive intelligence
Page: 289
C
A ________ is one that a company can use as a springboard to new
advantages.
A) sustainable advantage
B) leverageable
advantage
C) realistic advantage
D) rational advantage
E) distinct advantage
Page: 289
B
Which of the following types of differentiation relates to companies
having better-trained personnel
who provide superior customer
service?
A) channel differentiation
B) services
differentiation
C) employee differentiation
D) image
differentiation
E) product differentiation
Page: 290
C
Singapore Airlines is well regarded in large part because of the
excellence of its flight attendants. This is an example of ________
differentiation.
A) image
B) services
C)
product
D) employee
E) channel
Page: 290
D
Which of the following types of differentiation refers to companies
effectively designing their distribution medium's coverage, expertise,
and performance to make buying the product easier and more enjoyable
and rewarding?
A) service differentiation
B) channel
differentiation
C) image differentiation
D) product
differentiation
E) employee differentiation
Page: 290
B
Dayton, Ohio––based Iams found success selling premium pet food
through regional veterinarians, breeders, and pet stores. This is an
example of ________ differentiation.
A) service
B) employee
C) image
D) product
E) channel
Page: 290
E
Which of the following is an example of channel
differentiation?
A) Berry's has an intensive training program for
its customer-facing employees, to ensure a consistent service
standard.
B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature
fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance
with the hotel.
C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows
the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than
competitors.
D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles
to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay
more in stores.
E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers to
customize the color and some features of its appliances before buying them.
Page: 290
D
Which of the following is an example of image
differentiation?
A) Berry's has an intensive training program for
its customer-facing staff, to ensure a consistent service
standard.
B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature
fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance
with the hotel.
C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows
the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than
competitors.
D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles
to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay
more in stores.
E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers to
customize the color and some features of its appliances before buying them.
Page: 290
B
Which of the following is an example of services
differentiation?
A) Berry's has an intensive training program for
its customer-facing staff, to ensure a consistent service
standard.
B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature
fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance
with the hotel.
C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows
the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than
competitors.
D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles
to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay
more in stores.
E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers to
customize the color and some features of its appliances before buying them.
Page: 290
C
A radio ad by the dairy farmers of Washington State stated that the
milk produced in the state was of higher quality because of the way
the farmers treat their cows. They said that the difference comes from
how comfortable they make their cows. Among others, this
differentiation could certainly appeal to animal lovers and those
moving toward organic products. This is an example of ________.
A) personnel differentiation
B) channel differentiation
C) service differentiation
D) product differentiation
E) image differentiation
Page: 290
E
A company which can differentiate itself by designing a better and
faster delivery system that provides more effective and efficient
solutions to consumers is most likely using ________
differentiation.
A) services
B) channel
C)
image
D) product
E) employee
Page: 290
A
Suppliers who are dependable in their on-time delivery, order
completeness, and order-cycle time are most likely to be
differentiated based on ________.
A) resilience
B)
innovativeness
C) insensitivity
D) reliability
E) expertise
Page: 290
D
Suppliers who are better at handling emergencies, product recalls,
and inquiries are most likely to be differentiated based on their
________.
A) innovativeness
B) thoroughness
C)
resilience
D) insensitivity
E) reliability
Page: 290
C
A supplier creates better information systems, and introduces bar
coding, mixed pallets, and other methods of helping the consumer. The
supplier is most likely to be differentiated on its ________.
A)
innovativeness
B) reliability
C) insensitivity
D)
resilience
E) accuracy
Page: 290
A
Which of the following traits of a brand's ability to become a
lovemark relates to drawing together stories, metaphors, dreams, and
symbols?
A) intimacy
B) mystery
C)
insensitivity
D) sensuality
E) practicality
Page: 291
B
Which of the following traits of a brand's ability to become a
lovemark keeps the five senses of sight, hearing, smell, touch, and
taste on constant alert for new textures, intriguing scents and
tastes, music, and other such stimuli?
A) sensuality
B)
intimacy
C) mystery
D) practicality
E) sensitivity
Page: 291
A
Which of the following traits of a brand's ability to become a
lovemark implies empathy, commitment, and passion?
A)
practicality
B) sensuality
C) morality
D)
mystery
E) intimacy
Page: 291
E
Randall Ringer and Michael Thibodeau see ________ as based on deep
metaphors that connect to
people's memories, associations, and
stories.
A) cultural branding
B) narrative branding
C)
brand journalism
D) emotional branding
E) personal branding
Page: 292
B
Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and
Michael Thibodeau relate to the time, place, and context of the brand
story?
A) cast
B) pitch
C) narrative arc
D)
setting
E) language
Page: 292
D
Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and
Michael Thibodeau relate to the way the narrative logic unfolds over
time, including actions, desired experiences, defining events, and the
moment of epiphany?
A) language
B) pitch
C)
cast
D) setting
E) narrative arc
Page: 292
E
Which element of a brand story framework do Randall Ringer and
Michael Thibodeau relate to the authenticating voice, metaphors,
symbols, themes, and leitmotifs?
A) narrative arc
B)
context
C) language
D) setting
E) cast
Page: 292
C
Which of the following statements about the branding guidelines for a
small business is true?
A) A small business must creatively
conduct low-cost marketing research.
B) A small business must
avoid leveraging secondary brand associations.
C) A small
business must separate the well-integrated brand elements to enhance
both brand awareness and brand image.
D) A small business must
disintegrate the brand elements to maximize the contribution of each
of the three main sets of brand equity drivers.
E) A small
business must focus on building more than two strong brands based on a
number of associations.
Page: 293- 294
A
All marketing strategy is built on segmentation, targeting, and positioning.
Page: 275
true
Positioning is the act of designing the company's offering and image
to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market.
Page: 276
true
The result of positioning is the successful creation of an
employee-focused value proposition.
Page: 276
false
Positioning requires that marketers define and communicate only the
differences between their brand and its competitors.
Page: 276
false
The competitive frame of reference defines which other brands a brand
competes with.
Page: 276
true
Category membership is seen as the products which function as close
substitutes of a brand.
Page: 277
true
A company is more likely to be hurt by current competitors than by
emerging competitors or new technologies.
Page: 277
false
The industry concept of competition reveals a broader set of actual
and potential competitors than competition defined in just the market concept.
Page: 278
false
Using the industry approach, competitors are defined as companies
that satisfy the same customer need.
Page: 278
false
To analyze its competitors, a company needs to gather information
about both the real and the perceived strengths and weaknesses of each competitor.
Page: 279
true
Associations that make up points-of-difference are based exclusively
on product features.
Page: 280
false
Points-of-parity are attributes or benefits consumers strongly
associate with a brand and believe that they could not find to the
same extent with a competitive brand.
Page: 280
false
Points-of-parity may be shared among two or more brands.
Page: 280
true
Category points-of-parity are unique to a brand.
Page: 280
false
Category points-of-parity may change over time due to technological
advances, legal developments, or consumer trends.
Page: 281
true
Category points-of-parity are associations designed to overcome
perceived weaknesses of the brand.
Page: 281
false
A competitive point-of-parity negates competitors' perceived points-of-difference.
Page: 281
true
Trying to be all things to all people leads to
highest-common-denominator positioning, which is typically effective.
Page: 282
false
Straddle positioning refers to a brand using different positioning
with different categories of competitors.
Page: 283
false
Occasionally, a company will be able to straddle two frames of
reference with one set of points-of-difference and points-of-parity.
Page: 283
true
Perceptual maps provide quantitative portrayals of market situations
and the way consumers view different products, services, and brands
along various dimensions.
Page: 283
true
The purpose of brand mantras is to ensure that employees and external
marketing partners understand what the brand is to represent to the customers.
Page: 284
true
Brand mantras must communicate both what a brand is and what it is not.
Page: 285
true
Brand mantras are typically designed to capture the brand's
points-of-parity, that is, what is unique about the brand.
Page: 286
false
Brands are never affiliated with categories in which they do not hold membership.
Page: 287
false
There are situations in which consumers know a brand's category
membership but may not be convinced the brand is a valid member of the category.
Page: 287
false
The typical approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a
brand's membership before stating its point-of-difference.
Page: 288
true
The product descriptor that follows the brand name is often a concise
means of conveying category origin.
Page: 288
true
If Barry compares his organization's products to those of leaders in
the field, then he is conveying category membership by "comparing
to exemplars".
Page: 288
true
A good illustration of negatively correlated attributes or benefits
is good taste versus bad taste.
Page: 288
false
A leverageable advantage is one that a company can use as a
springboard to new advantages.
Page: 289
true
Competitive advantage is a company's ability to perform in one or
more ways that competitors cannot or will not match.
Page: 289
true
The means of differentiation that are often most compelling to
consumers relate to aspects of the product and service.
Page: 290
true
Companies cannot achieve differentiation by differentiating their
channels, as this is not the purpose of a distribution channel.
Page: 290
false
A good positioning should contain points-of-difference and
points-of-parity that have rational but not emotional components.
Page: 290
false
Brand storytelling is a less-structured approach to brand positioning.
Page: 291-292
true
Narrative branding is based on deep metaphors that connect to
people's memories, associations, and stories.
Page: 292
true
Cultural branding is essential for small firms, but ineffective for
large companies.
Page: 293
false
Small businesses must focus on building one or two strong brands
based on one or two key associations.
Page: 293
true
While creating a loyal brand community is useful for large companies,
it is not cost-effective for small firms.
Page: 293
false