Chapter 19 Blood Flashcards

Plasma is closest in composition to

A) urine.

B) isotonic saline solution.

C) sterile water.

D) CSF.

E) interstitial fluid.

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the

A) viscosity.

B) specific gravity.

C) packed volume.

D) hematocrit.

E) differential cell count.

Which of the following is a function of the blood?

A) transport of nutrients and wastes

B) transport of body heat

C) transport of gases

D) defense against toxins and pathogens

E) All of the answers are correct.

Which of the following statements about blood is false?

A) Blood contains buffers that control pH.

B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0.

C) Blood is more viscous than water.

D) Blood is about 55 percent plasma.

E) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements.

Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?

A) 55 percent

B) 30 percent

C) 60 percent

D) 45 percent

E) 20 percent

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called

A) serum.

B) lymph.

C) whole blood.

D) extracellular fluid.

E) packed blood.

Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from

A) the heart.

B) a superficial artery.

C) a superficial vein.

D) a capillary.

E) an arteriole

When checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to draw a blood sample from

A) the heart.

B) the lungs.

C) an artery.

D) a vein.

E) capillaries.

Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?

A) RBCs—5.2 million/µl

B) platelets—280,000/µl

C) leukocytes—8600/µl

D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml

E) hematocrit—44 percent

Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a

A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.

B) viscosity about the same as water.

C) pH of 7.4.

D) built-in system for clotting.

E) red color from hemoglobin.

The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters.

A) 10

B) 6 to 8

C) 5.3

D) 4.4

E) 3.8

The most abundant component of plasma is

A) ions.

B) proteins.

C) water.

D) gases.

E) nutrients.

A person who has a low blood volume is said to be

A) hypovolemic.

B) hypervolemic.

C) normovolemic.

D) isovolemic.

E) antivolemic.

The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of

A) water.

B) electrolytes.

C) nitrogen wastes.

D) proteins.

E) glucose.

A typical adult hematocrit is

A) 85.

B) 75.

C) 65.

D) 45.

E) 25.

Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood?

A) RBCs

B) platelets

C) antibodies

D) lymphocytes

E) basophils

Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume.

A) 55; 92

B) 92; 7

C) 92; 55

D) 45; 55

E) 50; 50

A hematocrit provides information on

A) blood type.

B) clotting factors.

C) formed elements abundance.

D) plasma composition.

E) sedimentation rate.

You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be?

A) 6.6 L

B) 6.0 L

C) 5.6 L

D) 4.8 L

E) 3.8 L

Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

A) metalloprotein

B) steroid-binding

C) hormone-binding

D) apolipoprotein

E) transport albumin

Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

A) metalloprotein

B) steroid-binding protein

C) hormone-binding protein

D) apolipoprotein

E) transport albumin

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?

A) translipin

B) steroid-binding protein

C) hormone-binding protein

D) albumin

E) gamma globulin

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

A) pancreas

B) heart

C) kidney

D) brain

E) liver

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

A) globulins.

B) transport proteins.

C) albumins.

D) lipoproteins.

E) fibrinogens.

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

A) albumins.

B) fibrinogens.

C) immunoglobulins.

D) metalloproteins.

E) lipoproteins.

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is

A) albumin alpha.

B) fibrinogen.

C) immunoglobulin

D) metalloprotein

E) lipoprotein

All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the

A) heart.

B) thymus.

C) spleen.

D) red bone marrow.

E) lymph tissue.

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone

A) thymosin.

B) angiotensin.

C) erythropoietin.

D) M-CSF.

E) renin.

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false?

A) Red cells are biconcave discs.

B) Red cells lack mitochondria.

C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.

D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen.

E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron?

A) hemoglobin

B) ferritin

C) hemosiderin

D) transferrin

E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if

A) the diet is deficient in iron.

B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.

C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen.

E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.

When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect

A) a drop in atmospheric oxygen levels.

B) the release of erythropoietin.

C) a rise in hematocrit.

D) an increase in red blood cell production.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Surgical removal of the stomach could cause

A) hemophilia.

B) pernicious anemia.

C) thrombocytopenia.

D) leukocytosis.

E) jaundice.

Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that

A) she is suffering from anemia.

B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal.

C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.

D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.

E) her hemoglobin level is normal.

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in

A) pernicious anemia.

B) renal anemia.

C) increased erythropoiesis.

D) decreased erythropoiesis.

E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except

A) during anemia.

B) at high altitudes.

C) as a consequence of hemorrhage.

D) during periods of fasting.

E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

The average life span of a red blood cell is

A) 24 hours.

B) 1 month.

C) 4 months.

D) about 1 year.

E) many years.

The function of red blood cells is to

A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs.

B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells.

C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.

D) defend the body against infectious organisms.

E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide.

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?

A) aplastic anemia

B) vitamin B12 deficiency

C) lack of intrinsic factor

D) vitamin K deficiency

E) vitamin B6 deficiency

In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the

A) liver.

B) spleen.

C) thymus.

D) red bone marrow.

E) yellow bone marrow.

Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of

A) magnesium.

B) calcium.

C) iron.

D) sodium.

E) copper.

Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as

A) transferrin.

B) hemosiderin.

C) ferritin.

D) hemoglobin.

E) hemosiderin and ferritin.

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?

A) during coagulation

B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver

C) iron-deficient diet

D) low hematocrit

E) low blood volume

If bile ducts are blocked,

A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma.

B) bilirubin appears in the saliva.

C) more hemolysis takes place.

D) more red blood cells are produced.

E) more white blood cells are produced.

More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is

A) albumin.

B) porphyrin.

C) hemoglobin.

D) immunoglobulin.

E) fibrinogen.

The function of hemoglobin is to

A) carry dissolved blood gases.

B) carry bicarbonate ion.

C) aid in the process of blood clotting.

D) produce antibodies.

E) stimulate erythropoiesis.

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.

A) Polycythemia

B) Leukemia

C) Anemia

D) Leukopenia

E) Thrombocytopenia

Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by

A) oral doses of iron.

B) injections of iron.

C) oral doses of vitamin B12.

D) injections of vitamin B12.

E) blood transfusion.

Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?

A) fibrocytes

B) platelets

C) reticulocytes

D) lymphocytes

E) neutrophils

A red blood cell that contains excessive amounts of hemoglobin would be called

A) hyperchromic.

B) normochromic.

C) hypochromic.

D) normocytic.

E) macrocytic.

A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because

A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color.

B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin.

C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise.

D) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation.

E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the

A) spleen.

B) liver.

C) bone marrow.

D) digestive tract.

E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

The waste product bilirubin is produced from

A) globin chains of hemoglobin.

B) heme molecules plus iron.

C) heme molecules lacking iron.

D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules.

E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

A) excreted by the kidneys.

B) excreted by the liver.

C) excreted by the intestines.

D) recycled to the red bone marrow.

E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in

A) the liver.

B) yellow bone marrow.

C) red bone marrow.

D) the spleen.

E) lymphoid tissue.

In adults, red bone marrow is located in the

A) sternum and ribs.

B) proximal epiphyses of long bones.

C) iliac crest.

D) body of vertebrae.

E) All of the answers are correct.

The process of red blood cell production is called

A) erythrocytosis.

B) erythropenia.

C) hemocytosis.

D) erythropoiesis.

E) hematopenia.

The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as

A) hemocytoblasts.

B) reticulocytes.

C) band forms.

D) myeloid cells.

E) proerythrocytes.

________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.

A) Erythroblasts

B) Normoblasts

C) Myeloblasts

D) Band cells

E) Reticulocytes

Erythropoiesis is stimulated when

A) oxygen levels in the blood increase.

B) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease.

C) blood flow to the kidney declines.

D) coagulation begins.

E) blood pressure increases.

Each hemoglobin molecule contains

A) four alpha chains.

B) one alpha and one beta chain.

C) four iron atoms.

D) one heme group.

E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide.

The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from

A) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma.

B) extensive breakdown of RBCs.

C) destruction of hemoglobin.

D) the recycling of hemoglobin.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Which of the following blood count values would be a sign of anemia?

A) 10,000 WBC

B) 3.5 million RBC

C) 400,000 platelets

D) 5.5 million RBC

E) A and D taken together

After donating 0.5 liters of blood, one would expect

A) an increased reticulocyte count.

B) an increased platelet count.

C) an increased erythrocyte count.

D) an increased neutrophil count.

E) increased levels of clotting factors.

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. What does this mean?

A) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a transfusion.

B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood.

C) Bill is Rh positive.

D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies.

E) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen.

A person's blood type is determined by the

A) size of the RBCs.

B) volume of the RBCs.

C) chemical character of the hemoglobin.

D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.

E) shape of the RBCs.

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because

A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.

B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.

C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.

D) they usually have very strong immune systems.

E) they are usually Rh negative.

Blood type is identified primarily by

A) the Kahn blood group.

B) the HB blood system.

C) the Rh blood group.

D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups.

E) the ABO blood group.

Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?

A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies.

B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.

C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies.

D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.

Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of

A) all individuals with type AB blood.

B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.

C) all Rh positive individuals.

D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.

E) all Rh negative individuals.

Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________.

A) agglutinins; agglutinogens

B) agglutinogens; agglutinins

C) T-cells; B-cells

D) erythrogens; antibiotics

E) serum; plasma

Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative

B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative

C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive

D) mother type A+, baby type O+

E) None of the answers is correct.

The process of lymphopoiesis goes on in all of the following organs, except

A) the spleen.

B) the kidney.

C) the lymph nodes.

D) the red bone marrow.

E) the thymus.

Granulocytes form in

A) the intestines.

B) the spleen.

C) the thymus.

D) red bone marrow.

E) yellow bone marrow.

All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are

A) granular leukocytes.

B) phagocytic.

C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

D) important in coagulation.

E) active in fighting bacterial infections.

The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

A) neutrophils.

B) eosinophils.

C) basophils.

D) lymphocytes.

E) monocytes.

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

A) neutrophils.

B) eosinophils.

C) basophils.

D) lymphocytes.

E) monocytes.

________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells.

A) Neutrophils

B) Eosinophils

C) Basophils

D) Lymphocytes

E) Monocytes

Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?

A) adheres to collagen beneath endothelium

B) helper cells are one type

C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation

D) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E) often elevated in allergic individuals

White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the

A) neutrophils.

B) eosinophils.

C) basophils.

D) lymphocytes.

E) monocytes.

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is

A) M-CSF.

B) G-CSF.

C) GM-CSF.

D) multi-CSF.

E) thymosin.

A genetically engineered hormone that stimulates the production of neutrophils is

A) M-CSF.

B) G-CSF (Neupogen).

C) GM-CSF.

D) multi-CSF.

E) thymosin.

The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are

A) neutrophils.

B) basophils.

C) lymphocytes.

D) monocytes.

E) leukocytes.

Which of the following is not true of neutrophils?

A) less abundant than lymphocytes

B) can make hydrogen peroxide

C) can exit capillaries

D) can destroy bacteria

E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria

Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes?

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B) helper cells are one type

C) develop into plasma cells

D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E) often elevated in allergic individuals

Which of the following is true of basophils?

A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs

B) granules contain heparin

C) granules contain histamine

D) attract other defense cells

E) All of the answers are correct.

Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes?

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B) are involved in cell mediated immunity

C) produce antibodies in response to antigens

D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E) often elevated in allergic individuals

An infected wound contains typically contains

A) dead neutrophils.

B) cellular debris.

C) tissue fluids.

D) pus.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Which of the following is not true of monocytes?

A) about same size as basophils

B) enter tissues and wander

C) become macrophages

D) are long-lived

E) can phagocytize bacteria

Eosinophils function in

A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens.

B) blood coagulation.

C) production of surface antigens for red blood cells.

D) antibody production.

E) production of heparin.

During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of

A) neutrophils.

B) eosinophils.

C) basophils.

D) reticulocytes.

E) thrombocytes.

The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the

A) neutrophils.

B) monocytes.

C) basophils.

D) erythrocytes.

E) lymphocytes.

Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells?

A) basophils and eosinophils

B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

C) lymphocytes and monocytes

D) platelets

E) lymphocytes

Which of the following is true of eosinophils?

A) Granules stain with eosin dyes.

B) Allergic patients have many.

C) They have bilobed nucleus.

D) They constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs.

E) All of the answers are correct.

A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?

A) neutrophils

B) eosinophils

C) basophils

D) lymphocytes

E) monocytes

The function of platelets is to assist in the

A) destruction of bacteria.

B) process called hemostasis.

C) removal of worn out red blood cells.

D) immune response during an infection.

E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called

A) erythroblasts.

B) normoblasts.

C) megakaryocytes.

D) myeloblasts.

E) lymphoblasts.

Platelets are

A) red cells that lack a nucleus.

B) blue cells that have a nucleus.

C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus.

D) tiny cells with a polynucleus.

E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.

In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in the _______.

A) the heart.

B) the kidneys.

C) the spleen.

D) the thymus gland.

E) bone marrow.

Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets?

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B) helper cells are one type

C) produce antibodies in response to antigens

D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E) often elevated in allergic individuals

A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from _______.

A) thrombocytosis.

B) leukocytosis.

C) hemocytosis.

D) thrombocytopenia.

E) leukopenia.

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

A) Vascular spasm

B) The platelet phase

C) Retraction

D) Coagulation

E) Fibrinolysis

Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by the _______.

A) platelets.

B) megakaryocytes.

C) the liver.

D) the kidneys.

E) the spleen.

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.

C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

D) release of heparin from the liver.

E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

B) activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen.

C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

D) release of heparin from the liver.

E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

The common pathway of coagulation begins with the

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.

C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.

D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase.

E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

The process of fibrinolysis

A) activates fibrinogen.

B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.

C) dissolves clots.

D) forms emboli.

E) forms thrombi.

The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is

A) thrombin.

B) plasmin.

C) heparin.

D) fibrinase.

E) phosphokinase.

Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway.

A) extrinsic

B) intrinsic

C) common

D) retraction

E) fibrinolytic

Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway.

A) extrinsic

B) intrinsic

C) common

D) retraction

E) fibrinolytic

Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of _______.

A) anemia.

B) acidosis.

C) hemorrhage.

D) thrombocytopenia.

E) starvation.

A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

A) cause clots to form faster.

B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.

C) initiate clot formation.

D) mimic heparin.

E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.

How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation?

A) the coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation

B) coagulation would be prevented

C) no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium

D) coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals

E) more blood cells would be produced

Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?

A) vitamin A

B) vitamin B

C) vitamin K

D) vitamin D

E) vitamin E

A moving blood clot is called a(n) _______.

A) embolus.

B) thrombus.

C) plaque.

D) procoagulant.

E) platelet plug.

Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called _______.

A) thrombi.

B) emboli.

C) plaques.

D) clots.

E) occlusions.

People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result

A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway.

B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway.

C) they lack a functional common pathway.

D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal.

E) their coagulation times are too quick.

Which of the following are common sources of vitamin K?

A) green vegetables

B) organ meats

C) whole grains

D) intestinal bacteria

E) All of answers are correct.

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme _______.

A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme.

B) plasmin.

C) factor VIII.

D) thrombin.

E) prothrombinase.

A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to absorb vitamin K will result in

A) low levels of prothrombin.

B) low levels of Factor X.

C) low levels of thromboplastin.

D) prolonged bleeding.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.

A) erythropoietin

B) bilirubin

C) thrombopoietin

D) colony-stimulating factors

E) plasmin

The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells.

A) differential count

B) hematocrit

C) sedimentation rate

D) WBC count

E) complete cell count (CBC)

Fifty to seventy percent of circulating white blood cells are _______.

A) monocytes.

B) lymphocytes.

C) eosinophils.

D) basophils.

E) neutrophils.

The phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called

A) coagulation.

B) hemolysis.

C) vascular spasm.

D) a platelet plug.

E) diapedesis.

Plasminogen is converted to its active form by an enzyme called

A) tissue plasminogen activator.

B) papain.

C) fibrinolysin.

D) prothrombin.

E) polymerase.

Endothelial cells release ________ that stimulate smooth muscle contraction and accelerate the repair process.

A) platelets

B) endothelins

C) histamines

D) CSFs

E) heparins

The process of fibrinolysis

A) activates fibrinogen.

B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.

C) dissolves clots.

D) forms emboli.

E) forms thrombi.

The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is

A) thrombin.

B) plasmin.

C) heparin.

D) fibrinase.

E) phosphokinase.