57) Feelings of hunger can be stimulated by the hormone ________, but suppressed by the hormone ________.

1. A) insulin; glucagon
2. B) secretin; gastrin
3. C) pepsin; trypsin
4. D) ghrelin; PYY

d

2) If a mammal did not obtain enough iodine in its diet, you might expect ________.

1. A) a decreased ability to produce thyroid hormones
2. B) a decrease in enzyme function
3. C) the animal to have weak bones

D) a decrease in muscle function

a

3) Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit of storing chemical energy as ________.

1. A) proteins
2. B) minerals
3. C) carbohydrates
4. D) fats

d

4) Lysine is an essential amino acid for animals. If an animal did not consume lysine in its diet, you might expect that the animal ________.

1. A) would make lysine from other amino acids
2. B) could not effectively make many necessary proteins
3. C) was a carnivore
4. D) would be very healthy

b

5) Which of the following is a difference between vitamins and minerals?

1. A) Vitamins are involved in regulating enzyme activity, but minerals are not.
2. B) Vitamins are organic molecules, but minerals are inorganic molecules.
3. C) Minerals are obtained by an animal through dietary sources, but vitamins are made by the animal.
4. D) Vitamins and minerals are only obtained by digesting plants.

b

6) Folic acid supplements have become especially important for pregnant women because ________.

1. A) folic acid supplies vitamins that only pregnant women can use
2. B) the fetus makes high levels of folic acid
3. C) folic acid deprivation is associated with neural tube defects in a fetus
4. D) folic acid deprivation is a cause of heart abnormalities in a newborn

c

8) Ticks are parasites that obtain nutrients by ingesting blood from a host animal. Ticks would be classified as ________.

1. A) filter feeders
2. B) substrate feeders
3. C) fluid feeders
4. D) bulk feeders

c

9) The process of obtaining food is known as ________ and requires specialized feeding mechanisms.

1. A) ingestion
2. B) digestion
3. C) absorption
4. D) excretion

a

10) In a hydra, digestion is completed ________.

1. A) intracellularly
2. B) extracellularly
3. C) in the alimentary canal
4. D) in the gastrovascular cavity

a

11) An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the complete system ________.

1. A) excludes the need for extracellular digestion
2. B) allows for specialized regions with specialized functions
3. C) allows extensive branching
4. D) facilitates intracellular digestion

b

12) Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, animals need to have mechanisms for ________.

1. A) dehydration synthesis
2. B) enzymatic hydrolysis
3. C) regurgitation
4. D) demineralization

b

13) Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both digestive processes ________.

1. A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme
2. B) use water molecules when breaking bonds (hydrolysis)
3. C) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH
4. D) require adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source

b

14) The process by which digested dietary substances cross cell membranes to be used by the body is known as ________.

1. A) ingestion
2. B) digestion
3. C) hydrolysis
4. D) absorption

d

15) Mechanical digestion, the process of breaking down large chunks of food into smaller pieces, is important because smaller pieces of food ________.

1. A) do not taste as good as larger pieces of food
2. B) have more surface area for chemical digestion than do larger pieces of food
3. C) are easier to excrete than are larger pieces of food
4. D) are more easily stored in the stomach than are larger pieces of food

b

16) The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates ________.

1. A) secretion
2. B) absorption
3. C) filtration
4. D) temperature regulation

b

17) In the digestive system, peristalsis is ________.

1. A) a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine
2. B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation
3. C) the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel
4. D) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus

d

18) Among mammals, it is generally true that ________.

1. A) all types of foods begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth
2. B) after leaving the oral cavity, the bolus enters the larynx
3. C) the epiglottis prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea
4. D) the trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach

c

23) Animals cannot produce enzymes to digest cellulose, yet many termite species consume cellulose from plant material as a main part of their diet. How do termites access the nutrients contained in cellulose?

1. A) Termites have specialized mouthparts to mechanically break down the cellulose.
2. B) The ingested plant material also contains enzymes for cellulose digestion.
3. C) Cellulose is digested intracellularly in the termite hindgut.
4. D) Mutualistic bacteria in the hindgut of the termite digest the cellulose into sugars.

d

24) Which of the following organs is correctly paired with its function?

1. A) stomach—fat digestion
2. B) large intestine—bile production
3. C) small intestine—polysaccharide digestion

D) pancreas—starch digestion

c

25) Stomach cells are moderately well adapted to the acidity and protein-digesting activities in the stomach by having ________.

1. A) a sufficient colony of pylori
2. B) a thick, mucous secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells
3. C) a high level of secretion of enzymes by chief cells
4. D) a cell wall impermeable to acid

b

26) The function of chylomicrons is to ________.

1. A) digest nucleic acids in the intestine
2. B) break down carbohydrates in the mouth
3. C) transport lipids from the intestine to other organs
4. D) move proteins across plasma membranes of cells

c

27) Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells ________.

1. A) initiate the chemical digestion of protein in the stomach
2. B) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach
3. C) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach
4. D) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine

a

28) What is the importance of the mucus that are released by salivary glands?

1. A) They aid in degradation of triglycerides to fatty acids and monoglycerides.
2. B) They are beginning the process of starch digestion.
3. C) They are hormonal molecules that stimulate the release of gastric juice by the stomach in anticipation of receipt of the contents of the mouth.

D) They are glycoproteins that make food slippery enough to slide easily through the esophagus

d

29) Jahasz-Pocsine and co-workers found a correlation between gastric bypass surgery and neurological complications. Surgeons performed gastric bypass surgery on 150 patients at the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences Neurology Clinic. Of the 150 patients, 26 experienced neurological complications related to the surgery. What is the most likely cause for the neurological complications?

1. A) sudden weight loss and caloric deficiency interfering with neurological function
2. B) nutrient (for example, vitamin and mineral) deficiencies
3. C) sloppy surgical technique of physicians performing the bypass surgery
4. D) infections following surgical intervention

b

30) Why do the cells of the digestive system secrete proteolytic enzymes, such as pepsin, in their inactive forms?

1. A) These proteolytic enzymes, in active form, would digest the very tissues that synthesize them.
2. B) By secreting inactive enzymes, the catalytic activity of the enzymes is maintained for a longer time.
3. C) The stomach is too acidic to maintain these enzymes in their active form.
4. D) Inactive pepsin and trypsin are more easily transported across the cell membrane

a

31) Over-the-counter medications for acid reflux or heartburn block the production of stomach acid. Which of the following cells are directly affected by this medication?

1. A) goblet cells
2. B) chief cells
3. C) parietal cells
4. D) smooth muscle cells

c

32) The active ingredient orlistat acts to decrease the amount of fat that is absorbed by attaching to enzymes that digest fat. Which of the following are potential targets of orlistat?

1. A) salivary amylase
2. B) pepsidase
3. C) pancreatic lipase
4. D) secretin

c

33) The digestion of ________ begins in the stomach.

1. A) protein
2. B) fat
3. C) nucleic acids
4. D) carbohydrates

a

34) Nutrient-rich blood from the intestine is carried through the ________ to the liver.

1. A) lacteal vessels
2. B) hepatic portal artery
3. C) hepatic portal vein
4. D) lymphatic system

c

35) The bile salts ________.

1. A) are enzymes
2. B) are manufactured by the pancreas
3. C) emulsify fats in the duodenum
4. D) are normally an ingredient of gastric juice

c

36) The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that ________.

1. A) fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine
2. B) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not
3. C) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood
4. D) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption

c

37) Constipation can result from the consumption of a substance that ________.

1. A) promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine
2. B) speeds up movement of material in the large intestine
3. C) decreases water reabsorption in the small intestine
4. D) stimulates peristalsis

a

38) After surgical removal of an infected gallbladder, a person must be especially careful to restrict dietary intake of ________.

1. A) protein
2. B) sugar
3. C) fat
4. D) water

c

39) Pepsinogen is converted to its active form in the stomach by ________.

1. A) HCl
2. B) chief cells
3. C) high pH conditions
4. D) parietal cells

a

40) If you place a small piece of a cracker on your tongue, what would you expect to happen?

1. A) The vitamins in the cracker are immediately absorbed.
2. B) Salivary amylase degrades the starch from the cracker into glucose.
3. C) The proteins in the cracker begin to be digested.
4. D) The flavor becomes less noticeable because the sugars are digested.

b

41) A relatively long cecum is characteristic of animals that are ________.

1. A) carnivores
2. B) herbivores
3. C) autotrophs
4. D) omnivores

b

42) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because cattle ________.

1. A) are autotrophic
2. B) re-ingest their feces
3. C) manufacture all fifteen amino acids out of sugars in the liver
4. D) have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs

d

43) A zoologist analyzes the jawbones of an extinct mammal and concludes that it was an herbivore. The zoologist most likely came to this conclusion based upon the ________.

1. A) position of muscle attachment sites
2. B) shape of the teeth
3. C) size of the mouth opening
4. D) angle of the teeth in the mouth

b

44) Coprophagy is important for the nutritional balance of ________.

1. A) ruminants such as cows
2. B) insects and arthropods
3. C) rabbits and their relatives
4. D) squirrels and some rodents

c

45) If you found a vertebrate skull in the woods and the teeth were sharp and scissor-like, what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?

1. A) grass
2. B) flesh of another animal
3. C) nectar
4. D) blood

b

46) What benefit is gained by intestinal bacteria living in a mutualistic relationship with an animal?

1. A) The bacteria are provided with a regular source of nutrients.
2. B) Temperature is always regulated.
3. C) The bacteria can easily infect the animal's intestinal cells.
4. D) The bacteria can avoid the animal's immune system.

a

47) When used appropriately, antibiotic treatment can effectively reduce bacteria populations and help fight infections. However, antibiotic treatments can have unintended effects. What is one concern when using antibiotics?

1. A) Antibiotics also damage animal cells, so they can be more harmful than a bacterial infection.
2. B) Antibiotics cause viruses to become more effective at infecting cells.
3. C) Each antibiotic is only effective against one type of bacteria, so effects on infection are limited.
4. D) Antibiotics may also kill the beneficial bacteria of the microbiome, thereby disrupting digestive health.

d

48) A significant contribution of intestinal bacteria to human nutrition is the benefit of bacterial ________.

1. A) production of vitamins A and C
2. B) absorption of organic materials
3. C) production of vitamin K
4. D) recovery of water from fecal matter

c

49) Obesity in humans is most clearly linked to ________.

1. A) type 1 diabetes and prostate cancer
2. B) type 2 diabetes and muscle hypertrophy
3. C) type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease
4. D) type 2 diabetes and decreased appetite

c

50) If you were to jog one kilometer a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably tap?

1. A) muscle proteins
2. B) liver glycogen and muscle glycogen
3. C) fat stored in adipose tissue
4. D) blood proteins

b

51) Food being digested in the stomach is in a highly acidic environment. When the food is released from the stomach into the small intestine, why is the environment no longer acidic?

1. A) Secretin increases the flow of bicarbonate ions from the pancreas into the small intestine to neutralize the stomach acid.
2. B) Trypsinogen is activated, thus neutralizing the stomach acid.
3. C) Bile salts from the gallbladder neutralize the stomach acid.
4. D) When pepsinogen activates pepsin, one result is the neutralization of stomach acid in the stomach.

a

The Pimas are a group of people living in the southwestern United States and Mexico. Although Pima Indians living in the United States and Mexico have a similar genetic background, a five-fold increase in the incidence of type II diabetes mellitus among U.S. Pima has been reported. The body mass index of Mexicans of non-Pima descent, Mexicans of Pima descent, and Pimas living in the United States is shown in the figure. Based on this information and the graph, what can you infer about the incidence of type II diabetes mellitus?

1. A) Obesity is a risk factor for development of type II diabetes mellitus.
2. B) If you maintain a normal body weight (body mass index less than 25), you will not get type II diabetes mellitus.
3. C) The incidence of type II diabetes mellitus has increased in the past ten years.
4. D) People who develop type II diabetes mellitus are typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence.

a

53) In a healthy person, after a carbohydrate-rich meal, the production of ________ will increase, causing the uptake of ________ from the blood into liver cells.

1. A) insulin; glucagon
2. B) glucagon; protein
3. C) glucagon; glucose
4. D) insulin; glucose

d

54) If there is a strong genetic link for type II diabetes mellitus in your family, how might you minimize your risk of developing the disorder?

1. A) monitor your blood glucose levels daily
2. B) take oral insulin daily
3. C) maintain a healthy weight, eat a balanced diet, and exercise
4. D) eat complex carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets

c

55) When the digestion and absorption of organic carbohydrates results in more energy-rich molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is ________.

1. A) eliminated in the feces
2. B) stored as starch in the liver
3. C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles
4. D) oxidized and converted to ATP

c

56) A fasting animal whose energy needs exceed those provided in its diet will draw on its stored resources in which order?

1. A) fat, then glycogen, then protein
2. B) glycogen, then protein, then fat
3. C) liver glycogen, then muscle glycogen, then fat

D) muscle glycogen, then fat, then liver glycogen

c

57) Feelings of hunger can be stimulated by the hormone ________, but suppressed by the hormone ________.

1. A) insulin; glucagon
2. B) secretin; gastrin
3. C) pepsin; trypsin
4. D) ghrelin; PYY

d