ATI Pharmacology: Module: Pain and Inflammation
Adverse Effect:
- Dark Urine
- Yellowing of the skin or eyes
- Difficulty breathing
- Swelling (Face, Lips, Tongue or Throat)
Side Effect:
- Upset stomach
- Nausea
- Loss of appetite
- Itching
Adverse Effects vs Side Effects
Pain-mediating chemicals
Sensory: Pain
There are gates in the spinal cord that open or close in relation to the conduction of pain up the spinal cord to the brain.
According to "Gate Theory"
Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation Unit
TENS Unit stands for...
S.E.E.
These bind with opioid receptors and inhibit the conduction of pain impulses.
Releif of a decrease of pain is the outcome.
Body's natural pain killers
Three types of Opioid Receptors
> Stimulated by opioid drugs.
> They cause analgesia or relief of pain whenever receptors are stimulated.
> Stimulation causes respiratory depression, euphoria, sedation, and physical dependence.
MU opioid receptor
> Stimulated by opioid drugs.
> They cause analgesia, sedation, and psychotomimetic effects whenever receptors are stimulated
KAPPA opioid receptor
No pharmacology-related effects
DELTA opioid receptor
What are the effects that are primary concerns when administering opiod analgesics?
Effects that mimic psychosis such as hallucinations and delusion.
What is psychotomimetic effects?
> Occurs secondary to injury
> Chemical mediators
Inflammatory Response
What are the mediating chemicals released in response to cellular damage?
What are the local reaction to mediating chemicals?
Substances that increase pain transmission and cause an inflammatory response.
Substances that decrease paint transmission and produce analgesia
Suppression of Inflammation
> Corticosteroid
> Suppresses inflammation and immune response
ACTH stimulates adrenal glands to produce
Types of Analgesics
Interfere with production of prostaglandins, which in turn inhibits mild pain and suppresses inflammation.
NSAIDs
Act by stimulating opioid receptors
Opioids
Type of Anti-Inflammatories
Produce a very strong anti-inflammatory effects, especially in high doses.
Glucocorticoids
Decreases the serum levels of uric acid, a chemical in the body that can cause gout.
Uricosurics
Three categories of drugs that support the treatment of pain.
growing or originating from within\
substance used to treat pain
Edorphin
1 - First-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
2 - Second-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
3 - Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
4 - Centrally-acting nonopioids
Four types of Nonopiod Analgesics
1 - First-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
aspirin (Advil)
ibuprofen (Mortin)
naproxen (Naprosyn, Aleve),
indomenthacin (Indocin)
Ketrolac
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Drugs
Inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX)
Cyclooxygenase converse arachidonic acid into prostaglandins
COX-1 enzyme stimulates release o protective prostaglandins (homeostasis)
- Gastric mucosal protectant
- Enhances platelet aggregation
- Promotes kidney function
COX-2 stimulates release of prosglandins secondary to injury
- inflammation
- pain
- fever
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Expected Pharmacologic Action
an enzyme that converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandis when tissue injury occurs.
Cyclooxygenase
Two forms of Cyclooxygenase
COX-1 enzyme
COX-2 enzyme
Pharmacology Action Table
- can occur secondary to blocking the gastric mucosal protective effects of COX-1
- occur for the same reason, however this occurs less with non-aspirin NSAIDs
- due to NSAIDs block the protective effects of COX-1 on the kidneys
- a buildup of aspirin in the body to toxic level, can occur if patients ingest more aspirin than they excrete.
- a rare disorder that can occur secondary to giving aspirin to a child who has a viral infection
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Side/Adverse Effects
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Interventions
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Administering
- to minimize gastrointestinal effects.
- examples bruising, petechiae, and excessive bleeding from minor injuries.
- including weight gain, or signs of fluid retention such as edema or bloating.
- Let them know that they can use acetaminophen instead.
- Due to the risk of development of thrombi when taking a non-aspirin NSAID, tell patients to immediately report to the provider chest pain or heaviness, shortness of breath, sudden and sever headache, one-sided numbness, weakness, visual disturbances, or confusion.
- Reinforce the use of low-dose aspiring once daily to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction and cerebrovascular accident if the provider recommends it.
- Also instruct the patient to report ringing or buzzing in the ears immediately, as this is the first sign of salicylism.
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Patient Instructions
ringing or buzzing in the ears, tinnitus, sweating, headache, and dizziness
What is the first sign of salicylism?
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Contraindications
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Precautions
1) NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 Inhibitors) - Interactions
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor)
Celecoxib (Celebrex)
- the only true COX-2 inhibitor still on the market
Taken off the market due to increase of myocardial infarctions, heart attacks and cerebrovascular accidents, or strokes.
Rofecoxib (Vioxx)
Valdecoxib (Bextra)
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Prototype/other Drugs
- Gastric related side effects are less
- Kidney impairment side effects are similar
- Vasoconstriction combines with platelet aggregation increases risk of cardiovascular events
- suppress pain
- suppress inflammation
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Expected Pharmacologic Action
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Side/Adverse Effects
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Interventions
When administering celecoxib (celebrex)
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Administration
Long-term NSAID therapy with a COX-2 inhibitor drug.
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Patien Instructions
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Contraindication
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Precautions
2) NSAIDs (COX-2 Inhibitor) - Interactions
3) Acetaminophen
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
3) Acetaminophen - Prototype/other Drugs
- relieves pain
- reduces fever
3) Acetaminophen - Expected Pharmacologic Action
Liver damage (overdose)
Hypertension (with daily use, particularly women)
3) Acetaminophen - Side/Adverse Effects
- abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, sweating, and diarrhea.
- when giving in toxic dosages, liver damage can occur in only 48 to 72 hours
3) Acetaminophen - Intervensions
- typical dose is less than 1 mL.
- Parents must be careful to give the dose prescribed to their infant because the risk for accidental overdose is high if infants don't get the appropriate dose.
3) Acetaminophen - Administration
- Infants and children under 12 should take the manufacturer's recommended dose based on their age.
3) Acetaminophen - Patient Instructions
- due to the potential for each to have an adverse effect on the liver.
3) Acetaminophen - Contraindications
3) Acetaminophen - Precautions
Alcohol increases the risk of liver injury (with high doses of acetaminophen)
Warfarin (Coumadin) increases the risk of bleeding
Cholestyramin (Questran reduces absoroption
3) Acetaminophen - Interactions
Treats moderate to moderately severe pain.
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids
Tramadol (Ultram)
* there are other types of drugs that treat pain by acting on the CNS, but this module focuses only on tramadol.
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Prototype/Other Drugs
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Expected Pharmacologic Action
Side effects of tramadol are rare
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Side/Adverse Effects
- to minimize the side effects of headache, nausea, vomiting, and constipation.
- Nalaxone might only be moderately effective in reversing respiratory depression cause by Tramadol, so the best intervention is prevention.
- airway and suction equipment readily available as well as padding for the side rails and headboard.
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Interventions
- anticipate when patients will need their next dose in order to facilitate timely dosing that prevents recurrence of pain.
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Administration
- to minimize the risk of side effects such as respiratory depression.
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Patient Instructions
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Contraindications
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Precautions
4) Centrally Acting Nonopioids - Intereactions
Two type of opioid analgesics that support the treatment of pain.
Opioid agonist-antagonists
- may also cause sedation and reduce anxiety in preoperative patients.
- Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
- Meperidine (Demerol) - synthetic opioid once given to a regular basis for postoperative pain. It reacts with many other drugs. Not well tolerated by older adults. Usually only an option for patients who can't tolerate other opioids.
- Methadone (Dolophine) - synthetic opioid that's chemically similar to morphine, but it's only used primarily as a substitute for opioids in drug abuse programs. Blocks the euphoric effects of opioids and reduces craving in people addicted to a drug in this group.
- Codeine, Oxycodone (OxyCotin, Percodan)
- Hydrocodone (Vicodin, Lortab)
- Analgesia
- Sedation
- Euphoria
- Respiratory depression
- because they decrease intestinal motility
- due to dilating effects on peripheral vasculature.
- due to decreasing the patient's perception that the bladder is full
- unless given a suppress coughing as part of a treatment regimen for an upper respiratory infection.
- due to the euphoria that occurs secondary to stimulation of the MU receptors.
- requiring larger doses to achieve the usual effect.
- due to the risk of dizziness and orthostatic hypotension, encourage patients to rise slowly from a reclining or sitting position to prevent falls.
is an extreme elevation of body temperature which, depending upon the source, is classified as a core body temperature greater than or equal to 40.0 or 41.5 °C (104.0 or 106.7 °F).
Hyperpyrexia
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists
- Butorphanol - only available as an injectable or nasal spray
- Pentazocine (Talwin) - available in oral form
- Buprenorphine (Buprenex) -
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Prototype/Other Drugs
- Fewer MU related side effects (respiratory depression, euphoria, dependence)
- Milder analgesic effects
- Can precipitate withdrawal in patients addicted to opioids
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Expected Pharmacologic Action
- avoid using in patients who have a disorder that affects cardiac output.
- may occur in patients who become depended on one of these drugs.
- withdrawal is less severe than that experienced by opioid-dependent patients
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Side/Adverse Effects
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Interventions
- given orally
- often used when an invasive route is not warranted
- also often used when patients take the drug as part of home pain management.
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Administration
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Patient Instructions
patients should not take Nutorphanol or Pentazocine if they have either of the above contraindications.
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Contraindications
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Precautions
- barbiturates
- Phenobarbital
- Benzodiazepines
- Alcohol
II. Opioid agonist-antagonists - Interactions
Various effects of Opioid that can be reversed or counteracted
- Respiratory depression
- Overdose
- Constipation
- Euphoria
Opioid Antagonists
- Nalaxone - relieves opioid related constipation.
- Methylnaltrexone (Rlistor)
- Naltrexone (ReVia, Vivitrol) - prevents the euphoric effects of oipiods for patients addicted to opioid agonists
Opioid Antagonists - Prototype/Other Drugs
- effectively reversing or antagonizing the effects of opioids
Opioid Antagonists - Expected Pharmacologic Action
Opioid Antagonists - Side/Adverse Effects
Opioid Antagonists - Side/Adverse Effects
Opioid Antagonists - Administration
Opioid Antagonists - Patient Instructions
- patient should not take Naloxone
- Naloxone has no effect on drugs that are not opioids
Opioid Antagonists - Contraindications
Opioid Antagonists - Precautions
Opioid Antagonists - Interactions
Two Categories of Drugs that support the treatment of inflammation
Uricosurics
Gout
Hyperuricemia
- Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- Febuxostat (Uloric)
- Probenecid
Colchicine used to treat hyperuricemia for many years, but newer drugs with fewer side effects eventually replaced the use of this drug.
Opioid Antagonists - Prototype/Other Drugs
- Xanthin Oxidase (XO) inhibited (from converting hypocanthine and xanthine into uric acid)
- Block formation of uric acid
- Inhibits tubular reabsorption of uric acid in the kidney
- Promotes excretion of uric acid
Opioid Antagonists - Expected Pharmacologic Action
- fever, rash, eosinophilia (increase in the eosinophils, a white blood cell) , liver and kidney dysfunction
- nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
- with drug therapy longer than 3 yrs
Opioid Antagonists - Side/Adverse Effects
- patients who just starting to take Uricosuric
- patients who've been taking one for 2 to 4 weeks
- IF fever or rash develops, stop the drug immediately, check liver and kidney function test, and notify the provider.
- give the drug after meal
Opioid Antagonists - Interventions
- initially every 1 to 2 weeks to establish the appropriate dosage
Opioid Antagonists - Administration
- in relation to the potential for bone marrow suppression
- teach patients the early signs of cataract development
- wear sunglasses with ultraviolet (UV) protection
Opioid Antagonists - Patient Instructions
Opioid Antagonists - Contraindications
Opioid Antagonists - Precautions
- due to Allopurinol increases the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin
- mercaptopurine (Purinethol)
- Theorphylline (Theolair)
- Azathioprine (Imuran)
Opioid Antagonists - Interactions
- Inflammatory disorders
- Autoimmune disorders
Glucocorticoids
- Prednisone (Deltasone)
- Hydrocortisone Sodium Succinate (Solu-Cortef)
- Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Glucocorticoids - Prototype/Other Drugs
- Glucocorticoid: cortisol
- Mineralcoticoids: Aldosterone
- Inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins (decreases pain)
- Decreased permeability of capillaries (decrease swelling)
- Inhibits lysosomal activity (decreases inflammation)
- Decreases production of lymphocytes (decreases immune response)
NSAIDs were considered "non-steroidal" anti-inflammatory drugs because corticosteroids are the "steroidal" anti-inflammatory drugs to which the "non" in the NSAIDs acronym refers.
Glucocorticoids - Expected Pharmacologic Action
are hormonal steroids produced by the adrenal cortex, the outside covering of the adrenal glands that sit on top of the kidneys
Corticosteroids
Cortisol (glucocorticoinds)
Aldosterone (mineralocorticoids)
- because the adrenal gland no longer has produce its own cortisol.
- due to effect on carbohydrate metabolism
- due to the effect on protein metabolism
- due to glucocorticoids' ability to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
- due to suppressed immune system
- due to mineralocorticoid effects
- due to the effect on fat metabolism.
- increasing fat deposition in the face, torso, and upper back, and decreasing fat in the extremities. This combination results in truncal obesity with a moon face and buffalo hump.
- due to glucocorticoids ability to draw calcium out of the bones
- can cause osteoporosis
Glucocorticoids - Side/Adverse Effects
- bloody vomitus, black or tarry stools.
- Give drug with food or meals
- Recommend analgesic substitute if NSAID is prescribed
- sore throat, fatigue, tachycardia, and discharge from a wound.
Glucocorticoids - Interventions
Glucocorticoids - Administration
Glucocorticoids - Patient Instructions
Glucocorticoids - Contraindications
Glucocorticoids - Precautions
Glucocorticoids - Interactions
Analgesics
- NSAIDs (COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitors)
- NSAIDs (COX-2 inhibitors)
- Acetaminophen
- Centrally acting analgesics
- Opioid aganists
- Opioid agonist-antagonists
Anti-inflammatories
Summary: Pain and Inflammation Medication
D. Petechiae
Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can cause bleeding. Instruct the patient to watch for and report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, and coffee-ground emesis. Monitor coagulation studies as well. Aspirin helps prevent blood clots. A swollen, reddened, painful calf and shortness of breath are unlikely. Aspirin is more likely to nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea than constipation.
Drill 1:
A patient is about to start taking aspirin to prevent cardiovascular events. You should instruct the patient to watch for and report which of the following adverse effects of aspirin?
Ibuprofren (Advil) - B Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
Morphine - D - Opioid analgesic
Prednisone - A - Glucocorticoid
Naloxone - C - Opioid antagonist
Drill 2:
Match the drug in the left column with its classification in the right column by typing the appropriate letter in the center column.
Drill 3:
A patient is about to start taking oral morphine to treat acute pain from an injury. Which of the following instructions should you include when talking with the patient about taking morphine? (Select all that apply)
D. Increase serum glucose monitoring
Because prednisone can cause hyperglycemia, the primary provider should monitor the patient's serum glucose levels more frequently. The patient might need a higher insulin dose and might have to reduce his carbohydrate intake. The patient should watch for signs of hyperglycemia, such as polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia. Reducing the prednisone does may not reduce the risk for hyperglycemia.
Drill 4:
A provider prescribes prednisone for a patient who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Recognizing the risk for an adverse reaction to the prednisone, which of the following precautions should the provider take for this patient?
A. Allow 1 hr for it to take effect
Drill 5:
A patient is about to start Tramadol (Ultram) to treat moderate pain. Which of the following instructions should you include when talking with the patients about taking this drug?
B. Hyperuricemia
Drill 6:
A patient who is receiving chemotherapy take Allopurinol (Zyloprim) prior to the chemotherapy to reduce the risk for which of the following?
Butorphanol - C - Anesthesia adjunct
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) - D - Fever reduction
Prednisone - B - Prevention of organ rejection
Morphine - A - Sedation
Drill 7:
Match the drug in the left column with its classification in the right column by typing the appropriate letter in the center column.
C. Acetylcysteine (Acetadote)
Drill 8:
A patient arrives at the emergency room immediately following an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Which of the following drugs should you prepare to administer?
B. use a Fentanyl (Submilaze) patch for chronic pain
Drill 9:
Butorphamol is an unsafe analgesic choice for patients who
A. Black, tarry stools
Drill 10:
A patient is about to begin Celecoxib (Celebrex) theraphy for osteoarthritis. You should instruct the patient to watch and report which of the following possible indications of a serious reaction to this drug?
C) Morphine
Naloxone, an opioid antagonist, reverses the effects of morphine, an opioid analgesic. Health care professionals should monitor respirations and reassess patients after the effects of naloxone have diminished (20 to 40 min) for recurrence of the adverse effects of morphine
A health care professional should understand that naloxone can reverse the effects of an excessive dosage of which of the following drugs?
A) Aspirin
B) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C)
Morphine
D) Prednisone
D) Hypokalemia
Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can cause hypokalemia. The risk for this electrolyte imbalance increases with potassium-depleting diuretics, such as furosemide. Health care professionals should monitor potassium levels of patients who are taking both drugs or recommend the primary care provider prescribe a safer combination.
A health care professional is caring for a patient who takes furosemide (Lasix)
and is about to begin taking prednisone to treat
inflammatory bowel disease. The health care professional should
monitor the patient for which of the following results of concurrent
use of the two drugs?
A) Hypercalcemia
B)
Hypoglycemia
C) Hypothermia
D) Hypokalemia
A) Chest pain
Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, can cause cardiovascular or cerebrovascular events. Patients should report chest pain, shortness of breath, headache, numbness, weakness, or confusion. Primary care providers should prescribe the lowest effective dosage for the shortest time period possible.
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking celecoxib (Celebrex) to treat rheumatoid arthritis. The health care professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse reactions?
A) Chest pain
B) Tinnitus
C) Constipation
D) Diaphoresis
B) "Ibuprofen will reduce the antiplatelet effects of low-dose aspirin."
Ibuprofen, an NSAID, reduces the antiplatelet effects of low-dose aspirin. Patients taking low-dose aspirin for its antiplatelet effects should not take ibuprofen.
A patient who takes low-dose aspirin to prevent cardiovascular events asks a health care professional about taking ibuprofen (Advil) to treat rheumatoid arthritis. The health care professional should respond with which of the following statements?
A) "Ibuprofen will increase the risk for
salicylism."
B) "Ibuprofen will reduce the
antiplatelet effects of low-dose aspirin."
C)
"Low-dose aspirin will reduce the anti-inflammatory effects of
ibuprofen."
D) "Low-dose aspirin will reduce the
analgesic effects of ibuprofen."
B) Sore throat
C) Vertigo
D) Bruising
E) Vision changes
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking allopurinol (Zyloprim) to prevent hyperuricemia. The health care professional should advise the patient to report which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Palpitations
B) Sore throat
C) Vertigo
D)
Bruising
E) Vision changes
B) Vomiting
D) Abdominal
cramps
E) Hypertension
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is opioid-dependent and is about to begin taking butorphanol (Stadol). The health care professional should recognize the patient is at risk for developing a syndrome that causes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bronchospasm
B) Vomiting
C) Peripheral edema
D) Abdominal cramps
E) Hypertension
C) Bone loss
Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can cause osteoporosis, especially with long-term use. Patients taking the drug should increase weight-bearing activity and report back pain. Health care professionals should monitor bone density.
A health care professional is caring for an older adult patient who is about to begin taking prednisone for long-term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The health care professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Hepatitis
C) Bone loss
D) Breast cancer
A) Tachypnea
B) Increased
pain
D) Tachycardia
E)
Hypertension
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is taking naloxone to treat a morphine overdose. The health care professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tachypnea
B) Increased pain
C)
Thrombophlebitis
D) Tachycardia
E) Hypertension
A) Diaphoresis
D) Nausea
E) Diarrhea
A patient recovering from a total knee arthroplasty has been prescribed acetaminophen (Tylenol) for mild discomfort that does not require an opioid. The health care professional should tell the patient to report which of the following early indications of acetaminophen overdose? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diaphoresis
B) Palpitations
C) Shortness of
breath
D) Nausea
E) Diarrhea
C) Weight gain
Aspirin use can cause renal dysfunction, especially in older adults and patients who have pre-existing renal or liver dysfunction and heart failure. Patients should report reduced urine output, weight gain, edema, or bloating. Health care professionals should monitor BUN and creatinine values, and stop aspirin therapy for patients who develop signs of renal dysfunction.
A health care professional is caring for an older adult patient who is about to begin taking aspirin to treat an ankle sprain. The health care professional should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse reactions?
A) Polyuria
B) Bone pain
C) Weight gain
D) Infection
A) Fever
Allopurinol, an antigout drug, can cause hypersensitivity syndrome. Patients should report rash, itching, or fever, as hypersensitivity reactions can lead to renal or liver dysfunction. Patients who develop this type of reaction should stop taking the drug.
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking allopurinol (Zyloprim) to treat gout. The health care professional should monitor the patient for hypersensitivity syndrome, which causes which of the following clinical manifestations?
A) Fever
B) Muscle pain
C) Anxiety
D) Tremors
B) Nausea
D) Dizziness
E) Headache
Nausea is correct. Butorphanol, an opioid agonist-antagonist, can cause nausea. Patients taking the drug should lie down when feeling nauseated.
Dizziness is correct. Butorphanol, an opioid agonist-antagonist, can cause dizziness and drowsiness. Patients taking the drug should avoid activities that require alertness.
Headache is correct. Butorphanol, an opioid agonist-antagonist, can cause headaches and increased intracranial pressure. Patients taking the drug should report severe headaches.
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking butorphanol for pain control. The health care professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Infection
B) Nausea
C) Tachycardia
D)
Dizziness
E) Headache
B) Discontinue the drug gradually.
C)
Report illness or infection.
D)
Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D.
E) Monitor for signs of gastric bleeding
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking prednisone to treat systemic lupus erythematosus. When talking with the patient about the drug, the health care professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduce the dose during periods of stress.
B) Discontinue
the drug gradually.
C) Report illness or infection.
D)
Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D.
E) Monitor for signs
of gastric bleeding
D) Cholecystectomy
Morphine can cause biliary colic. It is inappropriate for patients who have just had biliary tract surgery, such as a cholecystectomy.
A health care professional should question the use of morphine for a patient who is recovering from which of the following procedures?
A) Mastectomy
B) Knee arthroplasty
C) Cystoscopy
D) Cholecystectomy
A) To reduce fever
C) To relieve
mild pain
A health care professional should advise patients to take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) To reduce fever
B) To decrease inflammation
C) To
relieve mild pain
D) To promote sedation
E) To alleviate anxiety
B) Peptic ulcer disease
Ibuprofen, an NSAID, is inappropriate for patients who have peptic ulcer disease. Health care professionals should monitor patients who are taking over-the-counter analgesics for gastric bleeding, and test or treat patients who have Helicobacter pylori prior to long-term or repeated treatment with these drugs.
A health care professional should advise a patient who has which of the following to stop taking ibuprofen (Advil) to treat an occasional headache or muscle strain?
A) Penicillin allergy
B) Peptic ulcer disease
C)
Dysmenorrhea
D) Hyperthyroidism
D) Alcohol use disorder
Acetaminophen can cause liver toxicity. Patients who have a history of alcohol use disorder should not take the drug.
A health care professional should question the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for patients who have which of the following?
A) Asthma
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Heart failure
D) Alcohol use disorder
A) Phenobarbital (Luminal) for a seizure disorder
Taking morphine and phenobarbital together can cause increased CNS depression. Lower morphine doses are essential for patients who are taking phenobarbital. Health care professionals should monitor patients who are taking both drugs for decreased respirations and blood pressure and increased sedation.
A health care professional should question the use of morphine for a patient who is taking which of the following drugs?
A) Phenobarbital (Luminal) for a seizure disorder
B)
Warfarin (Coumadin) for anticoagulation
C) Glipizide
(Glucotrol) for diabetes mellitus
D) Alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis
A) Seizure disorder
Tramadol, a nonopioid analgesic, can cause seizure activity. Patients who have seizure disorders, head injuries, or increased intracranial pressure should not take the drug.
A health care professional should question the use of tramadol (Ultram) for patients who have which of the following?
A) Seizure disorder
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Rheumatoid
arthritis
D) Urinary incontinence
A) Fever
B) Tinnitus
C) Diaphoresis
E) Dizziness
A health care professional is caring for a patient who has osteoarthritis and is about to begin taking aspirin. The health care professional should tell the patient to report which of the following possible indications of salicylism? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Tinnitus
C) Diaphoresis
D)
Thrombophlebitis
E) Dizziness
B) Withhold the drug for respiratory rates below 12/min.
Butorphanol, an opioid agonist-antagonist, can cause respiratory depression. It is essential to monitor respiratory rate prior to administration and withhold the drug for rates below 12/min.
A health care professional is preparing for administer butorphanol (Stadol) to a patient for pain control. During administration, the health care professional should take which of the following actions?
A) Caution the patient about the drug's potential for abuse.
B) Withhold the drug for respiratory rates below 12/min.
C)
Administer one nasal spray into each nostril.
D) Give the drug
with an opioid agonist for maximal effects.
C) An allergy to sulfonamides
Patients who are allergic to sulfonamides can have severe allergic reactions to celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor. Patients who are allergic to salicylates can also react adversely to the drug
A health care professional should question the use of celecoxib (Celebrex) for a patient who has which of the following?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C)
An allergy to sulfonamides
D) Adrenocortical insufficiency
A) Increase fiber and fluid intake.
B)
Take the drug with food.
C) Avoid
driving after taking the drug.
D) Change
positions gradually.
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is about to begin taking tramadol (Ultram) to treat moderate acute pain from a shoulder injury. When talking with the patient about the drug, the health care professional should include which of the following instructions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase fiber and fluid intake.
B) Take the drug with
food.
C) Avoid driving after taking the drug.
D) Change
positions gradually.
E) Reduce exercise level temporarily.
B) Urinary retention
C) Respiratory
depression
D) Sedation
E)
Orthostatic hypotension
A health care professional is caring for a patient who is receiving morphine to relieve severe pain. The health care professional should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diarrhea
B) Urinary retention
C) Respiratory
depression
D) Sedation
E) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Aspirin
NSAIDs, especially aspirin, can increase the risk for Reye’s syndrome in children who have a viral infection, particularly chickenpox or influenza. Manifestations of Reye's syndrome include lethargy and persistent vomiting.
Which of the following drugs can increase the risk of Reye's syndrome in children who have viral infections?
A) Butorphanol (Stadol)
B) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C)
Tramadol (Ultram)
D) Aspirin
B. Identify and avoid trigger factors.
C. Lie down in a dark quiet room at the onset of a migraine.
D. Avoid foods that contain tyramine.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing
migraine
headaches. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.)
A. Take ergotamine as a prophylaxis to prevent a migraine
headache.
B. Identify and avoid trigger factors.
C. Lie down
in a dark quiet room at the onset of a migraine.
D. Avoid foods
that contain tyramine.
E. Avoid exercise that can increase heart rate.
A. Keep the client NPO until pharyngeal response returns.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is to receive tetracaine
prior
to a bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should
the nurse
include in the plan of care?
A. Keep the client NPO until pharyngeal response returns.
B.
Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
C. Palpate the bladder
to detect urinary retention.
D. Maintain the client on bed rest
for 12 hr fol
A. Seizures
A nurse is caring for a client who receives a local anesthetic
of
lidocaine during the repair of a skin laceration. For which of
the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?
A. Seizures
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Fever
D. An ECG indicates a first‑degree heart block.
A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who has migraine
headaches and is to begin prophylaxis therapy with propranolol. Which of
the following
findings in the client history should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
B. The client
takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
C. The client takes an
SSRI for depression.
D. An ECG indicates a first‑degree heart block.
C. Positive home pregnancy test
D. Numbness and tingling in fingers
E. Muscle pain
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has
migraine
headaches and a new prescription for ergotamine. For which
of the
following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the
client to stop
taking the medication and notify the provider?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Nausea
B. Visual disturbances
C. Positive home
pregnancy test
D. Numbness and tingling in fingers
E. Muscle pain
A. Dizziness
D. Tinnitus
E. Headache
A nurse is assessing a client who has salicylism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A. Dizziness
B. Diarrhea
C. Jaundice
D.
Tinnitus
E. Headache
A. Acetylcysteine
A nurse is admitting a toddler to the hospital after an acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Pegfilgrastim
C. Misoprostol
D. Naltrexone
A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
A nurse is teaching a client about the a new prescription
for
celecoxib.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
B. Decreases
the risk of stroke
C. Inhibits COX‑1
D. Increases platelet aggregation
C. Warfarin
A nurse is taking a history for a client who reports that he is
taking
aspirin about four times daily for a sprained wrist. Which
of the following
prescribed medications taken by the client is
contraindicated with aspirin?
A. Digoxin
B. Metformin
C. Warfarin
D. Nitroglycerin
D. Respiratory depression
A nurse in an emergency department is performing an admission
assessment for a client who has severe aspirin toxicity. Which of the
following findings
should the nurse expect?
A. Body temperature 35° C (95° F)
B. Lung crackles
C.
Cool, dry skin
D. Respiratory depression