Which of the following terms refers to the direction the x-ray beam travels?

A. Position

B. Projection

C. View

D. Decubitus

B. Projection

-The most commonly used projections are anterior-to-posterior and posterior-to-anterior. However, a submentovertex (full basal) projection describes the x-ray beam entering below the chin (mentum) and exiting through the vertex of the skull.

When using automatic exposure control (AEC), which of the following changes could be made to reduce the patient's entrance skin dose?

A. Increase kVp

B. Increase focal spot size

C. Decrease collimation

D. Decrease SID

A. Increase kVp

-Increasing kVp will allow more x rays to penetrate the patient so the exposure will shut off sooner, decreasing the patient's dose.

Which of the following anatomical areas would be included in a metastatic bone survey?

1. Ribs
2. Long bones
3. Spine
A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

C. 2 & 3 only

-A metastatic bone survey usually includes AP and lateral of all long bones, AP and lateral of the C, T and L spine and a lateral skull.

Which of the following physical signs and symptoms would indicate that a patient needs suctioning?

1. Gurgling sounds
2. Drooling
3. Facial paralysis
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 & 2 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1 & 2 only

-A patient that cannot swallow may need suctioning. Gurgling sounds and drooling are signs of an inability to swallow.

During which of the following examinations may high occupational exposure to the diagnostic radiographer occur?

A. Fluoroscopy, special procedures and extremity radiography

B. Mobile radiography, chest radiography and fluoroscopy

C. Fluoroscopy, mobile radiography and special procedures

D. Special procedures, fluoroscopy and skull radiography

C. Fluoroscopy, mobile radiography and special procedures

-Fluoroscopy and special procedures produce much scatter radiation and mobile radiographers may receive high exposures simply because of the lack of adequate shielding.

Which of the following is a component of a CR reader?

A. Laser

B. Light collecting system

C. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC)

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

In order to drive the electrons across the x-ray tube, which of the following must occur?

A. There must be at least 200 mA

B. The tube must have a rotating anode

C. The cathode is negatively charge and the anode is positively charged

D. The cathode is positively charge and the anode is negatively charged

C. The cathode is negatively charge and the anode is positively charged

While using automatic exposure control (AEC), the radiographer wants to increase the exposure of the previous radiograph. Which of the following would need to be done?

A. Increase mA

B. Increase kVp

C. Increase the back-up time

D. Increase the density control

D. Increase the density control

-AEC's have a series of buttons to allow for increasing or decreasing the exposure at the option of the radiographer. They are typically labeled -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3 or 1/4, 1/2, N, 1 1/4, 1 1/2. 0 and N are the settings for a normal exposure.

Arrange the following organs in order, from most radiosensitive to least radiosensitive.

1. Liver
2. Brain
3. Testes

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 1

C. 3, 1, 2

D. 1, 3, 2

C. 3, 1, 2

-The male spermatogonia are most sensitive and nerve cells are least sensitive.

Which of following examinations would involve the greatest exposure and therefore, be considered the highest risk for female patients?

A. Abdomen

B. Chest

C. Lumbar spine

D. Skull

C. Lumbar spine

-According to the Bureau of Radiation Health, the dose to the ovaries during a lumbar spine exam is 721 mR. A barium enema, however, is considered the highest risk at 903 mR/exam.

How much radiation will be received from an exposure of 200 mA, .5 second at 76 kVp, if the x-ray machine emits 3 mR/mAs?

A. 100 mR

B. 200 mR

C. 300 mR

D. 760 mR

C. 300 mR

-200 mA times .5 second equals 100 mAs. 100 mAs times 3 mR/mAs equals 300 mR.

The symbol to the right is a warning that the material in the container is which of the following?

A. Radioactive waste

B. Flammable

C. Chemical waste

D. Biohazardous waste

D. Biohazardous waste

-This symbol is a warning that the contents are a biological material that threatens humans or their environment.

Which of the following radiographic devices should be routinely used to reduce patient radiation exposure?

A. Grids

B. Tomography

C. Fluoroscopy

D. Automatic exposure control (AEC)

D. Automatic exposure control (AEC)

-Accurately calibrated and accurately used, automatic exposure control (AEC) will reduce overall exposure to the patient by taking the guess work out of setting techniques. When using AEC, patient size and patient pathology do not have to be so accurately evaluated.

What is the purpose of having aluminum filters in a film badge type dosimeter?

A. To absorb high energy x rays

B. To hold the film in place

C. To prevent scatter radiation from fogging the film

D. To estimate radiation energy

D. To estimate radiation energy

-There are at least two filters in a film badge type dosimeter. They are there to help estimate the energy of the radiation that struck the badge. In this way they can tell if it was secondary (scatter or leakage), primary or gamma radiation that exposed the user.

Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the patient was overexposed?

A. 2.2

B. 2000

C. 100

D. 200

C. 100

-Fuji's perfect sensitivity number is 200. Anything below that would indicate an overexposure, since the S-number is inversely proportional to the exposure. 100 indicates the patient received twice the necessary exposure.

Which bones make up the elbow joint?

A. Radius and ulna

B. Radius and humerus

C. Radius, ulna and humerus

D. Capitulum, trochlea and radial head

C. Radius, ulna and humerus

-The elbow joint is made up of articulations between the forearm (radius and ulna) and the upper arm (humerus).

You have become aware that a co-worker has been stealing surgery scrubs and taking them home to lounge around in. You have even heard that she has a pair on her scarecrow in her garden. You think that she may have been warned about this once before and that she promised to stop. You have just seen a part of a scrub sticking out of her backpack as she left work. Which of the following is the appropriate response?

A. Do not say anything to anyone.

B. Remind your co-worker that surgery scrubs are not supposed to be removed from the hospital.

C. Politely, tell your co-worker that you will inform the department manager the next time you catch her stealing.

D. Inform your other co-workers that she is a thief.

B. Remind your co-worker that surgery scrubs are not supposed to be removed from the hospital.

-The stealing has to stop, but you do not want to accuse your co-worker of stealing.

Which of the following can be used to reduce patient exposure since CR systems require more exposure than film-screen systems?

1. Use higher kVp
2. Increase beam filtration
3. Use automatic exposure control (AEC)
A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

-The contrast in digital images is controlled by look-up tables. Therefore, higher kVp and more beam filtration can be used to lower exposure. AEC reduces repeats by taking the guess work out of technique selection.

Which of the following is a relationship between x-ray beam intensity and distance?

A. Faraday's law

B. Planck's radiation law

C. Inverse square law

D. Quantum physics

C. Inverse square law

-The inverse square law is used to determine the intensity of the x-ray beam at various distances.

The triangular space at the junction of the diaphragm and lateral chest wall is known as what?

A. Costophrenic angle

B. Mediastinum

C. Apex of lung

D. Hiatus

A. Costophrenic angle

-This is an important angle because this is where fluid might be visualized on a chest image .

The brightness of a digital image affects which of the following?

A. Sharpness of detail

B. Visibility of detail

C. Distortion

D. Exposure

B. Visibility of detail

-Exposure, brightness and contrast affect the visibility of detail. Spatial resolution and distortion affect the sharpness of detail.

When charting drug information, which of the following is NOT necessary?

A. Name of drug

B. Gauge of needle used

C. Route of administration

D. Date and time

B. Gauge of needle used

-The amount of the drug would also have to be documented.

If the infraorbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor for an AP axial (Towne) projection of the skull, how much caudad angle is required?

A. 25 degrees

B. 30 degrees

C. 37 degrees

D. 45 degrees

C. 37 degrees

-Most patients are unable to depress their chin enough to get the OML perpendicular to the image receptor as the AP axial (Towne) projection requires (30 degree caudad angle). They can usually get the IOML perpendicular (37 degrees). The AP axial (Towne) projection is used for the skull and mandible series.

Which of the following radiographic qualities affects the sharpness of details of a digital image?

A. Receptor exposure and contrast

B. Spatial resolution and distortion

C. Receptor exposure and spatial resolution

D. Contrast and distortion

B. Spatial resolution and distortion

-The sharpness of details are improved when spatial resolution is increased and distortion is decreased.

In the abdomen diagram to the right, the letter "X" is located next to which anatomical structure?

A. Ascending colon

B. Descending colon

C. Transverse colon

D. Sigmoid colon

B. Descending colon

-You need to be able to identify all of the structures in the diagram.

What term describes introducing contrast media against the normal flow?

A. Bolus

B. Retrograde

C. Intravenous

D. Proximal

B. Retrograde

-During retrograde pyelography, contrast is injected into the ureter via a catheter and it travels up into the pelvis of the kidney.

How will an air-gap technique affect contrast?

A. Produce a longer scale of contrast

B. Produce a shorter scale of contrast

C. Contrast will be eliminated

D. Contrast will remain the same

B. Produce a shorter scale of contrast

-The air-gap technique is an alternative to using a grid. The scatter radiation that would normally fog the image receptor and produce a longer scale of contrast, actually misses the image receptor because of the increased OID. Therefore, a shorter scale of contrast is produced.

According to the legal theory of respondeat superior, which of the following statements is true?

A. The radiographer is responsible for his/her superior's negligence.

B. The hospital is responsible for the radiographer's negligence.

C. The radiologist is superior to the radiographer.

D. The radiographer is the only one responsible for his/her negligence

B. The hospital is responsible for the radiographer's negligence.

-The respondeat superior theory claims that the physician or health care organization is responsible for the negligence of its employees.

For which of the following radiographic procedures would a small focal spot be essential?

A. Chest radiography

B. Magnification radiography

C. Cholecystography

D. IVU

B. Magnification radiography

-When a part is magnified it loses spatial resolution (becomes unsharp), one way to compensate for this is using the small focal spot.

Part angulation will produce which of the following types of shape distortion?

A. Magnification

B. Minification

C. Foreshortening

D. Elongation

C. Foreshortening

-Tube angulation causes elongation, part angulation causes foreshortening.

Which of the following is considered the unit of heredity?

A. The cell

B. The gene

C. The chromosome

D. The DNA molecule

B. The gene

-Genes are considered the basic unit of heredity. They are located within the chromosome and can be dominant or recessive.

What does it mean to administer drugs parenterally?

A. By injection or I.V.

B. Orally

C. Rectally

D. All of the above

A. By injection or I.V

-Parenteral actually means not intestinal; other than by way of the intestines.

What are the first physical signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to contrast medium?

1. Apprehension
2. Itching, sneezing
3. Tightness in the chest
A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

-Anaphylaxis is a life-threating condition that is caused by a hypersensitivity to a drug or other substance.

Photostimulable phosphor plates CANNOT be cleaned with water because:

A. water cannot penetrate the protective coating.

B. water will dissolve the photostimulable phosphor.

C. water will discolor the plates causing artifacts.

D. water will cause the latent image to leak out.

C. water will discolor the plates causing artifacts.

-Photostimulable phosphor plates can only be cleaned with anhydrous ethyl alcohol. Anhydrous means lacking water.

Which of the following can cause saturation in a digital image?

A. Low kVp

B. High mAs

C. Overexposure

D. Underexposure

C. Overexposure

-Saturation is the result of too many x rays striking the image receptor. The image receptor would be overexposed.

What factors must be considered when determining the thickness requirements for protective barriers?

1. Distance from the x-ray source to the barrier
2. Who will occupy the area on the other side of the barrier
3. What type of radiographic procedures will be done in the area
A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

-The most important of these three is "who will occupy the area on the other side of the barrier". If it is the general public, then the protection must be higher than if it was occupied by radiation workers.

What is it called when air enters the pleural space?

A. Pleural effusion

B. Hemothorax

C. Pneumothorax

D. Pneumogram

C. Pneumothorax

-A pneumothorax is air (pneum) in the thoracic cavity (thorax).

The American Heart Association's guidelines for CPR emphasizes at least _______ chest compressions per minute.

A. 25

B. 50

C. 100

D. 200

C. 100

-The terminology changed from "approximately 100" to "at least 100".

When using automatic exposure control (AEC), equipped with three ionization chambers, which ionization chamber(s) should be activated when doing a PA chest?

A. Center chamber

B. Right lateral chamber

C. Both lateral chambers

D. All three chambers

C. Both lateral chambers

-By using the lateral chambers, they are placed within the lobes of the lung and away from the mediastinum.

Which of the following pathologies are well visualized on a double contrast barium enema?

A. Cholecystitis

B. Hiatal hernia

C. Polyps

D. Gastritis

C. Polyps

-Detecting polyps early is the key to preventing colon cancer.

During the gestation period, a pregnant radiographer should NOT receive more than _______ per month.

A. .05 msv

B. .10 msv

C. .50 msv

D. 1.0 msv

C. .50 msv

-The fetus is not allowed more than .005 sv per year or .5 msv per month.

Where does the central ray enter for a PA projection of the hand?

A. 3rd carpometacarpal joint

B. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint

C. 3rd interphalangeal joint

D. 3rd proximal carpal joint

B. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint

-The entire hand, wrist and distal forearm should be included on a PA hand image.

Characteristic x rays result when:

A. high speed electrons are slowed down or stopped.

B. a tungsten K-shell electron is ejected and an L-shell electron replaces it.

C. the filament is heated to 2300 degrees Celsius.

D. the x-ray tube vacuum is lost.

B. a tungsten K-shell electron is ejected and an L-shell electron replaces it

-When an L-shell electron replaces a K-shell electron a 57.4 keV x ray is produced.

What is another name for the first cervical vertebra?

A. Odontoid

B. Arch

C. Axis

D. Atlas

D. Atlas

-Atlas was a mythological Greek god who held the world on his shoulders. The 1st cervical (atlas) holds the weight of the skull.

Which of the following describes a compound fracture?

A. The broken bone pierces the skin

B. The break involves a joint

C. The bone is in many small pieces

D. The fracture is in the skull

A. The broken bone pierces the skin

-When a bone is splintered or crushed into many pieces it is known as a comminuted fracture.

Which of the following is appropriate when radiographing a patient with a newly fractured forearm?

1. Remove the splint
2. Support the wrist and elbow joints
3. Notify the patient before moving the injured forearm
A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

C. 2 & 3 only

-Do not remove the splint without the permission of the physician.

Each cell of an image matrix is called what?

A. A square

B. A pixel

C. An element

D. A byte

B. A pixel

-Pixel stands for "picture element". In digital x-ray imaging the value of the pixel determines the pixel's brightness.

With all other exposure factors remaining the same, which of the following field sizes will result in a radiograph with the highest contrast?

A. 20 cm x 24 cm

B. 24 cm x 30 cm

C. 28 cm x 35 cm

D. 35 cm x 43 cm

A. 20 cm x 24 cm

-The smaller field size will produce less scatter radiation, resulting in higher contrast.

Which of the following is an example of good body mechanics?

A. Turn at the waist

B. Carry objects at arms' length

C. Keep back straight

D. Keep feet close together

C. Keep back straight

-Turn your feet not your waist, keep objects close to your body, and use a wide stance to keep your balance.

What is a study of unacceptable radiographs called?

A. Reject analysis

B. Witch hunting

C. Image evaluation

D. Waste summary

A. Reject analysis

-An analysis of the rejected radiographs in a department can be very helpful in determining equipment problems, radiographers' skills, or accuracy of technique charts and/or automatic exposure control (AEC).

In digital imagig, Nyquist is referring to which of the following?

A. The efficiency of the flat-panel detector

B. The accuracy of the histogram

C. The sampling frequency of the digital data

D. The brightness of the laser beam

C. The sampling frequency of the digital data

-The Nyquist frequency for most manufacturers samples data every 170 micrometers.

What is the condition found in older women that involves the gradual loss of calcium from the bones?

A. Osteoporosis

B. Osteosarcoma

C. Osteogenesis

D. Osteosclerosis

A. Osteoporosis

-Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by a loss of bone density. The condition that leaves elderly women susceptible to fractures is called senile osteoporosis. It is a result of a lack of estrogen, which is necessary to stimulate production of new osteoblasts.

How much must the CR be angled for a carpal canal (tunnel) projection of the wrist if the long axis of the fingers and metacarpals are vertical to the cassette?

A. 15 degrees

B. 30 degrees

C. 45 degrees

D. 60 degrees

B. 30 degrees

-The carpal canal (tunnel) projection is becoming popular since carpal tunnel syndrome is common among computer keyboard operators.

Which position/projection of the elbow demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition?

A. AP

B. 45 degree medial rotation

C. 45 degree lateral rotation

D. Lateral

C. 45 degree lateral rotation

-A 45 degree lateral rotation, should visualize the radial head, radial neck, and radial tubercle free of superimposition.

Which of the following make up a person's self-image?

A. Self-esteem

B. Body image

C. Current role

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

-How a person sees himself/herself is important to how he/she communicates with other people.

Which of the following digital imaging practices will assure the ALARA principle is accomplished?

A. Monitoring exposure indicators

B. Increasing kVp 15% so mAs can be reduced 50%

C. Precise collimation rather than cropping

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

-Digital imaging needs to be done the correct way in order to assure the ALARA principle is accomplished.

Which of the following imaging modalities does NOT use x ray to produce the image?

A. Bone densitometry

B. Computed tomography

C. Sonography

D. Mammography

C. Sonography

-Sonography uses sound waves and their echoes to produce images.

What does the clavicle articulate with medially?

A. Acromion of scapula

B. Coracoid process

C. Manubrium of sternum

D. Body of sternum

C. Manubrium of sternum

-The clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum to form the sternoclavicular joint.

It is recommended that the signature of a patient on an informed consent form should be witnessed by which of the following individuals?

A. The radiographer doing the procedure

B. The radiologist responsible for the procedure

C. A family member of the patient

D. A healthcare worker who is not involved in the procedure

D. A healthcare worker who is not involved in the procedure

-It is common practice that the radiographer performing the procedure witnesses the signature, but that is not what is recommended.

What is the effective dose limit for a non-radiation worker?

A. 2.5 mSv/year

B. 5.0 mSv/year

C. 12 mSv/year

D. 25 mSv/year

B. 5.0 mSv/year

-According to NCRP #116, the public can receive 1/10 of the occupational limit

Federal regulations for stationary fluoroscopy state that the target-to-tabletop distance should NOT be less than how many inches?

A. 6"

B. 15"

C. 18"

D. 24"

B. 15"

-To prevent excessive low energy radiation exposure to the patient, the distance should not be less than 15".

How much mAs will be generated if the control panel is set at 400 mA and .2 seconds?

A. 20 mAs

B. 40 mAs

C. 60 mAs

D. 80 mAs

D. 80 mAs

-mAs is determined by multiplying mA times seconds. 400 mA x .2 seconds = 80 mAs

Which of the following must be done for a properly positioned AP projection of the ankle?

A. Ankle joint flexed

B. Tube angled 10 degrees cephalad

C. Plantar surface touching the image receptor

D. All of the above

A. Ankle joint flexed

-The ankle joint must be flexed, the CR perpendicular to the joint and the plantar surface of the foot perpendicular to the image receptor to clearly see the ankle joint.

Children have a greater sensitivity to radiation than adults. Which of the following should be done to keep radiation exposure to children to a minimum?

A. Do not use anti-scatter grids

B. Collimate more precisely

C. Use a pediatric filter

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

-All of the above should be considered for pediatric patients.

How far must a radiographer stand back during a mobile radiographic exposure?

A. 1 meter

B. 2 meters

C. 3 meters

D. 4 meters

B. 2 meters

-The radiographer should stand at least 2 meters (6 feet) away from the patient and the x-ray tube to avoid scatter and leakage radiation.

When a patient is lying on his back, he is said to be in which position?

A. Proximal

B. Lateral

C. Supine

D. Median

C. Supine

-The supine position simply means the patient is lying on his back.

An intoxicated patient and his intoxicated friend are belligerent and making it difficult for you to complete the radiographic procedure. What must you do?

A. Stop the procedure and send them home

B. Get adequate help to subdue the two

C. Separate the two and get assistance to finish the procedure

D. Refuse to complete the exam

C. Separate the two and get assistance to finish the procedure

-Radiographing intoxicated patients is difficult but the emergency room is full of them on Saturday night and some of them need radiographic procedures.

A slight RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of which of the following?

A. The heart shadow

B. The hilum

C. The larger left lung

D. The pulmonary vessels

A. The heart shadow

-The idea is to project the sternum over the homogenous heart shadow so it is more visible.

The patient is prone, the knee is slowly flexed to form a 55 degree angle from the table, the CR is angled 45 degrees and directed to the patellofemoral joint. Which position of the patella does this describe?

A. Hughston

B. Merchant

C. Settegast

D. Grashey

A. Hughston

-This is a tangential projection of the patella and the patellofemoral joint.

A position of the chest, with the left scapula nearest the image receptor, and the thorax rotated 45 degrees is known as what position?

A. LAO

B. LPO

C. RAO

D. RPO

B. LPO

-Since the left, posterior side is nearest the image receptor it is called a left posterior oblique (LPO).

What is the name of the proximal, funnel shaped portion of the ureter called?

A. Cortex

B. Medulla

C. Renal pelvis

`D. Calyx

C. Renal pelvis

-Renal pyramids drain into minor calyces which drain into major calyces which drain into the renal pelvis which drains into the ureter.

When checking the safety of protective leaded apparel with a calibrated test object on a cassette, which of the following is correct?

A. The test object is lighter than the apron.

B. The test object is darker than the apron.

C. The test object should not be visualized.

D. The apron should not be visualized.

B. The test object is darker than the apron

-With the leaded apron and test object side-by-side, the leaded apron is considered safe if it is lighter than the test object. If it was darker, it would mean it was letting to much radiation through.

What is the medical term for a collapsed lung?

A. Pleural effusion

B. Pneumothorax

C. Atelectasis

D. Hemothorax

C. Atelectasis

-Atelectasis is a collapsed or airless condition of the lung.

Adding text digitally to an image is known as:

A. identifying.

B. annotating.

C. digitizing.

D. legalizing.

B. annotating.

-Annotation is used to add critical commentary or explanatory data (e.g., "right lateral decubitus").

Fainting is a common medical emergency in the Imaging Department. If a patient appears to be about to faint, what is the first thing you must do?

A. Call for help

B. Administer oxygen

C. Lie the patient down

D. Call a code

C. Lie the patient down

-Lack of sleep, anxiety, and hunger are some reasons why people faint. It is caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain. Simply lie the patient down until they feel better and then inform the patient's physician or nurse. It needs to be part of their medical record.

An increase in beam filtration will have which of the following effects?

A. A higher energy useful beam will be produced

B. A lower energy useful beam will be produced

C. Less x rays will be produced

D. Useful beam energy will not be affected

A. A higher energy useful beam will be produced

-As beam filtration is increased, lower energy x rays are absorbed. This produces a useful beam with higher energy.

Which of the following will have an effect on the size of the effective focal spot?

A. Size of focusing cup

B. Size of tungsten disk

C. Size of filament wire

D. Distance between cathode and anode

C. Size of filament wire

-Each x-ray tube has two filament wires, one large and one small. The large filament wire will produce a larger effective focal spot than the smaller one will.

What position/projection is demonstrated on this radiograph?

A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection

B. PA axial (Caldwell) projection

C. AP axial (Towne) projection

D. Axial oblique projection

A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projectioN

-The parietoacanthial (Waters) projection is used to demonstrate the inferior orbital rim, maxillae and maxillary sinuses, zygomatic arches, nasal septum, and the anterior nasal spine

What are the lateral projections on a typical vertebra called?

A. Spinous processes

B. Articular processes

C. Transverse processes

D. Pedicles

C. Transverse processes

-The transverse processes project laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae.

Which of the following projections are taken to demonstrate the tempromandibular joints?

A. Open and closed mouth axiolateral (modified Law) projection

B. PA and parientoacanthial (Waters) projection

C. PA axial (Caldwell) projection and parientoacanthial (Waters) projection

D. PA and posterior profile (Stenvers) projection

A. Open and closed mouth axiolateral (modified Law) projection

-The open and closed mouth axiolateral (modified Law) projection demonstrates the movement of the condyle within the mandibular fossa.

Which of the following bones is the longest?

A. 1st metacarpal

B. 2nd metacarpal

C. Ulna

D. Radius

C. Ulna

-The ulna and the radius make up the bones of the forearm. The ulna is longer than the radius.

While working with a geriatric patient, which of the following should be checked while doing an imaging procedure?

A. Limb color

B. Distal pulses

C. Temperature

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

-This is especially true during trauma cases.

An AP axial projection of the rectosigmoid segment of the large intestine requires the central ray to be angled:

A. 10 - 20 degrees caudad.

B. 10 - 20 degrees cephalad.

C. 30 - 40 degrees caudad.

D. 30 - 40 degrees cephalad.

D. 30 - 40 degrees cephalad

-A 30 - 40 degrees cephalad angle will provide an elongated rectosigmoid segment of the large intestine.

A large radiation dose to the gastrointestinal tract could result in which of the following symptoms?

1. Nausea
2. Vomiting
3. Diarrhea
A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

-The lining of the gastrointestinal tract divides very rapidly and is considered radiosensitive.

What is the name of the groove between the lesser and greater tubercles of the humerus?

A. Trochlear

B. Humeral

C. Bicipital

D. Surgical

C. Bicipital

-The bicipital groove is also known as the intertubercular groove.

Which of the following is examined during endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?

A. Biliary/pancreatic ducts

B. Pyloric sphincter

C. Pyloric antrum

D. Duodenum

A. Biliary/pancreatic ducts

-More commonly known as an ERCP.

Discussing a patient's medical records with anyone NOT directly involved in the patient's care is referred to as what?

A. Libel

B. Slander

C. Breach of confidentiality

D. Defamation of character

C. Breach of confidentiality

-The HIPAA laws are very strict as to the confidentiality of a patient's medical information.

When manipulating a digital image, what does changing the window level do?

A. Changes the brightness of the image

B. Changes the contrast of the image

C. Changes the resolution of the image

D. Changes the size of the image

A. Changes the brightness of the image

-Increasing the window level increases the brightness of the image.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of computed radiography (CR) compared to conventional radiographs?

A. Decreased spatial resolution

B. Decreased repeat rate

C. Decreased latitude

D. Decreased workflow

A. Decreased spatial resolution

-The spatial resolution is not as good with CR, but the contrast resolution and exposure latitude makes up for the loss of details.

Which vertebrae have transverse foramen?

A. Cervical

B. Thoracic

C. Lumbar

D. Sacral

A. Cervical

-The cervical vertebrae have a hole in each transverse process called a transverse foramen. These foramen allow for the passage of the vertebral arteries and veins, which transports blood to and from the posterior brain.

Which of the following can occur when the central ray is NOT aligned perpendicular to the image receptor?

1. Image improperly positioned
2. Collimating off critical anatomy
3. Distortion
A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. 2 & 3 only

C. 1 & 3 only

-Collimating off critical anatomy can occur when the collimator's light field does not match the radiation field?

If a pregnant patient must have a radiographic examination of the chest, which of the following would provide the greatest protection for the fetus?

A. Limiting beam restriction to just the area of the chest

B. Removing the grid

C. Using a high kVp technique

D. Shielding the abdomen front and back

D. Shielding the abdomen front and back

-All of the above are great radiation protection measures that should be taken when radiographing a pregnant patient. However, proper shielding of the abdomen is a must.

What type of transmission of infection occurs with tuberculosis?

A. Contact

B. Vector

C. Fomite

D. Airborne

D. Airborne

-Very few pathogens are transmitted through the air, tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen.

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the left colic (splenic) flexure?

A. LAO

B. RAO

C. Supine

D. AP axial

A. LAO

-The LAO position will demonstrate the left colic flexure opened without significant superimposition.

What is the cumulative effective dose limit for a 30 year old radiation worker?

A. 30 mSv

B. 50 mSv

C. 300 mSv

D. 500 mSv

C. 300 mSv

-NCRP #116 recommends that an individual's rem bank cannot exceed his/her age.

Where is the larynx located?

A. Between the nasopharynx and oropharynx

B. Between the hard palate and soft palate

C. Between the thyroid gland and trachea

D. Between the epiglottis and trachea

D. Between the epiglottis and trachea

-The larynx is also called the voice box

Which component of the television monitor transfers the video signal into a visible image?

A. Electron beam

B. Aluminum reflector

C. Anode

D. Fluorescent screen

D. Fluorescent screen

-The fluorescent screen of the television monitor is struck by the electron beam and converted to light photons which allow us to see the fluoroscopic image.

What must the radiographer do to correct a radiograph that had the proper brightness but demonstrated excessive quantum noise?

A. Increase kVp, decrease mAs and leave all other factors the same

B. Decrease kVp, increase mAs and leave all other factors the same

C. Change to a slower speed class and leave all other factors the same

D. Decrease SID and leave all other factors the same

B. Decrease kVp, increase mAs and leave all other factors the same

-Quantum noise is the result of too few x rays striking the receptor exposure, causing a grainy appearance on the image. To correct this, the radiographer must increase the mAs (to produce more x rays) and decrease the kVp to maintain the same brightness.

Which of the following positions/projections should be done if the patient has a suspected hip fracture?

A. AP and PA

B. AP and Cleaves method

C. AP and cross-table (horizontal beam) lateral hip

D. Internal and external rotation

C. AP and cross-table (horizontal beam) lateral hip

-Since the hip cannot be moved, an AP and cross-table (horizontal beam) lateral hip are the only options.

When the patient is supine, which part of the stomach is well filled with barium?

A. Pylorus

B. Body

C. Fundus

D. Rugae

C. Fundus

-The fundus is most posterior, therefore, when the patient is supine it will fill.

After an IV injection, how should the contaminated needle be placed in the sharps container?

A. Remove the needle from the syringe and place the needle in the container

B. Recap the needle and place the needle with syringe in the container

C. Do not recap the needle, but place the needle with syringe in the container

D. Do not recap the needle, but remove it from the syringe and place it in the container

C. Do not recap the needle, but place the needle with syringe in the container

-Never recap, remove or break a needle from a syringe. The risk of a needle stick is too great.

Which of the following bones is in the proximal row of carpals?

A. Trapezoid

B. Triquetrum

C. Capitate

D. Hamate

B. Triquetrum

-The proximal row of carpal bones is the row nearest the radius and ulna. It contains the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum and pisiform.

Which of the following determines the maximum spatial resolution of a flat panel detector?

A. Detector element size (DEL)

B. Laser frequency

C. Image receptor size

D. Quantum mottle

A. Detector element size (DEL)

-The size of the individual detectors is going to determine the maximum spatial resolution of a flat panel detector.

The first metacarpal is located on which side of the hand?

A. Lateral

B. Medial

C. Ulnar

D. Inside

A. Lateral

-The first metacarpal is on the thumb side, which is the lateral side of the hand.

Which of the following positions/projections requires the foot to be vertical and the x-ray tube angled 40 degrees cephalad?

A. Axial projection of the knee

B. Axiolateral position of the hip

C. Plantodorsal, axial projection of the calcaneus

D. Dorsoplantar, axial projection of the foot

C. Plantodorsal, axial projection of the calcaneus

-This projection also calls for the CR to enter the plantar surface of the foot at the base of the 3rd metatarsal.

To best demonstrate the dens using the Fuch method, the CR must be parallel to which of the following positioning lines?

A. Mentomeatal line (MML)

B. Interpupillary line (IPL)

C. Orbitomeatal line (OML)

D. Acanthiomeatal line (AML)

A. Mentomeatal line (MML)

-With the chin elevated to bring the MML perpendicular to the tabletop, the CR could be directed straight down entering inferior to the tip of the mandible. Remember, the less the CR is angled the less distortion will occur.

If a patient has been sedated for a myelogram, what could cause the exam to be cancelled?

A. The patient's family is not present

B. The scout images were misplaced

C. The radiologist is late for his/her lunch

D. The patient did not sign a consent form

D. The patient did not sign a consent form

-A patient must be informed as to the complications and alternative studies before an invasive procedure can be performed. The only way that can be documented is by having the patient sign a consent form.

For an AP projection of the hip joint, the feet should be placed in which of the following positions?

A. Lateral

B. Supine

C. Inversion

D. Eversion

C. Inversion

-The feet must be turned inward (inverted) 15 degrees in order to get the hip in a true AP projection.

What position/projection is demonstrated on this radiograph?

A. AP axial foot

B. Medial oblique foot

C. Lateral oblique foot

D. Lateromedial foot

B. Medial oblique foot

-The medial oblique foot demonstrates the phalanges, metatarsals, tarsals, and base of the 5th metatarsal free of superimposition.

Which of the following is the correct order for acquiring the latent image from the CR imaging plate?

1. Fiber optic collecting system
2. Laser stimulated photostimulable luminescence
3. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC)

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 1

C. 2, 1, 3

D. 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 1, 3

-The laser stimulates the trapped electrons causing photostimulable luminescence, the fiber optic collecting system collects the light and directs it to a photodetector, the ADC digitizes the electronic signal from the photodetector.

How many shades of gray can be displayed with a bit depth of 10 bits?

A. 512

B. 1024

C. 2048

D. 4096

B. 1024

-10 bits is 2 raised to the 10th power or 1024.

After transporting a patient back to his/her room on a stretcher, which of the following must be done before leaving the room?

A. Leave the bed in the low position

B. Put the side rails in the up position

C. Put the call button within reach of the patient

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

-Not doing these things could put the patient at risk.

Which of the following pathological conditions would produce the longest scale of contrast?

A. Osteoporosis

B. Kyphosis

C. Osteosclerosis

D. Osteoma

A. Osteoporosis

-Osteoporosis is a destructive disease in which there is a reduction in bone mass. The loss of bone mass reduces the amount of x-ray absorption resulting in a longer scale of contrast.

Which of the following would be considered long-term, biological effects of radiation?

A. Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders

B. Fever, sterility, mutations

C. Cancer, cataracts, life-span shortening

D. Erythema, leukemia, cretinism

C. Cancer, cataracts, life-span shortening

-Long-term effects are defined as effects that appear years after exposure to low levels of ionizing radiation.

Which of the following would describe an x-ray photon?

A. High speed electron

B. High speed neutron

C. High speed proton

D. High speed bundle of energy

D. High speed bundle of energy

-Since an x-ray photon is alternating electric and magnetic fields with no mass nor charge, they are often described as a "bundle of energy".

Which of the following materials would best educate a child about his/her radiologic examination?

A. Instructional videos

B. Printed educational materials

C. Activity book with cartoon-like drawings

D. Pamphlets

C. Activity book with cartoon-like drawings

-It is important to communicate with a child. All of these methods can provide a lot of information in a short time, but most children will do best with material designed for their age group.

The transthoracic projection may be used for which of the following radiographic examinations?

A. Lateral scapula

B. Below the diaphragm ribs

C. Lateral humerus

D. AP sternum

C. Lateral humerus

-The transthoracic projection may be used when the patient has a possible fracture or dislocation of the proximal humerus.

According to the Code of Federal Regulations Title 21 (21 CFR), mobile unit c-arm fluoroscopic systems manufactured after June 10, 2006 and having a maximum SID of less than 45 cm shall be labeled:

A. radioactive.

B. for extremity use only.

C. caution, short SID.

D. maximum SSD required.

B. for extremity use only

-These c-arms cannot meet the requirement that the source-to-skin distance must be 30 cm for mobile unit fluoroscopes. Therefore, the standard for these c-arms is that the SSD cannot be less than 19 cm.

Which of the following are the units for measuring the spatial resolution of a digital image?

A. Line pairs per millimeter

B. Lines per inch

C. Rows x columns

D. Candelas per meter

A. Line pairs per millimeter

-The spatial resolution of digital images is between 2.5 and 5.0 line pairs per millimeter. Spatial resolution for film-screen images is 10 line pairs per millimeter.

To prevent repeats, immobilization of a child may be necessary. An ideal immobilization aid will do which of the following?

A. Press the child against the table-top

B. Secure the extremities tightly

C. Restrict the positioning of the child

D. Make the child feel comfortable and secure

D. Make the child feel comfortable and secure

-When done correctly, a child will not feel trapped for a long period of time.

Which of the following factors affect differential absorption?

A. Part thickness

B. Part density

C. Atomic number

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

-A thick part will absorb more x rays than a thin part, a dense part will absorb more x rays than a less dense part, and a high atomic number will absorb more x rays than a low atomic number.

Scatter radiation will have the greatest effect on which of these radiographic qualities?

A. Spatial resolution

B. Receptor exposure

C. Contrast

D. Distortion

C. Contrast

-Scatter radiation covers up the white or light areas on a radiograph. This means there will be less difference in receptor exposure between areas causing lower contrast.

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate the right sacroilliac joint?

A. AP

B. PA

C. RAO

D. RPO

C. RAO

-A 25-35 degree RAO will put the right sacroilliac joint closest to the image (an LPO is also acceptable).

Scatter radiation will increase with an increase in which of the following?

1. Patient size
2. kVp
3. Atomic number of tissue

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

A. 1 & 2 only

-As size increases there are more atoms for the x ray to interact with to cause scattering. As kVp increases it is less likely that the x ray will be absorbed. The higher the atomic number the more likely it will absorb an x ray rather than scatter it.

If a technologist is NOT involved in fluoroscopy, where can the radiation monitor be worn?

1. Collar
2. Waist
3. Sleeve

A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

B. 1 & 2 only

-A radiation monitor must be worn with the proper side to the front. Wearing it on your sleeve would not always have it positioned toward the front.

Which of the following is a byproduct of photoelectric absorption?

1. Bremsstrahlung radiation
2. Photoelectron
3. Recoil electron

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

B. 2 only

-The photon gets completely absorbed by the electron resulting in a photoelectron.

What is the name of the spinal fixation devices used to correct scoliosis?

A. Harrington rods

B. Intermedullary nails

C. Vertebral brackets

D. Moyer fasteners

A. Harrington rods

-Harrington rods are supportive rods that are surgically placed along the spine or spinal fusion.

Which of the following procedures should be done first?

A. Lower gastrointestinal series

B. Abdominal sonography

C. Intravenous urogram

D. Upper gastrointestinal series

B. Abdominal sonography

-Sound waves cannot penetrate contrast media, especially barium or gas. Therefore, any radiographic procedures requiring contrast agents must be done after the sonography procedures.

A hand image was taken at 100 mA, .06 seconds, 60 kVp. The result was an image with an EI number of 2300. What would you do to correct this reject?

A. 100 mA, .03 seconds, 60 kVp

B. 200 mA, .03 seconds, 60 kVp

C. 100 mA, .06 seconds, 55 kVp

D. 200 mA, .06 seconds, 55 kVp

A. 100 mA, .03 seconds, 60 kVp

-An EI of 2300 indicates the original image was overexposed by 100%. With digital imaging you would have two options, decreasing the mAs or decreasing the kVp. Since it was overexposed you would want to decrease the time which would decrease the mAs. Decreasing the kVp may run the risk of underpenetrating the hand. Also, decreasing the mAs reduces the radiation exposure to the patient.

An inanimate object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms is classified as which of the following?

A. Vector

B. Fomite

C. Host

D. Reservoir

B. Fomite

-Fomites in the imaging department would be things like linen, cassettes, and the x-ray table.

Which of the following bones has a medial condyle?

A. Fibula

B. Mandible

C. Radius

D. Tibia

D. Tibia

-The tibia has a medial and lateral condyle, the mandible has two condyles (one on each side).

A small bowel series continues until barium reaches which of the following areas?

A. Ileum

B. Ileocecal valve

C. Right colic flexure

D. Mitral valve

B. Ileocecal valve

-A small bowel series is not complete until the barium has passed through the duodenum, jejunum, ileum and ileocecal valve.

There are contraindications to using some contrast agents. What does the term "contraindication" mean?

A. Not suitable for children

B. Do not use at full strength

C. Potential danger to serious adverse reactions

D. It is illegal to administer without a doctors order

C. Potential danger to serious adverse reactions

-Depending upon the patient's age, condition or various health problems, it may not be advisable to administer certain contrast agents.

The hip joint is located midway between which anatomical landmarks?

A. Symphysis pubis and greater trochanter

B. Symphysis pubis and iliac crest

C. Symphysis pubis and A.S.I.S.

D. Symphysis pubis and ischial tuberosity

C. Symphysis pubis and A.S.I.S.

-It is important to be able to locate the hip joint when positioning for the hip or the femur.

Why was this AP knee radiograph repeated?

A. Improper collimation

B. Grid cutoff

C. Underpenetrated

D. Low contrast

C. Underpenetrated

-All of the anatomical parts are not seen, especially the patella, because the knee is underpenetrated. More kVp is needed.

Which of the following techniques will produce the same radiographic exposure as 200 mA, 1/5 second, 60 kVp?

1. 200 mA, 1/10 second, 70 kVp
2. 400 mA, 1/10 second, 70 kVp
3. 400 mA, 1/20 second, 70 kVp

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 1 & 3 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

B. 1 & 3 only

-20 mAs at 70 kVp will produce the same exposure as the 40 mAs at 60 kVp that is stated in the question.

What is the maximum amount of water-soluble contrast media that should be given to a child that weighs only 60 pounds?

A. 30 ml

B. 60 ml

C. 100 ml

D. 200 ml

B. 60 ml

-No more than 1.0 ml of contrast per pound of body weight should be administered. Never to exceed 100 ml. The ACR guidelines state 2 ml per kilogram (1 kg = 2.2 lbs).

Excessive edge enhancement of a digital image can result in which of the following problems?

A. Loss of spatial resolution

B. Loss of contrast

C. Halo artifact

D. Dead pixels

C. Halo artifact

-The halo artifact appears as a black line around an object and can be mistaken for a pneumothorax or the loosening of an orthopedic device.

Turning off the monitor and observing any areas of glare on the monitor's surface is a simple way to evaluate:

A. Ambient light

B. Speckling

C. After glow

D. Noise

A. Ambient light

-Ambient light increases the brightness and lowers the contrast of a digital image.

What is the purpose of the rectification circuit?

A. Increase voltage to kilovoltage

B. Terminate the exposure

C. Change alternating current to direct current

D. Regulate incoming voltage to the autotransformer

C. Change alternating current to direct current

-The rectification circuit changes the alternating current (AC) which is needed to operate the step-up transformer efficiently to direct current (DC) which is needed to operate the x-ray tube efficiently.

Kyphosis is found in which of the following anatomical areas?

A. Thoracic spine

B. Lumbar spine

C. Knees

D. Feet

A. Thoracic spine

-Kyphosis is an extreme curvature of the upper back that can be caused by osteoporosis later in life.

If using a high-frequency x-ray generator, which of the following will have the greatest effect on increasing exposure to the image receptor?

A. 15% increase in kVp

B. 25% increase in SID

C. 50% increase in mAs

D. 75% increase in grid ratio

A. 15% increase in kVp

-A 15% increase in kVp will increase the exposure to the image receptor by 100%. Increasing kVp by 15% is a good way to compensate for the increased exposure required by some CR and DR image receptors.

The breakdown of water molecules within the body due to irradiation is known as what?

A. Hydrodisintegration

B. Mitosis

C. RBE

D. Radiolysis

D. Radiolysis

-The radiolysis of water produces hydrogen peroxide and free radicals. Both damaging to cells.

How well an imaging system reproduces the actual object is referred to as what?

A. Modulation transfer function

B. Resolving power

C. Lines per inch

D. Linear image transfer

A. Modulation transfer function

-Modulation transfer function measures the information lost between the actual object and the recorded image. It is controlled by how well the x-ray image is converted into a visible image.

Which of the following is the best method for dealing with patients from diverse cultures?

A. Treat everyone the same. By doing so, no one should feel uncomfortable.

B. Pay attention and be sensitive to your patient's reactions to your verbal and nonverbal communication. If they appear to be uncomfortable, consider that you may need to adjust your actions based on their culture.

C. If your patient's name is ethnic, assume that their English is limited; speak loudly and slowly.

D. Ask each patient details about their culture, including religion, language, and sexual preference; this way you'll know exactly how to work with him or her

B. Pay attention and be sensitive to your patient's reactions to your verbal and nonverbal communication. If they appear to be uncomfortable, consider that you may need to adjust your actions based on their culture.

-Sensitivity to your patient's reactions provides immediate feedback that your culture and your patient's may be different. You can then make adjustments to help the patient be more comfortable and cooperative.

No practical amount of mAs can ever compensate for which of the following?

A. Inadequate exposure time

B. Inadequate kVp

C. Inadequate SID

D. Inadequate grid ratio

B. Inadequate kVp

-If the part is not penetrated, there is no amount of mAs that can be used to produce a quality radiograph.

If you go from a Bucky technique (12:1 ratio grid) to a table-top technique (non-grid), how many times less radiation will be necessary?

A. 2X

B. 3X

C. 4X

D. 5X

D. 5X

-Going from a 12:1 ratio grid in the Bucky to no grid will allow 5X more radiation (scatter and primary) to reach the image receptor. Therefore, 5X less mAs is required to produce the same brightness.

Which of the following is the proper tube angle for an AP axial coccyx?

A. 10 degrees cephalad

B. 10 degrees caudad

C. 25 degrees cephalad

D. 25 degrees caudad

B. 10 degrees caudad

-The CR is angled 10 degrees caudad, to enter 2" superior to the symphysis pubis.

Which of the following would best show a soft tissue mass in the neck?

A. Soft tissue radiograph

B. Conventional tomography of the c-spine

C. MRI of neck

D. CT of neck

C. MRI of neck

-MRI is the best for demonstrating soft tissue structures in this area.

Which of the following describes the dose-response relationship shown here?

A. Nonlinear, nonthreshold

B. Nonlinear, threshold

C. Linear, nonthreshold

D. Linear, threshold

D. Linear, threshold

-Linear, threshold means the effect increases with an increase of dose once it passes the threshold amount.

This radiograph demonstrates what common gastrointestinal pathology?

A. Hiatal hernia

B. Ileus

C. Diverticulitis

D. Appendicitis

B. Ileus

-An ileus is an obstruction of the small bowel. What makes it apparent is that the small bowel usually does not have air in it.

When using a 25/17/12 image intensifier tube, which of the following is true?

A. Resolution is best in the 25 cm mode

B. The field of view is largest in the 25 cm mode

C. Resolution is best in the 17 cm mode

D. There are three different input phosphors

B. The field of view is largest in the 25 cm mode

-In the 25 cm mode, the input phosphor covers the largest area of the patient to produce the largest field of view.

Which of the following devices is used to measure the oxygen content of blood in a patient?

A. Thermometer

B. Pulse oximeter

C. Sphygomanometer

D. Ventilator

B. Pulse oximeter

-A pulse oximeter is usually placed on the finger, toe, or earlobe of the patient. A light helps determine the oxygen content of the circulating blood.

The concept that radiation exposure should be kept "as low as reasonably achievable" defines which of the following?

A. The genetically significant dose

B. The maximum permissible dose

C. The ALARA principle

D. The clinical exposure principle

C. The ALARA principle

-ALARA is the acronym for "as low as reasonably achievable".

To demonstrate the rotator cuff, which of the following procedures would be performed?

A. Knee arthrography

B. Shoulder arthrography

C. Myelography

D. Conventional tomography

B. Shoulder arthrography

-The rotator cuff is formed by the tendons of four major muscles in the shoulder.

Which of the following categories includes scatter radiation and leakage radiation?

A. Primary radiation

B. Secondary radiation

C. Backscatter radiation

D. Stem radiation

B. Secondary radiation

-Secondary radiation consists of radiation that is not part of the primary (useful) beam. Scatter radiation comes primarily from the patient during an exposure and leakage radiation comes through the tube housing.

If the object is angled, what must be done to prevent shape distortion?

A. Angle the CR

B. Angle the image receptor

C. Angle the CR and image receptor an equal amount

D. Increase SID and decrease OID

C. Angle the CR and image receptor an equal amount

-To prevent shape distortion, the object and image receptor must be parallel to each other and the CR must be perpendicular to the object and the image receptor.

The shortest exposure time that a radiographic system can produce is known as its:

A. timer cut-off.

B. minimum response time.

C. exposure load.

D. system limit.

B. minimum response time.

-Most radiographic systems manufactured today have a minimum response time of 1 millisecond.

Equalization can be applied to a digital image to improve which of the following?

A. Visibility of details

B. Spatial resolution

C. Noise

D. Sharpness of details

A. Visibility of details

-Visibility of details are improved by making the light areas darker and dark areas lighter. Equalization is used to make C7 visible in lateral c-spine digital images.

Which of the following statements is false?

A. When the CR imaging plate is placed in the reader the entire plate is read.

B. The CR software locates the borders of the collimation and processes the data inside the borders.

C. If the CR software cannot locate the collimated borders the plate is rejected.

D. The CR software can compensate for minor errors in technique selection.

C. If the CR software cannot locate the collimated borders the plate is rejected

-If the software cannot locate the collimated borders then all the plate's data is included in the final image.

Which of the following would be considered non-uniformity in a digital image?

1. Stripes in the image
2. Bright spots in the image
3. Dark spots in the image

A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

-These are all problems that can occur because of digital image capturing. The good news is they can be corrected by image processing.

Primary radiation barriers in walls must be ______ high and ______ thick.

A. 6 feet, 1/32"

B. 6 feet, 1/16"

C. 7 feet, 1/32"

D. 7 feet, 1/16"

D. 7 feet, 1/16"

-Primary protective barriers are designed to absorb the primary radiation that is directed at the barrier, even if the beam's energy is 140 kVp and the tube is no more than 5 feet from the wall.

During mobile radiography, which of the following is the duty of the radiographer?

A. Ask others to leave the room or give them an apron

B. Use gonadal shielding on the patient

C. Make it clear when you are going to make an exposure

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

-A and C are especially important when working in the emergency room or surgery where several personnel are involved in the case.

Which of the following is necessary for a PA projection of the chest?

1. Scapulae not superimposing the lung fields
2. 10 posterior ribs visualized above the diaphragms
3. Sharp outline of the diaphragms

A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 2 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

-Rotating the shoulders forward, deep inspiration, without motion will accomplish the above.

The diagram represents the ionization chambers associated with automatic exposure control (AEC). Which chamber/chambers would be located directly below the central ray when the tube and Bucky are aligned?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1 & 2

C. 3

-When the tube and Bucky are aligned, the ionization chamber in the center is directly below the central ray. That is why this chamber is often called the center cell.

The establishment and growth of microorganisms on or in a host defines which of the following?

A. Pathogen

B. Infection

C. Disease

D. Bacteria

B. Infection

-An infection may not cause clinical symptoms, but usually it will produce tissue damage and inflammation.

Which of the following is the best method to minimize contamination of radiographic equipment while radiographing an isolation patient?

A. Have only one radiographer perform the examination

B. Have a family member position the patient while the radiographer handles the equipment

C. Have the radiology nurse position the patient while the radiographer handles the equipment

D. Have two radiographers, one positioning the patient while the other handles the equipment

D. Have two radiographers, one positioning the patient while the other handles the equipment

-If only one radiographer does the examination, the equipment must be completely disinfected after the procedure. Never depend on a family member or a nurse to position a patient correctly.

What should the radiographer do once he/she has sent a patient's images to PACS?

A. Delete the images from the local server

B. Save a duplicate copy to a CD

C. Check PACS to make sure the images were transmitted

D. Delete the patient's information from the hospital information system (HIS)

C. Check PACS to make sure the images were transmitted

-It is the radiographer's responsibility to make sure the images were transmitted to PACS correctly. Then the local server can be cleared of images periodically without worrying about losing images

A number of computers connected together is known as a:

A. cell.

B. network.

C. system.

D. infrastructure.

B. network.

-There are local area networks (within the hospital) and wide area networks (the internet).

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?

A. Lacrimal

B. Zygoma

C. Ethmoid

D. Vomer

C. Ethmoid

-The bony nasal septum is formed by the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone and the vomer bone. The ethmoid bone is a cranial bone and the vomer is a facial bone.

Which of the following is the most widely accepted method for manually selecting radiographic techniques?

A. Fixed kVp technique chart

B. Variable kVp technique chart

C. Random selection technique chart

D. Bit System

A. Fixed kVp technique chart

-Fixed kVp technique charts use a higher kVp than variable kVp technique charts. The reasons for using a fixed kVp technique chart include less patient exposure, better penetration of the anatomical part, more exposure latitude, shorter exposure times, and more consistent radiographic quality.

A patient comes to the radiology department on a backboard for images of the cervical spine and skull. Which position/projection do you do first?

A. AP skull

B. Crosstable lateral, (horizontal beam) cervical spine

C. Obliques of the cervical spine

D. Crosstable lateral, (horizontal beam) skull

B. Crosstable lateral, (horizontal beam) cervical spine

-Do not move the patient's head or neck until cervical fractures have been ruled out. This is done by showing a crosstable lateral, (horizontal beam) view to a physician before the patient is moved.

A RPO position of the ribs, will best demonstrate which of the following?

A. Right axillary ribs

B. Left axillary ribs

C. Anterior ribs

D. Posterior ribs

A. Right axillary ribs

-The purpose of the oblique rib positions is to demonstrate the axillary ribs. The best way to remember this is: "a RPO for right rib injury and a LPO for left rib injury."

What caused the problem demonstrated on this radiograph?

A. Off center grid-cutoff

B. A focused grid in backwards

C. Insufficient processing

D. Poor sampling frequency

B. A focused grid in backwards

-A focused grid has its lead strips positioned at an angle to correspond to the divergent x-ray beam. If it is placed so the back of the grid is facing the primary beam, then the lead strips that are angled will absorb the primary beam but the strips in the center with little angle will allow the primary beam to pass through. This is why it has the proper brightness in the middle of the image, but light at both sides.

The red arrow is pointing to which part of the scapula?

A. Acromion

B. Scapular notch

C. Superior angle

D. Coracoid process

A. Acromion

-The acromion extends laterally over the head of the humerus.

Contrast resolution is a major advantage of digital imaging. What determines high contrast resolution in a digital image?

A. High exposure and low noise

B. Low exposure and high noise

C. High exposure and high resolution

D. High resolution and low noise

A. High exposure and low noise

-Contrast resolution is the ability to distinguish between the various tissues of the acquired image. Known as the signal-to-noise ratio, a high exposure will produce low noise and allow the software to visualize the various tissues.

What does the word root "mono" mean?

A. Nucleus

B. Color

C. One

D. Iron

C. One

-"mono" is the word root for "one", as used in the term "monocular" (pertaining to one eye).

Which of the primary factors will always have an effect on spatial resolution?

A. Seconds

B. SID

C. mA

D. kVp

B. SID

-mA, time (which is mAs), kVp and SID are considered the primary factors because they are the first things to adjust to affect exposure to the image receptor. SID is also one of the geometric factors that affects spatial resolution.

Because of the anode heel effect, where is the intensity of the x-ray beam the greatest?

A. At the anode end

B. At the cathode end

C. At the rotor end

D. In the center of the beam

B. At the cathode end

-The reason it is called the anode heel effect is because the heel of the anode absorbs x rays, making the greatest number of x rays (intensity) to be toward the cathode end.

"Exposure creep" is a term that implies that radiographers are using higher exposures than necessary and allowing the software to adjust the brightness. How can an imaging department manager evaluate if "exposure creep" is occurring in his/her department?

A. Ask the radiographers if they are overexposing the patients

B. Ask the radiologists if the images are too dark

C. Do a repeat analysis of deleted images

D. Make monitoring exposure indicator numbers part of a quality assurance program

D. Make monitoring exposure indicator numbers part of a quality assurance program

A quality assurance program that periodically monitors exposure indicator numbers would be affective. Log results and share the information with the radiographers.

What is the point where the two nasal bones and the frontal bone join together called?

A. Nasal septum

B. Nasion

C. Mental point

D. Lambda

B. Nasion

-The nasion is a topographical landmark used for skull and facial bone radiography.

Which of the following is the radiation that is produced directly from the target of the x-ray tube?

A. Primary radiation

B. Quality radiation

C. Remnant radiation

D. Secondary radiation

A. Primary radiation

-The primary radiation is produced by either bremsstrahlung or characteristic.

Where is the most common place along the length of a ureter for a kidney stone to hang up?

A. Renal pelvis

B. Ureteropelvic junction

C. Ureterovesical junction

D. Urethra

C. Ureterovesical junction

-The ureterovesical junction (UV junction) is where most kidney stones passing down the ureter tend to hang up. The other two constrictions where kidney stones could possibly hang up are the ureteropelvic junction and the pelvic brim.

Which of the following should be done to best visualize the sternum?

1. Shallow breathing
2. Short SID
3. Shallow RAO

A. 3 only

B. 1 & 2 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1 & 3 only

-The shallow breathing blurs the ribs & lung markings and the shallow RAO projects the sternum over the heart. These techniques make the sternum more visible. A short SID is not recommended because of the increased patient dose.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) states that any information that identifies a patient is known as:

A. Protected Health Information (PHI).

B. Private Patient Information (PPI).

C. Secure Patient Information (SPI).

D. Confidential Health Information (CHI)

A. Protected Health Information (PHI).

-Health care workers must provide for the privacy and security of all forms of patient information.

Why was the genetically significant dose (GSD) statistic developed? To estimate.....

A. what it takes to produce a mutation.

B. what it takes to sterilize a person.

C. the radiation dose to the general population.

D. the radiation dose to the population gene pool.

C. the radiation dose to the general population.

-The genetically significant dose is the estimated dose received by the population. From this scientists can estimate the genetic effects on future generations.

Fluoroscopic imaging is usually performed at which of the following techniques?

A. Low kVp, low mA

B. High kVp, low mA

C. Low kVp, high mA

D. High kVp, high mA

B. High kVp, low mA

-High kVp, low mA techniques help keep the radiation exposure to the patient as low as possible. Image intensification increases the brightness of the fluoroscopic image.

What is the purpose of protective drapes on a fluoroscopic unit?

A. Shield operator from primary radiation

B. Shield operator from scatter radiation

C. Shield operator from leakage radiation

D. Prevent backscatter radiation

B. Shield operator from scatter radiation

-Leaded screen drapes and table side shields "shall" be provided to minimize over-table scatter radiation from reaching the operator.

Which of the following produces the greatest risk to the radiographer?

A. Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube

B. Backscatter radiation from the floor and walls

C. Scatter radiation from the patient

D. The primary beam

C. Scatter radiation from the patient

-Scatter radiation from the patient produces the greatest risk to the radiographer, but "backscatter" from the floor and walls, and leakage radiation cannot be ignored. The radiographer should never be in the path of the primary beam.

Which of the following statements would properly describe optimum collimation?

A. The x-ray beam should be approximately the size of the image receptor.

B. Automatic collimation shall be used at all times.

C. Extension cylinders shall be used at all times.

D. Only tissues of the body in which there is a diagnostic interest will be in the primary beam.

D. Only tissues of the body in which there is a diagnostic interest will be in the primary beam

-Optimum collimation would be when the primary beam is collimated to just the area of interest.

What do the letters N.P.O. stand for?

A. Nothing by mouth

B. Nothing after midnight

C. No liquids

D. No solid food

A. Nothing by mouth

-Several radiographic examinations require nothing by mouth (NPO) after midnight.

The higher the energy of the x ray the:

A. greater the quantity

B. greater the speed

C. higher the frequency

D. longer the wavelength

C. higher the frequency

-Frequency means how frequently does an x ray change from electric to magnetic fields. The more energy an x ray has the faster it can regenerate its electromagnetic fields.

Which of the following describes the term extravasation?

A. Injecting fluid into tissues

B. Blood backing into the syringe

C. Inability to stop bleeding

D. Missing the vein, causing discomfort

A. Injecting fluid into tissues

-Extravasation and infiltration are confusing terms, they both end up with fluid in the tissue. Extravasation is injected, whereas, infiltration leaks in from an I.V.

The red arrow is pointing to which anatomical area of this typical vertebra?

A. Transverse process

B. Pedicle

C. Lamina

D. Spinous process

C. Lamina

-The lamina projects posteriorly and medially from the pedicle to join with the other lamina at the midline.

A non-grid exposure requires 15 mAs. How much mAs is needed if a 5:1 ratio grid is used?

A. 15 mAs

B. 30 mAs

C. 45 mAs

D. 60 mAs

B. 30 mAs

-A 5:1 ratio grid requires 2X more mAs to compensate for the loss of exposure because of the scatter radiation that is absorbed.

Which of the following pieces of support equipment need to be kept above the patient?

A. Chest tubes

B. Urinary catheters

C. IV tubes

D. Drainage tubes

C. IV tubes

-IV tubes should be kept 18 - 20" above the vein (an IV that is too high may cause fluid to infiltrate because of increased pressure). The others must be kept below the patient so their contents will not drain back into the patient, causing infections or worse.

Which two bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A. Clavicle and humerus

B. Clavicle and scapula

C. Scapula and humerus

D. Scapula and sternum

B. Clavicle and scapula

-The purpose of the shoulder girdle (clavicle and scapula) is support for the arm (humerus).

In a histogram, a useful range of minimum to maximum numbers is determined. What is this range of numbers called?

A. Imperative range

B. Useful image numbers

C. Histogram range

D. Values of interest

D. Values of interest

-An analysis of the peaks, valleys, and width of the histogram determines the values of interest.

Which of the following is the connective tissue that fastens muscles to bones?

A. Tendon

B. Ligament

C. Meniscus

D. Cartilage

A. Tendon

-These tendons are found around all of the joints transmitting the force exerted by the muscle.

According to the Code of Federal Regulations Title 21 (21 CFR) for fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after June 10, 2006, neither the length nor the width of the x-ray field shall exceed the size of the image receptor by more than _______ percent of the SID.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

C. 3

-Furthermore, the sum of the excess length and excess width shall be no greater than 4% of the SID.