1. Infection occurs when

d. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.

2. All infectious diseases

c. are caused by microorganisms or their products.

3. Which is not terminology used for resident flora?

a. Pathogenic flora

4. Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

b. the patient's own normal flora.

5. The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora

b. during, and immediately after birth.

6. Resident flora are found in/on the

e. All of the choices are correct.

7. All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except

a. Escherichia.

8. Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause,
the vagina?

a. Lactobacillus

9. Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?

b. Streptococcus

10. The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K
and several other vitamins is the

c. large intestine.

11. Virulence factors include all the following except

b. ribosomes.

12. Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of

e. exoenzymes.

13. Exotoxins are

a. proteins.

14. Enterotoxins are

e. All of the choices are correct.

15. Which is mismatched?

c. Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots

16. The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the
pathogen is at peak activity is

d. period of invasion.

17. The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first
appear is the

c. incubation period.

18. The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the

a. prodromal stage.

19. Which is mismatched?

a. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites

20. The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed

b. symptom.

21. The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed

c. sign.

22. Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of

b. inflammation.

23. The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is

e. epidemiology.

24. The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United
States is the

a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

25. A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is

b. endemic.

26. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the

d. reservoir.

27. Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a

b. carrier.

28. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a

c. vector.

29. An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a

a. fomite.

30. Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?

e. A mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus.

31. Reservoirs include

e. All of the choices are correct.

32. A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth.
This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in
the technologist, the transmission route is

c. vehicle.

33. Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to
host are

e. biological vectors.

34. Nosocomial infections involve all the following except

a. they are only transmitted by medical personnel

35. When would Koch's Postulates be utilized?

c. To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab.

36. All of the following are correct about mechanical vectors except

c. the vector is important to the life cycle of the infectious agent.

37. Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens?

c. respiratory

38. If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is
more virulent?

b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

39. All of the following are signs of infectious diseases except

e. nausea.

40. When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to
as

a. sporadic.

41. Joe contracted hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source
of the disease is ___________ and the reservoir is ______________.

b. the doughnut, humans

42. A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease?

e. forest ranger

43. Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia,
intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which nosocomial infection is she
at greatest risk for contracting?

c. urinary tract

44. Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is
transmitted

a. from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta.

45. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except

e. phagocytic white blood cells.

46. Nonspecific chemical defenses include

e. All of the choices are correct.

47. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial
cell walls is

c. lysozyme.

48. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away
from that body site is the

b. respiratory tract.

49. This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with
its own normal flora

a. skin.

50. The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are

b. eosinophils.

51. The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after
inflammation is performed by

d. macrophages.

52. Which is incorrect regarding fever?

c. It is a symptom of a few diseases.

53. The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are

c. neutrophils.

54. Which cell type is phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into
macrophages?

d. Monocytes

55. All of the following pertain to platelets except

a. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

56. Hemopoiesis is the

c. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

57. Diapedesis is the

e. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

58. Plasma cells

d. produce and secrete antibodies.

59. The reticuloendothelial system

e. All of the choices are correct.

60. Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens
from the blood?

c. spleen

61. Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit,
groin, and neck?

a. Lymph nodes

62. Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of
T-lymphocytes?

b. Thymus

63. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as

d. GALT.

64. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except

e. chills.

65. All the following are events of early inflammation except

a. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.

66. Which is mismatched?

d. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells

67. Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all

a. vasoactive mediators.

68. These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections

b. eosinphils.

69. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are

d. pyrogens.

70. The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves

c. a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.

71. All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic
granules when stained except

b. monocytes.

72. All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules
in their cytoplasm when stained except

e. basophils.

73. The key phagocytic cells of the body are the

a. neutrophils and macrophages.

74. Juan has influenza and has aches, pains and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to
take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take?

d. Acetaminophen, like Tylenol

75. Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals?

c. Prostaglandins

76. The contribution of B cells is mainly in

b. humoral immunity.

77. The bone marrow is where

b. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.

78. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

d. plasma cells.

79. Helper T cells

e. activate B cells and other T cells.

80. Plasma cells

a. secrete antibodies.

81. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions

e. All of the choices are correct.

82. The major histocompatability complex is

b. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.

83. Class II MHC genes code for

d. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

84. Class I MHC genes code for

b. markers that display unique characteristics of self.

85. Lymphocytes

e. All of the choices are correct.

86. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except

d. four antigen binding sites.

87. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from
one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the

a. variable region.

88. Lymphocyte maturation involves

e. All of the choices are correct.

89. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except

d. large polymers made up of repeating subunits.

90. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds
to is called a/an

a. epitope.

91. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are
termed

b. hapten.

92. Superantigens are

c. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.

93. Antigen presenting cells

e. All of the choices are correct.

94. T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires

e. All of the choices are correct.

95. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule
thereby disrupting their activity?

a. Neutralization

96. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

d. Agglutination

97. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

b. Opsonization

98. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when
the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

e. Anamnestic response

99. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other
body secretions is

a. IgA.

100. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is

d. IgG.

101. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except

e. it is a dimer.

102. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

d. IgM and IgG

103. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are

d. IgM and IgG.

104. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly

e. IgG.

105. The most significant cells in graft rejection are

c. cytotoxic T cells.

106. Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

e. natural killer (NK) cells

107. Monoclonal antibodies

e. All of the choices are correct.

108. Cytotoxic T cells

c. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.

109. An example of artificial passive immunity would be

c. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the
disease.

110. An example of natural passive immunity would be

d. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

111. An example of artificial active immunity would be

b. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.

112. Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?

b. Helper T cells

113. In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is

d. IgM.

114. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is

c. IgG.

115. All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except

d. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.

116. Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory,
and genitourinary pathogens?

e. IgA

117. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for

c. breast cancer.

118. Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he
had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?

b. Artificial passive immunity

119. Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine
immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this?

d. Artificial active immunity

120. Edward Jenner's work involved

d. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a
more pathogenic one.

121. Immunotherapy is the

e. All of the choices are correct.

122. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

e. All of the choices are correct.

123. Live, attenuated vaccines

b. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).

124. Toxoids

a. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.

125. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and
prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

a. Adjuvant

126. Antitoxins

a. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.

127. The DTaP immunization

e. All of the choices are correct.

128. Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients?

b. Attenuated vaccines

129. Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood
vaccinations?

e. None of the choices are correct.

130. Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except

a. malaria.

131. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

d. they can be transmitted to other people.

132. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

c. they can mutate back to a virulent strain.

133. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except

b. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.