1)

Which of the following is a function of the blood?

A)

transport of nutrients and wastes

B)

transport of body heat

C)

transport of gases

D)

defense against toxins and pathogens

E)

all of the above

E)all of the above

2)

Which of the following statements about blood is false?

A)

contains buffers that control pH

B)

normal pH is 6.8 to 7.0

C)

is more viscous than water

D)

is about 55 percent plasma

E)

None of the above is falseall are true.

B) normal pH is 6.8 to 7.0

3)

Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?

A)

55 percent

B)

38 percent

C)

60 percent

D)

45 percent

E)

20 percent

D) 45 percent

4)

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called

A)

serum.

B)

lymph.

C)

whole blood.

D)

extracellular fluid.

E)

packed blood.

C) whole blood.

5)

Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from

A)

the heart.

B)

a superficial artery.

C)

a superficial vein.

D)

a capillary.

E)

an arteriole.

C) a superficial vein.

6)

When checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to draw a blood sample from

A)

the heart.

B)

the lungs.

C)

an artery.

D)

a vein.

E)

capillaries.

C) an artery.

7) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a

B) viscosity about the same as water.

8)

The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters.

A)

10

B)

6 to 8

C)

5.3

D)

4.4

E)

3.8

C) 5.3

9)

A person who has a low blood volume is said to be

A)

hypovolemic.

B)

hypervolemic.

C)

normovolemic.

D)

isovolemic.

E)

antivolemic.

A) hypovolemic.

10)

The chief differences between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the

A)

concentration of water.

B)

concentration of electrolytes.

C)

concentration of nitrogen wastes.

D)

concentration of proteins.

E)

concentration of glucose.

D)concentration of proteins.

11)

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

A)

globulins.

B)

transport proteins.

C)

albumins.

D)

lipoproteins.

E)

fibrinogens.

C) albumins.

12)

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

A)

albumins.

B)

fibrinogens.

C)

immunoglobulins.

D)

metalloproteins.

E)

lipoproteins.

C) immunoglobulins.

13)

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is

A)

albumin alpha.

B)

fibrinogen.

C)

immunoglobulin A.

D)

metalloprotein D.

E)

lipoprotein C.

B) fibrinogen.

14)

The most abundant component of plasma is

A)

ions.

B)

proteins.

C)

water.

D)

gases.

E)

nutrients.

C) water.

15)

All the circulating red blood cells originate in the

A)

heart.

B)

thymus.

C)

spleen.

D)

red bone marrow.

E)

lymph tissue.

D) red bone marrow.

16)

The process of lymphopoiesis goes on in all of the following organs, except

A)

the spleen.

B)

the kidney.

C)

the lymph nodes.

D)

the red bone marrow.

E)

the thymus.

B) the kidney.

17)

Granulocytes form in

A)

the intestines.

B)

the spleen.

C)

the thymus.

D)

red bone marrow.

E)

yellow bone marrow.

D) red bone marrow.

18)

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone

A)

thymosin.

B)

angiotensin.

C)

erythropoietin.

D)

M-CSF.

E)

renin.

C) erythropoietin.

19)

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false?

A)

Red cells are biconcave discs.

B)

Red cells lack mitochondria.

C)

Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.

D)

Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen.

E)

Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.

C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.

20)

The average lifespan of a red blood cell is

A)

24 hours.

B)

1 month.

C)

4 months.

D)

about 1 year.

E)

many years.

C) 4 months.

21)

The function of red blood cells is to

A)

carry carbon dioxide from the cells to the lungs.

B)

carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.

C)

carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.

D)

defend the body against infectious organisms.

E)

both A and B

E) both A and B

22)

More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is

A)

albumin.

B)

porphyrin.

C)

hemoglobin.

D)

immunoglobulin.

E)

fibrinogen.

C) hemoglobin.

23)

The function of hemoglobin is to

A)

carry oxygen.

B)

carry carbon dioxide.

C)

aid in the process of blood clotting.

D)

A, B, and C

E)

A and B only

E) A and B only

24)

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.

A)

Polycythemia

B)

Leukemia

C)

Anemia

D)

Leukopenia

E)

Thrombocytopenia

C) Anemia

25)

Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by

A)

oral doses of iron.

B)

injections of iron.

C)

oral doses of vitamin B12.

D)

injections of vitamin B12.

E)

blood transfusion.

D) injections of vitamin B12.

26)

A red blood cell that contains normal amounts of hemoglobin would be called

A)

hyperchromic.

B)

normochromic.

C)

hypochromic.

D)

normocytic.

E)

macrocytic.

B) normochromic.

27)

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme

A)

fibrinogen-converting enzyme.

B)

plasmin.

C)

factor VIII.

D)

thrombin.

E)

prothrombinase.

D) thrombin.

28)

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the

A)

spleen.

B)

liver.

C)

bone marrow.

D)

digestive tract.

E)

A, B, and C

E) A, B, and C

29)

The waste product bilirubin is produced from

A)

globin chains of hemoglobin.

B)

heme molecules plus iron.

C)

heme molecules lacking iron.

D)

iron found in hemoglobin molecules.

E)

abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

C) heme molecules lacking iron.

30)

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

A)

excreted by the kidneys.

B)

excreted by the liver.

C)

excreted by the intestines.

D)

recycled to the red bone marrow.

E)

stored in yellow bone marrow.

D) recycled to the red bone marrow.

31)

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in

A)

the liver.

B)

yellow bone marrow.

C)

red bone marrow.

D)

the spleen.

E)

lymphoid tissue.

C) red bone marrow.

32)

In adults, red bone marrow is located in the

A)

sternum and ribs.

B)

diaphysis of long bones.

C)

iliac crest, body of vertebrae.

D)

A, B, and C

E)

A and C only

E) A and C only

33)

The process of red blood cell production is called

A)

erythrocytosis.

B)

erythropenia.

C)

hemocytosis.

D)

erythropoiesis.

E)

hematopenia.

D) erythropoiesis.

34)

The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as

A)

hemocytoblasts.

B)

reticulocytes.

C)

band forms.

D)

myeloid cells.

E)

proerythrocytes.

B) reticulocytes.

35)

________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.

A)

Erythroblasts

B)

Normoblasts

C)

Myeloblasts

D)

Band cells

E)

Reticulocytes

E) Reticulocytes

36)

Erythropoiesis is stimulated when

A)

oxygen levels in the blood increase.

B)

oxygen levels in the blood decrease.

C)

blood flow to the kidney declines.

D)

both A and C

E)

both B and C

E) both B and C

37)

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the

A)

viscosity.

B)

specific gravity.

C)

packed volume.

D)

hematocrit.

E)

differential cell count.

D) hematocrit.

38)

A typical adult hematocrit is

A)

85.

B)

75.

C)

65.

D)

45.

E)

25.

Answer:

D) 45.

39)

Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?

A)

RBCs5.2 million/µl

B)

platelets280,000/µl

C)

leukocytes8600/µl

D)

hemoglobin10.7 g/100 ml

E)

hematocrit44 percent

D) hemoglobin10.7 g/100 ml

40)

A person's blood type is determined largely by the

A)

size of the RBCs.

B)

volume of the RBCs.

C)

chemical character of the hemoglobin.

D)

presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.

E)

shape of the RBCs.

D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.

41)

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because

A)

their blood cells lack A and B antigens.

B)

their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.

C)

their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.

D)

they usually have very strong immune systems.

E)

they are usually Rh negative.

B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.

42)

All of the following are true of neutrophils, except that they are

A)

granular leukocytes.

B)

phagocytic.

C)

also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

D)

important in coagulation.

E)

active in fighting bacterial infections.

D) important in coagulation.

43)

The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

A)

neutrophils.

B)

eosinophils.

C)

basophils.

D)

lymphocytes.

E)

monocytes.

A) neutrophils.

44)

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

A)

neutrophils.

B)

eosinophils.

C)

basophils.

D)

lymphocytes.

E)

monocytes.

C) basophils.

45)

________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells.

A)

Neutrophils

B)

Eosinophils

C)

Basophils

D)

Lymphocytes

E)

Monocytes

E) Monocytes

46)

Which of these descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?

A)

adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B)

helper cells are one type

C)

hormone that regulates blood cell formation

D)

kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E)

often elevated in allergic individuals

C) hormone that regulates blood cell formation

47)

White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the

A)

neutrophils.

B)

eosinophils.

C)

basophils.

D)

lymphocytes.

E)

monocytes.

B) eosinophils.

48)

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is

A)

M-CSF.

B)

G-CSF.

C)

GM-CSF.

D)

multi-CSF.

E)

thymosin.

C) GM-CSF.

49)

A hormone that stimulates the production of neutrophils is

A)

M-CSF.

B)

G-CSF (Neupogen).

C)

GM-CSF.

D)

multi-CSF.

E)

thymosin.

B) G-CSF (Neupogen).

50)

Platelets function in all of the following, except

A)

dissolving a formed clot.

B)

forming temporary clump in injured areas.

C)

contraction after clot formation.

D)

initiating the clotting process.

E)

releasing chemicals that stimulate clotting.

A) dissolving a formed clot.

51)

Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called

A)

erythroblasts.

B)

normoblasts.

C)

megakaryocytes.

D)

myeloblasts.

E)

lymphoblasts.

C) megakaryocytes.

52)

Platelets are

A)

red cells that lack a nucleus.

B)

blue cells that have a nucleus.

C)

large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus.

D)

tiny cells with a polynucleus.

E)

cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.

E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.

53)

Platelets are stored as a reserve in case of hemorrhage in

A)

the splenic vein.

B)

the splenic artery.

C)

the spleen.

D)

other vascular organs.

E)

C and D only.

E) C and D only.

54)

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

A)

Vascular spasm

B)

The platelet phase

C)

Retraction

D)

Coagulation

E)

Fibrinolysis

D) Coagulation

55) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by

C) the liver.

56)

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the

A)

sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

B)

activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.

C)

release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

D)

release of heparin from the liver.

E)

conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

57)

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the

A)

sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

B)

activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.

C)

release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

D)

release of heparin from the liver.

E)

conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.

58)

The common pathway of coagulation begins with the

A)

sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

B)

activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.

C)

release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.

D)

conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase.

E)

conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase.

59)

The process of fibrinolysis

A)

activates fibrinogen.

B)

draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.

C)

dissolves clots.

D)

forms emboli.

E)

forms thrombi.

C) dissolves clots.

60)

The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is

A)

thrombin.

B)

plasmin.

C)

heparin.

D)

fibrinase.

E)

phosphokinase.

B) plasmin.

61)

Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway.

A)

extrinsic

B)

intrinsic

C)

common

D)

retraction

E)

fibrinolytic

A) extrinsic

62)

Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway.

A)

extrinsic

B)

intrinsic

C)

common

D)

retraction

E)

fibrinolytic

B) intrinsic

63)

Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?

A)

vitamin A

B)

vitamin B

C)

vitamin K

D)

vitamin D

E)

vitamin E

C) vitamin K

64)

A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from

A)

thrombocytosis.

B)

leukocytosis.

C)

hemocytosis.

D)

thrombocytopenia.

E)

leukopenia.

D) thrombocytopenia.

65)

A moving blood clot is called a(n)

A)

embolus.

B)

thrombus.

C)

plaque.

D)

procoagulant.

E)

platelet plug.

A) embolus.

66)

Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called

A)

thrombi.

B)

emboli.

C)

plaques.

D)

clots.

E)

occlusions.

C) plaques.

67)

Which of these descriptions best matches the term platelets?

A)

adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B)

helper cells are one type

C)

produce antibodies in response to antigens

D)

kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E)

often elevated in allergic individuals

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

68)

Plasma is closest in composition to

A)

urine.

B)

isotonic saline solution.

C)

sterile water.

D)

CSF.

E)

interstitial fluid.

E) interstitial fluid.

69)

Which of the following drives exchange of fluids between the tissues and the blood?

A)

concentration gradients

B)

osmosis

C)

hydrostatic pressure

D)

A, B, and C

E)

A and B only

D) A, B, and C

70)

Which of the following is present in very low levels in plasma?

A)

electrolytes

B)

platelets

C)

fibrinogen

D)

albumin

E)

amino acids

E) amino acids

71)

Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood?

A)

RBCs

B)

platelets

C)

antibodies

D)

lymphocytes

E)

basophils

C) antibodies

72)

Each hemoglobin molecule contains

A)

four alpha chains.

B)

one alpha and one beta chain.

C)

four iron atoms.

D)

one heme group.

E)

B and C only

C) four iron atoms.

73)

Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume.

A) 55, 92

74)

Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

A)

metalloprotein

B)

steroid-binding

C)

hormone-binding

D)

apolipoprotein

E)

transport albumin

C) hormone-binding

75)

Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

A)

metalloprotein

B)

steroid-binding protein

C)

hormone-binding protein

D)

apolipoprotein

E)

transport albumin

A) metalloprotein

76)

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?

A)

translipin

B)

steroid-binding protein

C)

hormone-binding protein

D)

albumin

E)

gamma globulin

D) albumin

77)

Which plasma protein transports testosterone?

A)

testostoferrin

B)

sexualin

C)

hormone-binding albumin

D)

apolipoprotein T

E)

testosterone-binding globulin

E)

testosterone-binding globulin

78)

Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes?

A)

adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B)

helper cells are one type

C)

produce antibodies in response to antigens

D)

kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E)

often elevated in allergic individuals

C)

produce antibodies in response to antigens

79)

Which of the following proteins is (are) found in plasma?

A)

prolactin

B)

luteinizing hormone

C)

insulin

D)

all of the above

E)

A and C only

D)

all of the above

80)

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

A)

pancreas

B)

heart

C)

kidney

D)

brain

E)

liver

E)

liver

81)

You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be?

A)

6.6 L

B)

6.0 L

C)

5.6 L

D)

4.8 L

E)

3.8 L

E)

3.8 L

82)

The most abundant white blood cells are

A)

NBCs.

B)

plasma cells.

C)

ABCs.

D)

neutrophils.

E)

monocytes

D)

neutrophils.

83)

Which of the following blood count values would be a sign of anemia?

A)

10,000 WBC

B)

3.5 million RBC

C)

400,000 platelets

D)

5.5 million RBC

E)

A and D taken together

B)

3.5 million RBC

84)

Which of the following is not true of neutrophils?

A)

less abundant than lymphocytes

B)

can make hydrogen peroxide

C)

can exit capillaries

D)

can destroy bacteria

E)

attracted to complement-coated bacteria

A)

less abundant than lymphocytes

85)

Which of the following is true of basophils?

A)

constitute about 1 percent of WBCs

B)

granules contain heparin

C)

granules contain histamine

D)

attract other defense cells

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

86)

Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes?

A)

adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B)

helper cells are one type

C)

produce antibodies in response to antigens

D)

kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E)

often elevated in allergic individuals

B)

helper cells are one type

87)

The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from

A)

excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma.

B)

extensive breakdown of RBCs.

C)

destruction of hemoglobin.

D)

the yellow pigment, carotene.

E)

A, B, and C

E)

A, B, and C

88)

After donating 0.5 liter of blood, one would expect

A)

an increased reticulocyte count.

B)

an increased platelet count.

C)

an increased erythrocyte count.

D)

an increased neutrophil count.

E)

increased levels of clotting factors.

A)

an increased reticulocyte count.

89)

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?

A)

iron deficiency

B)

vitamin B12 deficiency

C)

lack of intrinsic factor

D)

vitamin K deficiency

E)

vitamin B6 deficiency

B)

vitamin B12 deficiency

90)

A hematocrit provides information on

A)

blood type.

B)

clotting factors.

C)

formed elements abundance.

D)

plasma composition.

E)

sedimentation rate.

C)

formed elements abundance.

91)

In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the

A)

liver.

B)

spleen.

C)

thymus.

D)

red bone marrow.

E)

yellow bone marrow.

D)

red bone marrow.

92)

The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are

A)

neutrophils.

B)

basophils.

C)

lymphocytes.

D)

monocytes.

E)

leukocytes.

A)

neutrophils.

93)

A person with Type A blood has

A)

antigen A on the RBCs.

B)

anti-B agglutinins in the plasma.

C)

anti-A agglutinins on the red blood cells.

D)

A and B only

E)

B and C only

D)

A and B only

94)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if

A)

the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative.

B)

both the father and the mother are Rh negative.

C)

both the father and the mother are Rh positive.

D)

an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.

E)

an Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.

D)

an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.

95)

Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of

A)

magnesium.

B)

calcium.

C)

iron.

D)

sodium.

E)

copper.

C)

iron.

96)

Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as

A)

transferrin.

B)

hemosiderin.

C)

ferritin

D)

A, B, and C

E)

B and C only

E)

B and C only

97)

Which of these descriptions best matches the term eosinophils?

A)

adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

B)

helper cells are one type

C)

produce antibodies in response to antigens

D)

kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

E)

often elevated in allergic individuals

E)

often elevated in allergic individuals

98)

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?

A)

a person suffering from hemolysis

B)

an alcoholic with a damaged liver

C)

iron-deficient diet

D)

A, B, and C

E)

A and B only

E)

A and B only

99)

If bile ducts are blocked,

A)

more bilirubin appears in the plasma.

B)

bilirubin appears in the skin and eyes.

C)

more hemolysis takes place.

D)

A, B, and C

E)

A and B only

E)

A and B only

100)

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron?

A)

hemoglobin

B)

ferritin

C)

hemosiderin

D)

transferrin

E)

B, C, and D

E)

B, C, and D

101)

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if

A)

the diet is deficient in iron.

B)

there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.

C)

a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

D)

red blood cells bind too much oxygen.

E)

hemolysis is prevented by a bad gene.

C)

a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

102)

During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of

A)

neutrophils.

B)

eosinophils.

C)

basophils.

D)

reticulocytes.

E)

thrombocytes.

A)

neutrophils.

103)

The pus associated with infected wounds contains

A)

dead neutrophils.

B)

cellular debris.

C)

tissue fluids.

D)

all of the above

E)

B and C only

D)

all of the above

104)

Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of

C)

hemorrhage.

105)

A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

A)

cause clots to form faster.

B)

cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.

C)

initiate clot formation.

D)

mimic heparin.

E)

recruit neutrophils to an infection.

B)

cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.

106)

How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation?

A)

the coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps

B)

coagulation would be prevented

C)

no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium

D)

A and B only

E)

A and C only

D)

A and B only

107)

When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect

A)

a drop in oxygen levels.

B)

the release of erythropoietin.

C)

a rise in hematocrit.

D)

both A and C

E)

A, B, and C

E)

A, B, and C

108)

Surgical removal of the stomach could cause

A)

hemophilia.

B)

pernicious anemia.

C)

thrombocytopenia.

D)

leukocytosis.

E)

jaundice.

B)

pernicious anemia.

109)

Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that

A)

she is suffering from anemia.

B)

she has fewer red blood cells than normal.

C)

her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.

D)

she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.

E)

her hemoglobin level is normal.

E)

her hemoglobin level is normal.

110)

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in

A)

pernicious anemia.

B)

renal anemia.

C)

increased erythropoiesis.

D)

decreased erythropoiesis.

E)

increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

C)

increased erythropoiesis.

111)

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except

A)

during anemia.

B)

at high altitudes.

C)

as a consequence of hemorrhage.

D)

during periods of fasting.

E)

when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

D)

during periods of fasting.

112)

Which of the following is not true of monocytes?

A)

about same size as basophils

B)

enter tissues and wander

C)

become macrophages

D)

are long lived

E)

can phagocytize bacteria

A)

about same size as basophils

113)

Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?

A)

erythrocytes

B)

platelets

C)

reticulocytes

D)

lymphocytes

E)

neutrophils

C)

reticulocytes

114)

What are common sources of vitamin K?

A)

green vegetables

B)

organ meats

C)

whole grains

D)

intestinal bacteria

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

115)

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. This means

A)

Bill could receive type A-negative blood in a transfusion.

B)

Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood.

C)

Bill is Rh positive.

D)

Bill's plasma contains B agglutinins.

E)

A, B, and D

D)

Bill's plasma contains B agglutinins.

116)

People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result

A)

they lack a functional intrinsic pathway.

B)

they lack a functional extrinsic pathway.

C)

they lack a functional common pathway.

D)

their coagulation times are much longer than normal.

E)

both A and D

A)

they lack a functional intrinsic pathway.

117)

A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to absorb vitamin K will result in

A)

low levels of prothrombin.

B)

low levels of Factor X.

C)

low levels of thromboplastin.

D)

prolonged bleeding.

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

118)

Tom suffers from severe liver disease secondary to alcoholism. Which of the following signs would you expect to see as a result?

A)

decreased clotting ability

B)

increased levels of bilirubin in the blood

C)

reduced iron storage

D)

all of the above

E)

A and C only

D)

all of the above

119)

Which of the following is true of eosinophils?

A)

granules stain with acid dyes

B)

allergic patients have many

C)

have bilobed nucleus

D)

constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs

E)

all of the above

D)

constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs

120)

Megan has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?

A)

neutrophils

B)

eosinophils

C)

basophils

D)

lymphocytes

E)

monocytes

A)

neutrophils

121)

Identify the cell labeled "5."

A)

erythrocyte

B)

lymphocyte

C)

eosinophil

D)

basophil

E)

monocyte

E)

monocyte

122)

Identify the cell labeled "6."

A)

erythrocyte

B)

lymphocyte

C)

eosinophil

D)

basophil

E)

monocyte

B)

lymphocyte

123)

Identify the cell labeled "7."

A)

neutrophil

B)

lymphocyte

C)

platelet

D)

basophil

E)

monocyte

C)

platelet

124)

Identify the cell labeled "3."

A)

eosinophil

B)

lymphocyte

C)

erythrocyte

D)

basophil

E)

monocyte

A)

eosinophil

125)

Identify the cell labeled "2."

A)

lymphocyte

B)

eosinophil

C)

basophil

D)

neutrophil

E)

monocyte

D)

neutrophil

Blood aids in the regulation of body temperature.

TRUE

The blood of a fetus and its mother are almost identical.

FALSE

Hemoglobin can bind and transport four molecules of oxygen.

TRUE

1)

Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the

A)

right atrium.

B)

right ventricle.

C)

left atrium.

D)

left ventricle.

E)

conus arteriosus.

A)

right atrium.

2)

Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the

A)

right atrium.

B)

right ventricle.

C)

left atrium.

D)

left ventricle.

E)

conus arteriosus.

C)

left atrium.

3)

The earlike extension of the atrium is the

A)

ventricle.

B)

coronary sinus.

C)

coronary sulcus.

D)

auricle.

E)

atricle.

D)

auricle.

4)

The coronary sulcus is a groove that

A)

marks the border between the atria and ventricles.

B)

marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles.

C)

marks the boundary line between the right and left atria.

D)

separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria.

E)

separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins.

A)

marks the border between the atria and ventricles.

5)

In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the

A)

pleural space.

B)

pericardial space.

C)

mediastinum.

D)

cardiac notch.

E)

ventral cavity.

C)

mediastinum.

6)

The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to

A)

papillary muscles.

B)

trabeculae carneae.

C)

chordae tendineae.

D)

interatrial septa.

E)

coronary sulci.

C)

chordae tendineae.

7)

Contractions of the papillary muscles

A)

close the atrioventricular valves.

B)

close the semilunar valves.

C)

eject blood from the ventricles.

D)

prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria.

E)

eject blood from the atria into the ventricles.

D)

prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria.

8)

The visceral pericardium is the same as the

A)

mediastinum.

B)

parietal pericardium.

C)

epicardium.

D)

myocardium.

E)

endocardium.

C)

epicardium.

9)

Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of

A)

cardiac myocytes.

B)

chondrocytes.

C)

epitheliocytes.

D)

fibrocytes.

E)

smooth muscle cells.

A)

cardiac myocytes.

10)

The right ventricle pumps blood to the

A)

right and left lungs.

B)

left ventricle.

C)

left atrium.

D)

aorta.

E)

right atrium.

A)

right and left lungs.

11)

The left ventricle pumps blood to the

A)

lungs.

B)

right ventricle.

C)

right atrium.

D)

aorta.

E)

pulmonary circuit.

D)

aorta.

12)

The right atrium receives blood from the

A)

coronary sinus.

B)

superior vena cava.

C)

inferior vena cava.

D)

A, B, and C

E)

B and C only

D)

A, B, and C

13)

Blood flowing into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the ________ valve.

A)

mitral

B)

bicuspid

C)

tricuspid

D)

pulmonary semilunar

E)

aortic semilunar

C)

tricuspid

14)

As blood leaves the right ventricle it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk.

B)

conus arteriosus

15)

The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents backward flow into the

A)

aorta.

B)

pulmonary trunk.

C)

pulmonary veins.

D)

right ventricle.

E)

left atrium.

D)

right ventricle.

16)

The bicuspid or mitral valve is located

A)

in the opening of the aorta.

B)

in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.

C)

where the venae cavae join the right atrium.

D)

between the right atrium and right ventricle.

E)

between the left atrium and left ventricle.

E)

between the left atrium and left ventricle.

17)

The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium.

A)

semicaval

B)

semilunar

C)

bicuspid

D)

tricuspid

E)

pulmonic

C)

bicuspid

18)

The function of the atrium is to

A)

collect blood.

B)

pump blood to the lungs.

C)

pump blood into the systemic circuit.

D)

pump blood to the ventricle.

E)

both A and D

E)

both A and D

19)

Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it

A)

has a thicker wall.

B)

is round in cross section.

C)

pumps a greater volume.

D)

works harder.

E)

produces about six to eight times more pressure when it contracts.

C)

pumps a greater volume.

20)

The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart.

1. right atrium

2. left atrium

3. right ventricle

4. left ventricle

5. venae cavae

6. aorta

7. pulmonary trunk

8. pulmonary veins

C)

5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6

21)

The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the

A)

heart.

B)

lungs.

C)

brain.

D)

intestines.

E)

liver.

B)

lungs.

22)

The pulmonary veins carry blood to the

A)

heart.

B)

lungs.

C)

brain.

D)

intestines.

E)

liver.

A)

heart.

23)

The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the

A)

right atrium.

B)

left atrium.

C)

right ventricle.

D)

left ventricle.

E)

interatrial septum.

E)

interatrial septum.

24)

Blood is supplied to the myocardium by

A)

the coronary sinus.

B)

contact with blood in the pumping chambers.

C)

the coronary arteries.

D)

arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries.

E)

both A and C

C)

the coronary arteries.

25)

The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries.

A)

pulmonary

B)

coronary

C)

circumflex

D)

carotid

E)

subclavian

B)

coronary

26)

The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the

A)

right coronary artery.

B)

left coronary artery.

C)

circumflex artery.

D)

coronary sinus.

E)

aorta.

A)

right coronary artery.

27)

The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the

A)

right coronary artery.

B)

left coronary artery.

C)

interventricular artery.

D)

coronary sinus.

E)

aorta.

B)

left coronary artery.

28)

The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the

A)

superior vena cava.

B)

inferior vena cava.

C)

coronary sinus.

D)

coronary sulcus.

E)

aorta.

C)

coronary sinus.

29)

The heart is innervated by ________ nerves.

A)

parasympathetic

B)

sympathetic

C)

both parasympathetic and sympathetic

D)

neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic

E)

somatomotor

C)

both parasympathetic and sympathetic

30)

In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of

A)

increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.

31)

The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to

A)

movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane.

B)

calcium channels remaining open.

C)

increased membrane permeability to potassium ion.

D)

decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane.

E)

increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.

B)

calcium channels remaining open.

32)

In cardiac muscle

A)

calcium ions are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

B)

calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules.

C)

calcium ions play no role in the process of contraction.

D)

at least half of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell.

E)

calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization phase.

D)

at least half of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell.

33)

The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in the

A)

Purkinje fibers.

B)

sinoatrial node.

C)

atrioventricular node.

D)

wall of the left ventricle.

E)

both the left and right ventricles.

B)

sinoatrial node.

34)

The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart.

1. Purkinje fibers

2. AV bundle

3. AV node

4. SA node

5. bundle branches

The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is

A)

1, 4, 3, 2, 5.

B)

3, 2, 4, 5, 1.

C)

3, 5, 4, 2, 1.

D)

4, 3, 2, 5, 1.

E)

4, 2, 3, 5, 1.

D)

4, 3, 2, 5, 1.

35)

The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from

A)

depolarization of the SA node.

B)

depolarization of the AV node.

C)

depolarization of the atria.

D)

repolarization of the atria.

E)

depolarization of the ventricles.

C)

depolarization of the atria.

36)

Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the

A)

P wave.

B)

T wave.

C)

S wave.

D)

QRS complex.

E)

PR complex.

D)

QRS complex.

37)

The T wave on an ECG tracing represents

A)

atrial depolarization.

B)

atrial repolarization.

C)

ventricular depolarization.

D)

ventricular repolarization.

E)

ventricular contraction.

D)

ventricular repolarization.

38)

Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following, except the

A)

heart rate.

B)

stroke volume.

C)

condition of the conducting system.

D)

effects of drugs and poisons.

E)

duration of the ventricular action potential.

B)

stroke volume.

39)

The first heart sound is heard when the

A)

AV valves open.

B)

AV valves close.

C)

semilunar valves close.

D)

atria contract.

E)

blood enters the aorta.

B)

AV valves close.

40)

During the isovolumetric phase of ventricular systole, the

A)

atria are contracting and the ventricles are relaxing.

B)

atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed.

C)

blood is ejected into the great vessels.

D)

all of the above

E)

B and C only

B)

atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed.

41)

During the cardiac cycle, the

A)

P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds.

B)

QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure.

C)

second heart sound occurs during atrial systole.

D)

first heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG.

E)

both B and D

E)

both B and D

42)

The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the

A)

end-diastolic volume.

B)

end-systolic volume.

C)

stroke volume.

D)

cardiac output.

E)

cardiac reserve.

C)

stroke volume.

43)

Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, except

A)

increased venous return.

B)

increased parasympathetic stimulation.

C)

increased sympathetic stimulation.

D)

increased heart rate.

E)

both A and B

B)

increased parasympathetic stimulation.

44)

"An increase in end-diastolic volume increases the stroke volume" is a way of stating

A)

Robin's law of the heart.

B)

Finch's law of the heart.

C)

Starling's law of the heart.

D)

Sparrow's law of the heart.

E)

Hawking's law of the heart.

C)

Starling's law of the heart.

45)

Which of the following would increase heart rate?

A)

increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node

B)

decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers

C)

increased levels of epinephrine

D)

faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

46)

The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the

A)

atrial systole.

B)

early diastolic filling phase.

C)

late diastolic filling phase.

D)

systolic ejection phase.

E)

dicrotic phase.

D)

systolic ejection phase.

47)

Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will

A)

increase heart rate.

B)

decrease heart rate.

C)

increase contractility.

D)

increase cardiac output.

E)

decrease the end-systolic volume.

B)

decrease heart rate.

48)

Artery is to ________ as vein is to ________.

A)

efferent; afferent

B)

afferent; efferent

C)

toward; away

D)

afferent; away

E)

none of the above

A)

efferent; afferent

49)

The heart beats approximately ________ times each day.

A)

1,000

B)

10,000

C)

100,000

D)

1,000,000

E)

10,000,000

C)

100,000

50)

The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day.

A)

8,000

B)

15,000

C)

20,000

D)

50,000

E)

100,000

A)

8,000

51)

The heart is roughly the size of

A)

a thigh.

B)

a man's clenched fist.

C)

the gallbladder.

D)

the hand of a 10-year-old.

E)

Texas.

B)

a man's clenched fist.

52)

The wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the right because

A)

the left ventricle does more work than the right ventricle.

B)

the left ventricle pumps a greater volume of blood than the right ventricle.

C)

the left ventricle produces a higher pressure than the right.

D)

both A and B

E)

both A and C

E)

both A and C

53)

Which of the following descriptions matches the term near the left fifth intercostal space?

A)

pericardial cavity

B)

visceral pericardium

C)

apex of heart

D)

aorta

E)

right atrium

C)

apex of heart

54)

The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as

A)

cardiac tamponade.

B)

mitral valve prolapse.

C)

pleural effusion.

D)

cardiomyopathy.

E)

pericarditis.

A)

cardiac tamponade.

55)

The interventricular sulci and coronary sulcus contain

A)

fat.

B)

arteries.

C)

veins.

D)

all of the above

E)

B and C only

D)

all of the above

56)

Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell.

A)

ionic currents

B)

action potentials

C)

the force of contraction

D)

all of the above

E)

A and B only

D)

all of the above

57)

Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them?

A)

Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size.

B)

Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus.

C)

Cardiac muscle cells branch.

D)

Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs.

E)

Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules.

E)

Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules.

58)

The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow

A)

in one direction only.

B)

in both directions.

C)

in many directions.

D)

in opposite directions on the right and left.

E)

both A and D

A)

in one direction only.

59)

During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are

A)

depolarizing.

B)

repolarizing.

C)

contracting.

D)

relaxing.

E)

both B and D

E)

both B and D

60)

Coronary veins empty into the

A)

left atrium.

B)

left ventricle.

C)

right atrium.

D)

right ventricle.

E)

conus arteriosus.

C)

right atrium.

61)

There are ________ pulmonary veins.

A)

2

B)

4

C)

6

D)

8

E)

none of the above

B)

4

62)

Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in

A)

mitral regurgitation.

B)

mitral valve prolapse.

C)

bicuspid regurgitation.

D)

bicuspid prolapse.

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

63)

When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then

A)

close.

B)

open.

C)

make the third heart sound.

D)

both B and C

E)

both A and C

B)

open.

64)

The ________ deliver(s) blood to the myocardium.

A)

right coronary artery

B)

right coronary vein

C)

superior vena cava

D)

left coronary artery

E)

both A and D

E)

both A and D

65)

The ________ ventricle has a greater workload than the ________.

A)

left; right ventricle

B)

right; left ventricle

C)

right; systemic circulation

D)

both A and C

E)

none of the above

A)

left; right ventricle

66)

The connective tissue fibers of the myocardium

E)

all of the above

67)

Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the

A)

brachiocephalic artery.

B)

right coronary artery.

C)

left coronary artery.

D)

phrenic arteries.

E)

pulmonary arteries.

C)

left coronary artery.

68)

A heart murmur might be caused by

A)

aortic valve stenosis.

B)

mitral valve insufficiency.

C)

pulmonic valve insufficiency.

D)

B or C

E)

A or B or C

E)

A or B or C

69)

A heartbeat lasts

B)

370 msec.

70)

Pacemaker cells in the SA node

D)

both B and C

71)

The first heart sound ("lub")

A)

is associated with atrial systole.

B)

is associated with closing of the mitral valve.

C)

is associated with opening of the mitral valve.

D)

is associated with closing of the aortic valve.

E)

is associated with opening of the aortic valve.

B)

is associated with closing of the mitral valve.

72)

Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute.

A)

20—40

B)

40—60

C)

80—100

D)

100—140

E)

140—180

C)

80—100

73)

________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate.

A)

Tachycardia; bradycardia

B)

Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy

C)

Bradycardia; tachycardia

D)

Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia

E)

none of the above

C)

Bradycardia; tachycardia

74)

Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's

A)

P wave.

B)

QRS complex.

C)

QT interval.

D)

T wave.

E)

S-T segment.

A)

P wave.

75)

________ is to contraction as ________ is to relaxation.

A)

Systole; diastole

B)

Diastole; systole

C)

Filling; relaxing

D)

Ejection; filling

E)

both A and D

E)

both A and D

76)

The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the

A)

foramen ovale.

B)

interatrial septum.

C)

coronary sinus.

D)

fossa ovalis.

E)

ligamentum arteriosus.

A)

foramen ovale.

77)

Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the

A)

aortic valve.

B)

pulmonary valve.

C)

mitral valve.

D)

tricuspid valve.

E)

bicuspid valve.

B)

pulmonary valve.

78)

Excess fluid in the ________ causes cardiac tamponade.

A)

pericardial cavity

B)

visceral pericardium

C)

apex of heart

D)

left ventricle

E)

both atria

A)

pericardial cavity

79)

Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because

A)

cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own.

B)

neural stimulation is lacking.

C)

the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes.

D)

the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension.

E)

potassium channels outnumber sodium channels.

C)

the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes.

80)

Stroke volume depends on

A)

end diastolic volume.

B)

the contractility of the ventricle.

C)

the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta.

D)

A and B only

E)

A, B, and C

E)

A, B, and C

81)

Which of these comparisons between skeletal and heart muscle is false?

A)

both have T-tubules.

B)

both release calcium ion from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

C)

both are striated.

D)

both rely entirely on oxidative metabolism for energy.

E)

both trigger contraction by membrane depolarization.

D)

both rely entirely on oxidative metabolism for energy.

82)

Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except one. Choose the exception.

A)

decreasing ejection fraction

B)

decreasing end systolic volume

C)

increasing stroke volume

D)

increasing ejection fraction

E)

increasing heart rate

A)

decreasing ejection fraction

83)

During ventricular systole, the

A)

atria are contracting.

B)

blood is entering the ventricles.

C)

AV valves are closed.

D)

pressure in the ventricles remains constant.

E)

pressure in the aorta remains constant.

C)

AV valves are closed.

84)

When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the base

A)

increases.

B)

decreases.

C)

remains unchanged.

B)

decreases.

85)

When the left ventricle contracts, the diameter of the ventricular chamber

A)

increases.

B)

decreases.

C)

remains the same.

B)

decreases.

86)

As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit

A)

tonus.

B)

treppe.

C)

tetany.

D)

recruitment.

E)

fatigue.

C)

tetany.

87)

At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute, a cardiac cycle lasts

A)

60 seconds.

B)

60 milliseconds.

C)

1 second.

D)

370 milliseconds.

E)

630 milliseconds.

C)

1 second.

88)

Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to

A)

decrease the force of cardiac contraction.

B)

decrease blood pressure.

C)

dilate the coronary arteries.

D)

produce a negative inotropic effect.

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

89)

Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following?

A)

switch to anaerobic metabolism.

B)

release of enzymes into the circulation.

C)

release of troponin T and I into the circulation.

D)

release of MB-CK into the circulation.

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

90)

When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n)

A)

coronary spasm.

B)

myocardial infarction.

C)

coronary thrombosis.

D)

angina pectoris.

E)

pulmonary embolism.

C)

coronary thrombosis.

91)

An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will reflexly lead to

A)

increase in heart rate.

B)

decrease in heart rate.

C)

decrease in blood pressure.

D)

both B and C

E)

both A and C

D)

both B and C

92)

AV nodal cells are poorly interconnected compared to contractile cells but they have bigger diameters.

A)

The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false.

B)

The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true.

C)

Both parts of the statement are true.

D)

Both parts of the statement are false.

A)

The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false.

93)

Which of the following is greater during left ventricular systole?

A)

the peak pressure in the ventricle

B)

the peak pressure in the aorta

C)

Neither is greater.

A)

the peak pressure in the ventricle

94)

If the connection between the vagus nerve and the heart is cut, which of these changes will occur?

A)

heart will beat slower

B)

stroke volume will decrease

C)

cardiac output will decrease

D)

nodal fibers will depolarize more slowly

E)

none of the above

E)

none of the above

95)

Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the

A)

pons.

B)

thalamus.

C)

medulla oblongata.

D)

hypothalamus.

E)

higher centers.

C)

medulla oblongata.

96)

Cardiac output is increased by

A)

more sympathetic stimulation.

B)

increased end systolic volume.

C)

increased stroke volume.

D)

all of the above

E)

A and C only

E)

A and C only

97)

Which of the following would be greater?

A)

the end-diastolic volume when the heart rate is 150 beats/minute

B)

the end-diastolic volume when the heart rate is 60 beats/minute

B)

the end-diastolic volume when the heart rate is 60 beats/minute

98)

Acetylcholine slows the heart because it

A)

opens potassium ion channels in SA node cells.

B)

opens sodium-calcium ion channels in SA node cells.

C)

causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more quickly.

D)

causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more slowly.

E)

A and C only

E)

A and C only

99)

Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase?

A)

alpha-one receptor

B)

beta-one receptor

C)

muscarinic receptor

D)

beta-two receptor

E)

preganglionic

B)

beta-one receptor

100)

Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.

A)

P wave

B)

T wave

C)

QRS complex

D)

P-R interval

E)

R-T interval

C)

QRS complex

101)

The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons.

A)

The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false.

B)

The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true.

C)

Both parts of the statement are true.

D)

Both parts of the statement are false.

E)

Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.

E)

Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.

102)

If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the

A)

heart rate will increase.

B)

heart rate will decrease.

C)

membrane will depolarize.

D)

membrane will hyperpolarize.

E)

both B and D

E)

both B and D

103)

If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked,

A)

the ventricles will beat faster.

B)

the ventricles will beat more slowly.

C)

the ventricular beat will remain unchanged.

D)

cardiac output will increase.

E)

both A and D

B)

the ventricles will beat more slowly.

104)

In order to perform a CABG, a cardiac surgeon must

A)

open the pericardial sac.

B)

visualize the visceral pericardium.

C)

visualize the parietal pericardium.

D)

both A and B

E)

A, B, and C

D)

both A and B

105)

What effect would compressing the inferior vena cava just below the diaphragm have on cardiac function?

A)

Stroke volume would increase.

B)

Cardiac output would increase.

C)

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase.

D)

all of the above

E)

A and B only

C)

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase.

106)

Which of these is true about the atrial reflex?

A)

also called Bainbridge reflex

B)

triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors

C)

triggered by increasing venous return

D)

depends on sympathetic innervation

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

107)

Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase?

A)

when venous return is increased

B)

when venous return is decreased

C)

when diastolic blood pressure is decreased

D)

both A and C

E)

both B and C

D)

both A and C

108)

If a patient's tricuspid valve was leaking during systole, what would happen?

A)

regurgitation into the right atrium

B)

regurgitation into the superior vena cava

C)

diastolic murmur

D)

A and B only

E)

A, B, and C

C)

diastolic murmur

109)

David suffers from a prolapsed mitral valve. This condition would cause

A)

increased effort by the right ventricle.

B)

increased effort by the left ventricle.

C)

systolic murmur.

D)

both A and C

E)

both B and C

E)

both B and C

110)

If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected?

A)

The P-R interval will be shorter.

B)

The QRS duration will be longer.

C)

There will be much bigger P waves.

D)

The ventricles will stop beating.

E)

The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes.

E)

The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes.

111)

Identify the structure labeled "19."

A)

tricuspid valve

B)

pulmonary semilunar valve

C)

aortic semilunar valve

D)

bicuspid valve

E)

ligamentum arteriosum

B)

pulmonary semilunar valve

112)

Identify the structure labeled "8."

A)

moderator band

B)

pectinate muscles

C)

papillary muscles

D)

trabeculae carneae

E)

chordae tendineae

C)

papillary muscles

113)

Identify the structure labeled "6."

A)

cusp of tricuspid valve

B)

pulmonary semilunar valve

C)

aortic semilunar valve

D)

bicuspid valve

E)

ligamentum arteriosum

A)

cusp of tricuspid valve

114)

Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit?

A)

5

B)

10

C)

16

D)

13

E)

both 5 and 16

C)

16

115)

Identify the structure labeled "21."

A)

bicuspid valve

B)

pulmonary semilunar valve

C)

aortic semilunar valve

D)

ligamentum arteriosum

E)

tricuspid valve

D)

ligamentum arteriosum

116)

What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph?

A)

AV valve opens

B)

semilunar valve opens

C)

diastolic refilling begins

D)

both A and C

E)

both B and C

D)

both A and C

117)

What volume is labeled "G" on the graph?

A)

cardiac output

B)

stroke volume

C)

end-systolic volume

D)

end-diastolic volume

E)

both B and D

C)

end-systolic volume

118)

What occurs at "A" on the graph?

A)

semilunar valve opens

B)

semilunar valve closes

C)

AV valve opens

D)

AV valve closes

E)

end systolic volume

A)

semilunar valve opens

119)

What volume is labeled "E" on the graph?

A)

cardiac output

B)

stroke volume

C)

end-diastolic volume

D)

end-systolic volume

E)

total cardiac volume

B)

stroke volume

120)

What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph?

A)

peak systolic pressure

B)

isovolumetric systole

C)

isovolumetric contraction

D)

ventricular refilling

E)

increased heart rate

A)

peak systolic pressure

1)

Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract, except the

A)

stomach.

B)

pharynx.

C)

esophagus.

D)

bladder.

E)

colon.

D)

bladder.

2)

Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?

A)

appendix

B)

pancreas

C)

spleen

D)

colon

E)

esophagus

B)

pancreas

3)

Digestion refers to the

A)

progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.

B)

mechanical breakdown of food.

C)

chemical breakdown of food.

D)

B and C only

E)

A, B, and C

D)

B and C only

4)

Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?

A)

mechanical processing

B)

absorption

C)

compaction

D)

ingestion

E)

filtration

E)

filtration

5)

The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the

A)

serosa.

B)

adventitia.

C)

muscularis mucosa.

D)

mucosa.

E)

submucosa.

C)

muscularis mucosa.

6)

Which of these descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus?

D)

coordinates activity of muscularis externa

7)

Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds.

A)

mucosa

B)

submucosa

C)

submucosal plexus

D)

muscularis mucosa

E)

adventitia

D)

muscularis mucosa

8)

The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.

A)

serosa

B)

adventitia

C)

mesenteries

D)

fibrosa

E)

lamina propria

C)

mesenteries

9)

Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the

A)

mucosa.

B)

serosa.

C)

adventitia.

D)

submucosal plexus.

E)

lamina propria.

D)

submucosal plexus.

10)

Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the

A)

mucosa.

B)

submucosa.

C)

muscularis mucosa.

D)

myenteric plexus.

E)

submucosal plexus.

D)

myenteric plexus.

11)

Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the

A)

mucosa.

B)

submucosa.

C)

muscularis.

D)

adventitia.

E)

serosa.

B)

submucosa.

12)

The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the

A)

lamina propria.

B)

muscularis mucosae.

C)

submucosa.

D)

submucosal plexus.

E)

myenteric plexus.

A)

lamina propria.

13)

A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following, except in the

A)

anal canal.

B)

esophagus.

C)

stomach.

D)

oropharynx.

E)

oral cavity.

C)

stomach.

14)

A feature of the digestive epithelium that assists expansion of the organ is the presence of

A)

transitional cells.

B)

plicae.

C)

elastic cells.

D)

rugae.

E)

both B and D

E)

both B and D

15)

Which of these descriptions best matches the term submucosal plexus?

A)

component of mucosa

B)

sensory neural network

C)

secretes a watery fluid

D)

coordinates activity of muscularis externa

E)

loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels

B)

sensory neural network

16)

Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called

A)

segmentation.

B)

pendular movements.

C)

peristalsis.

D)

churning movements.

E)

mastication.

C)

peristalsis.

17)

Powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon are called

A)

segmentation.

B)

pendular movements.

C)

haustral churning.

D)

defecation.

E)

mass movements.

E)

mass movements.

18)

The activities of the digestive system are regulated by

A)

hormones.

B)

parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons.

C)

the contents of the digestive tract.

D)

intrinsic nerve plexuses.

E)

all of the above

E)

all of the above

19)

The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except

A)

analysis of material before swallowing.

B)

mechanical processing of food.

C)

lubrication.

D)

absorption of monosaccharides.

E)

digestion of carbohydrates.

D)

absorption of monosaccharides.

20)

________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.

A)

One

B)

Two

C)

Three

D)

Four

E)

Six to Ten

C)

Three

21)

The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar.

A)

submaxillary

B)

submandibular

C)

parotid

D)

sublingual

E)

vestibular

C)

parotid

22)

A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the

A)

uvula.

B)

pharyngeal arch.

C)

palatoglossal arch.

D)

palatopharyngeal arch.

E)

epiglottis.

A)

uvula.

23)

Functions of the tongue include all of the following, except

A)

mechanical processing of food.

B)

manipulation of food.

C)

sensory analysis of food.

D)

aiding in speech.

E)

partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.

E)

partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.

24)

The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called

A)

enamel.

B)

cementum.

C)

dentin.

D)

pulp.

E)

periodontium.

C)

dentin.

25)

The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the

A)

enamel.

B)

cementum.

C)

dentin.

D)

pulp cavity.

E)

periodontium.

D)

pulp cavity.

26)

The root of a tooth is covered by

A)

enamel.

B)

cementum.

C)

dentin.

D)

pulp.

E)

the root canal.

B)

cementum.

27)

The crown of a tooth is covered by

A)

enamel.

B)

cementum.

C)

dentin.

D)

pulp.

E)

periodontium.

A)

enamel.

28)

During deglutition,

A)

the soft palate elevates.

B)

the larynx elevates and the epiglottis closes.

C)

the lower esophageal sphincter opens.

D)

all of the above

E)

A and C only

D)

all of the above

29)

Which of the following is false about secretions from the salivary glands?

A)

are mostly water

B)

help control bacterial populations in the mouth

C)

help lubricate the oral cavity and its contents

D)

contain enzymes for the digestion of polysaccharides

E)

contain enzymes for the digestion of disaccharides

E)

contain enzymes for the digestion of disaccharides

30)

The roof of the oral cavity is formed by the

A)

vestibule.

B)

hard palate.

C)

soft palate.

D)

A, B, and C

E)

B and C only

E)

B and C only

31)

The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the

A)

pharynx.

B)

larynx.

C)

fauces.

D)

vestibule.

E)

dip sulcus.

D)

vestibule.

32)

The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the

A)

vestibule.

B)

gingiva.

C)

alveolus.

D)

uvula.

E)

faux.

B)

gingiva.

33)

The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the

A)

uvula.

B)

faux.

C)

lingual frenulum.

D)

labial frenulum.

E)

glossal septum.

C)

lingual frenulum.

34)

The uvula is located at the

A)

posterior of the tongue.

B)

margin of the vestibule.

C)

base of a tooth.

D)

posterior margin of the soft palate.

E)

margin of the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx.

D)

posterior margin of the soft palate.

35)

________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping.

A)

Canines

B)

Bicuspids

C)

Cuspids

D)

Incisors

E)

Molars

D)

Incisors

36)

________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing.

A)

Incisors

B)

Bicuspids

C)

Premolars

D)

Cuspids

E)

Molars

D)

Cuspids

37)

________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.

A)

Molars

B)

Cuspids

C)

Eye teeth

D)

Canines

E)

Dentins

A)

Molars

38)

The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the gut tube. These include

A)

epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous.

B)

epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar.

C)

muscularis externa may be striated muscle.

D)

A and C only

E)

B and C only

D)

A and C only

39)

Functions of the stomach include all of the following, except

A)

storage of ingested food.

B)

denaturation of proteins.

C)

initiation of protein digestion.

D)

absorption of triglycerides.

E)

mechanical breakdown of food.

D)

absorption of triglycerides.

40)

Parietal cells secrete

A)

pepsinogen.

B)

gastrin.

C)

mucus.

D)

hydrochloric acid.

E)

enteropeptidase.

D)

hydrochloric acid.

161)

What is the function of the structure labeled "6"?

A)

strains materials entering the stomach

B)

regulates gastric emptying

C)

mixes stomach juice into food

D)

controls contraction of stomach muscles

E)

prevents food from entering the esophagus

B)

regulates gastric emptying

162)

Identify the structure labeled "10."

A)

longitudinal muscle layer

B)

circular muscle layer

C)

oblique muscle layer

D)

rugae

E)

submucosa

C)

oblique muscle layer

163)

Identify the structure labeled "12."

A)

fundus

B)

cardia

C)

lesser curvature

D)

greater curvature

E)

pylorus

A)

fundus

164)

Which structure helps the stomach to stretch as it fills with food?

A)

3

B)

4

C)

5

D)

6

E)

E)

9