1. The central nervous system is made up of the
A. brain and spinal cord.
B. spinal cord and spinal nerves.
C. sympathetic and parasympathetic system.
D. brain and endocrine organs.

A. brain and spinal cord.

2. The nerves that carry information to the central nervous system (CNS) are termed

A. motor nerves.
B. endocrine nerves.
C. sensory nerves.
D. cerebrospinal nerves.

C. sensory nerves.

4. The membranes that cover the surface of the brain and spinal cord are known as the
A. neurolemma.
B. dura mater.
C. meninges.
D. collagen.

C. meninges.

5. To determine the causative agent of a central nervous system (CNS) infection, a sample is taken from the

A. cerebrospinal fluid.
B. arterial blood.
C. venous blood.
D. urine.

A. cerebrospinal fluid.

6. The nervous system typically
A. is sterile.
B. has a small number of normal flora.
C. contains Gram-positive bacteria.
D. contains a small number of viruses.

A. is sterile.

7. An infection of the membranes covering the brain is called
A. encephalitis.
B. meningitis.
C. arachnitis.
D. ventriculitis.

B. meningitis.

8. The central nervous system (CNS) may become infected through the

A. bloodstream.
B. nerves.
C. extensions from bone.
D. ventricles.
E. bloodstream, nerves AND extensions from bone.

E. bloodstream, nerves AND extensions from bone.

9. The chief source of central nervous system (CNS) infections is through the

A. bloodstream.
B. genitourinary system.
C. skin.
D. nerves.

A. bloodstream.

10. The leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults is
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Neisseria meningitidis.

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

3. The cavities inside the brain are termed
A. sinuses.
B. ventricles.
C. cavities.
D. sulci.

B. ventricles.

11. Identification of the various strains of N. meningitidis is through
A. Gram staining.
B. serogrouping.
C. fluorescent antibodies.
D. titering.

B. serogrouping.

12. Meningococcal meningitis is typically acquired through the
A. genitourinary tract.
B. respiratory tract.
C. gastrointestinal tract.
D. skin.

B. respiratory tract.

13. The menigococcus attach to the mucus membrane via
A. flagella.
B. pili.
C. cilia.
D. a capsule.

B. pili.

14. Epidemics of meningitis appear to involve
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.

C. Neisseria meningitidis.

15. Which is true of listeriosis?
A. It is a foodborne disease.
B. It may result in meningitis.
C. It is usually asymptomatic in healthy people.
D. It is caused by an organism that can grow at refrigerator temperatures.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

16. Leprosy is
A. an infectious disease caused by a bacterium.
B. a disease of the blood.
C. also known as Hansen's disease.
D. described in the Bible.
E. an infectious disease caused by a bacterium, also known as Hansen's disease AND described in the Bible.

E. an infectious disease caused by a bacterium, also known as Hansen's disease AND described in the Bible.

17. Mycobacterium leprae has a generation time of
A. 20 minutes.
B. 1 hour.
C. 6 hours.
D. 12 days.

D. 12 days.

18. The only known human pathogen that preferentially attacks the peripheral nerves is
A. N. meningitidis.
B. polio virus.
C. E. coli.
D. M. leprae.

D. M. leprae.

19. The limited type of leprosy in which cell-mediated immunity suppresses proliferation of the bacilli is called
A. lepromatous.
B. limited.
C. immune.
D. tuberculoid.

D. tuberculoid.

20. The incubation period of leprosy is
A. 1 week.
B. 3 weeks.
C. 3 months.
D. 3 or more years.

D. 3 or more years.

21. M. leprae may infect
A. mangabey monkeys.
B. skunks.
C. iguanas.
D. armadillos.
E. mangabey monkeys AND armadillos.

E. mangabey monkeys AND armadillos.

22. The transmission of leprosy is by
A. direct human-to-human contact.
B. the fecal-oral route.
C. contact with infected blood products.
D. contact with infected nasal secretions.
E. direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions.

E. direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions.

23. Which is true about C. botulinum?
A. It is anaerobic.
B. It may form spores.
C. It produces a neurotoxin.
D. It does not grow well below pH 4.5.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

24. Which is true of the Clostridium botulinum toxin?

A. It is heat-sensitive.
B. It is a neurotoxin.
C. It blocks nerve to muscle signal transmission.
D. It is a two-part toxin.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

25. Intestinal botulism, especially in infants, has been linked to ingestion of
A. seafood.
B. milk.
C. applesauce.
D. honey.

D. honey.

26. Food contaminated with Clostridium botulinum often

A. looks odd.
B. smells bad.
C. tastes bad.
D. appears normal.

D. appears normal.

27. Viral central nervous system infections may result in
A. meningitis.
B. encephalitis.
C. poliomyelitis.
D. rabies.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

28. Humans acquire the arbovirus that causes epidemic encephalitis by
A. the fecal-oral route.
B. human to human contact.
C. contaminated food.
D. the bite of an infected mosquito.

D. the bite of an infected mosquito.

29. Which animal is used as an early warning system for encephalitis?
A. armadillos
B. mice
C. chickens
D. foxes

C. chickens

30. The poliomyelitis virus appears to selectively destroy
A. sensory nerve cells.
B. mixed nerve cells.
C. autonomic nerve cells.
D. motor nerve cells.

D. motor nerve cells.

31. Which is true of the poliomyelitis virus?
A. non-enveloped

B. single-stranded DNA
C. double-stranded RNA
D. single-stranded RNA
E. non-enveloped AND single-stranded RNA

E. non-enveloped AND single-stranded RNA

32. The polio viruses usually enter the body through
A. the oral route.
B. contaminated blood.
C. cuts in the skin.
D. the respiratory route.

A. the oral route.

33. The poliomyelitis virus is in the picornavirus family in the subgroup
A. adenoviruses.
B. enteroviruses.
C. arboviruses.
D. dermotropic.

B. enteroviruses.

34. The early symptoms of rabies generally begin
A. 1 day after viral entry.
B. 1-2 months after viral entry.
C. 6 months after viral entry.
D. 1 year after viral entry.

B. 1-2 months after viral entry.

35. The symptom at the site of an animal bite that suggests rabies as a possible diagnosis is
A. inability to heal.
B. blue-green pus.
C. tingling or twitching.
D. festering without fever.

C. tingling or twitching.

36. Painful spasms of the throat triggered by swallowing or the sight of water is called
A. hydrophobia.
B. hydrophagia.
C. tetany.
D. paralysis.

A. hydrophobia.

37. The principal mode of transmission of rabies is through
A. blood.
B. fomites.
C. saliva.
D. pus.

C. saliva.

38. In rabies, the virus multiplies in one kind of cell then binds to receptors in the
A. neuromuscular region.
B. spinal cord.
C. respiratory area.
D. brain.

A. neuromuscular region.

39. The incubation period of rabies is partially determined by
A. age of the patient.
B. season of the year that the disease is acquired.
C. length of journey from the bite site to the brain.
D. the amount of virus introduced into the wound.
E. length of journey from the bite site to the brain AND the amount of virus introduced into the wound.

E. length of journey from the bite site to the brain AND the amount of virus introduced into the wound.

40. Characteristic inclusion bodies formed in cells of organisms infected with rabies are called
A. Negri bodies.
B. metachromatic bodies.
C. polyphasic bodies.
D. Koplik spots.

A. Negri bodies.

41. Stained smears of the surface of the eye might be useful in diagnosing
A. influenza.
B. herpes.
C. polio.
D. rabies.

D. rabies.

42. Central nervous system (CNS) diseases caused by fungus may occur in

A. cancer patients.
B. diabetics.
C. AIDS patients.
D. immunosuppressed people.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

43. Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis caused by Cryptococcus gattii differs from the general pattern of fungal central nervous system (CNS) disease by occurring in

A. otherwise healthy people.
B. children.
C. AIDS patients.
D. immunosuppressed people.

A. otherwise healthy people.

44. Naegleria fowleri may cause
A. meningitis.
B. primary amebic meningoencephalitis.
C. African sleeping sickness.
D. AIDS.

B. primary amebic meningoencephalitis.

45. African sleeping sickness is transmitted by
A. ticks.
B. black flies.
C. Aedes mosquitoes.
D. tsetse flies.

D. tsetse flies.

46. The more severe form of African sleeping sickness is called the
A. Gambian form.
B. Rhodesian form.
C. Guyanan form.
D. Brazilian form.

B. Rhodesian form.

47. Corneal implants have been implicated in a few cases of
A. botulism.

B. trypanosomiasis.

C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob.
D. scrapie.

C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob.

48. Which is true about prions?
A. They cause a degenerative brain condition.
B. They are naked pieces of RNA.
C. They are made of DNA and protein.
D. They are a normal brain protein that has folded differently.
E. They cause a degenerative brain condition AND they are a normal brain protein that has folded differently.

E. They cause a degenerative brain condition AND they are a normal brain protein that has folded differently.

1. Treponema pallidum
A. is the organism that causes syphilis.
B. is a spirochete.
C. can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
D. has become less virulent over time.
E. All of the above are correct.

E. All of the above are correct.

2. Urinary tract infections
A. are relatively rare.
B. are the most common nosocomial infections.
C. include puerperal fever.
D. are not considered STIs.

E. are the most common nosocomial infections AND are not considered STIs.

E. are the most common nosocomial infections AND are not considered STIs.

3. The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows
A. Escherichia coli.

B. Staphylococcus aureus.

C. Proteus vulgaris.

D. no bacteria.
E. Escherichia coli AND Staphylococcus aureus.

D. no bacteria.

4. The normal microbiota of the lower urethra may show

A. Lactobacillus.
B. Staphylococcus.
C. Corynebacterium.
D. Bacteroides.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

5. The normal microbiota of the genital tract of women is

A. affected by estrogen levels.
B. dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
C. unchanging.
D. typically composed of Escherichia coli.

E. affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus

E. affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus

6. The most common urinary infection is
A. vulvovaginal candidiasis.
B. toxic shock syndrome.
C. bacterial cystitis.
D. bacterial vaginosis.

C. bacterial cystitis.

7. Bacterial cystitis
A. is a common nosocomial disease.
B. is typically caused by Escherichia coli.

C. may occur through the use of a catheter.
D. is unusual in men under 50.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

8. A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as
A. cystitis.
B. pyelonephritis.
C. candidiasis.
D. leptospirosis.

D. leptospirosis.

9. Leptospirosis is often contracted
A. by eating infected animals.
B. by eating contaminated vegetables.
C. from contaminated animal urine.
D. by the respiratory route.

C. from contaminated animal urine.

10. Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of
A. placental insufficiency.
B. being unable to nurse.
C. being unable to deliver vaginally.
D. having a premature baby.

D. having a premature baby.

11. The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is
A. trichomoniasis.
B. candidiasis.
C. amoebiasis.
D. bacterial vaginosis.

D. bacterial vaginosis.

12. Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
A. sexual promiscuity.
B. intense antibacterial treatment.
C. disruption of normal microbiota.

D. the use of oral contraceptives.
E. intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal microbiota AND the use of oral contraceptives.

E. intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal microbiota AND the use of oral contraceptives.

13. Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of
A. bacterial vaginosis.
B. puerperal fever.
C. toxic shock syndrome.
D. gas gangrene.
E. bacterial vaginosis AND puerperal fever.

C. toxic shock syndrome.

14. Toxic shock syndrome
A. is due to exotoxins produced by Streptococcus pyogenes.

B. is due to exotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus.

C. may spread from person to person.
D. has a very low rate of recurrence, approximately 1%.

B. is due to exotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus.

15. The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately
A. 2-5 days.
B. 1-2 weeks.
C. 14-21 days.
D. several months.

A. 2-5 days.

16. Gonococci infect ...

A. cows.
B. iguanas.
C. sheep.
D. humans.
E. cows AND sheep.

D. humans.

17. Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by
A. pili.
B. flagella.
C. cilia.
D. actin bridges.
E. flagella AND cilia.

A. pili.

18. Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae
A. secretes transferrin.
B. destroys IgA.
C. destroys IgM.
D. is very immunogenic.

B. destroys IgA.

19. Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to
A. sterility.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. prostatic abscesses.
D. orchitis.
E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

20. A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is
A. pelvic inflammatory disease.
B. syphilis.
C. dysuria.
D. vaginal discharge.

A. pelvic inflammatory disease.

21. The treatment of neonates with an erythromycin ointment placed directly into the eyes is to prevent
A. viral conjunctivitis.
B. cataracts.
C. herpes.
D. ophthalmia neonatorum.

D. ophthalmia neonatorum.

22. Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis

B. Mycoplasma pneumonia

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Escherichia coli

A. Chlamydia trachomatis

23. The most common reportable STI in the U.S. is

A. gonorrhea.
B. a chlamydial infection.

C. syphilis.
D. AIDS.

B. a chlamydial infection.

24. The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis possibly attaching to sperm and ascending into the fallopian tubes is
A. conjunctivitis.
B. neonatorum ophthalmia.
C. pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. trachoma.

C. pelvic inflammatory disease.

25. The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)
A. reticulate body.
B. elementary body.
C. primary element.
D. core body.

B. elementary body.

26. The causative agent of syphilis is
A. papilloma virus.
B. Neisseria gonorrheae.
C. Chlamydia trachomatis.
D. Treponema pallidum.

D. Treponema pallidum.

27. Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Leptospira interrogans.
D. herpes virus.

C. Leptospira interrogans.

28. Compared to the first big syphilis epidemic several hundred years ago in Europe, the strains of Treponema pallidum that cause syphilis today
A. tend to be more virulent.
B. tend to be less virulent.
C. are about equally virulent.
D. cannot be compared.

B. tend to be less virulent.

29. Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?
A. gonorrhea
B. syphilis
C. trachoma
D. non-gonococcal urethritis

B. syphilis

30. The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's
A. intense inflammatory response.
B. antibody response.
C. rejection of the invaded tissue.
D. septicemia due to infiltration of the organism.

A. intense inflammatory response.

31. During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fifth

C. third

32. In which disease is a gumma formed?
A. primary syphilis
B. secondary gonorrhea
C. tertiary syphilis
D. diphtheria

C. tertiary syphilis

33. During which stage of pregnancy can Treponema pallidum cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus?

A. first trimester.
B. second trimester.
C. third trimester.
D. any stage.

D. any stage.

34. The reservoir of Treponema pallidum is the

A. guinea pig.
B. fox.
C. bat.
D. human.

D. human.

35. The Treponema pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by

A. sexual or oral contact.
B. contact with contaminated objects.
C. clothing.
D. the fecal-oral route.

A. sexual or oral contact.

36. The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is
A. chancroid.
B. syphilis.
C. gonorrhea.
D. trachoma.

A. chancroid.

37. Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers?
A. chancroid
B. rubeola
C. herpes
D. leptospirosis
E. chancroid AND herpes

E. chancroid AND herpes

38. Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Treponema pallidum.
C. Neisseria gonorrheae.
D. Haemophilus ducreyi.

D. Haemophilus ducreyi.

39. The usual cause of genital herpes is
A. herpes simplex virus type 1.
B. herpes simplex virus type 2.
C. herpes simplex virus type 3.
D. herpes simplex virus type 4.

B. herpes simplex virus type 2.

40. Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?
A. herpes virus.
B. hepatitis A virus.
C. Norwalk virus.
D. rotavirus.

A. herpes virus.

41. Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,
A. promotes the spread of AIDS.
B. inhibits the spread of AIDS.
C. inhibits the growth of other viral disease.
D. is easily cured with antibiotics.

A. promotes the spread of AIDS.

42. The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
A. penicillin.
B. erythromycin.
C. acyclovir.
D. famciclovir.
E. acyclovir AND famciclovir.

E. acyclovir AND famciclovir.

43. The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is
A. human papillomavirus.
B. herpes virus.
C. human immunodeficiency virus.
D. leptospirosis.

A. human papillomavirus.

44. Human papillomavirus is
A. a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
B. a small, enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
C. a large, enveloped double-stranded RNA virus.
D. a small, non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.

A. a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.

45. Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer?
A. gonorrhea
B. genital warts
C. syphilis
D. chancroid

B. genital warts

46. A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 60%
D. 100%

C. 60%

47. HPV
A. can integrate into the host's chromosome.
B. may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.
C. infections always lead to cancer.
D. cannot infect newborns at birth.
E. can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

E. can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

48. The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)
A. non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
B. enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
C. enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.
D. non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.

C. enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.

49. HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are
A. red blood cells.
B. nerve cells.
C. platelets.
D. T helper cells.

D. T helper cells.

50. HIV typically attaches to
A. protein A.
B. C3b.
C. C5a.
D. CD4.

D. CD4.

51. HIV adversely affects
A. red blood cells.
B. nerve cells.
C. macrophages.
D. T helper cells.
E. macrophages AND T helper cells.

E. macrophages AND T helper cells.

52. Treatment of HIV attempts to
A. block reverse transcriptase activity.
B. block attachment to host cells.
C. block viral integrase.
D. block viral protease activity.
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

53. HIV may be present in
A. blood.
B. semen.
C. tears.
D. vaginal secretions.
E. blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

E. blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

54. Trichomoniasis is caused by a
A. fungus.
B. virus.
C. bacteria.
D. protozoan.

D. protozoan.

55. Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it
A. has chloroplasts.
B. lacks mitochondria.
C. has flagella.
D. lacks a nuclear membrane.

B. lacks mitochondria.