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AST Practice Exam #4

1.

What is used to retract the spermatic cord during an inguinal herniorraphy?

Penrose drain

2.

Why is an indwelling Foley catheter placed prior to a hysterectomy?

To avoid injury to the bladder

3.

Which scissors is the best choice for extending an arterial incision?

Potts-Smith

4.

What is used to stain the cervix for a Schiller's test?

Lugol's solution

5.

What arises from the left ventricle of the heart?

Ascending aorta

6.

What method is used to confirm that items have been exposed to the sterilization process, but sterility is not guaranteed?

Chemical

7.

Why would the hair of a patient undergoing craniotomy be bagged, labeled and saved?

It is patient property

8.

When preparing a double basin for sterilization, the: basins should be separated by

a porous, absorbent towel

9.

Which structure, during a total hip arthroplasty, requires intramedullary reaming prior to placement of a prosthesis?

Femoral canal

10.

What is the least restrictive form of credentialing?

Registration

11.

What drug classification is Demerol?

Analgesic

12.

What should be transported to the PACU with a patient who underwent a thyroidectomy?

Tracheotomy tray

13.

What is the chemical abbreviation for sodium chloride?

NaCl

14.

What organelle is responsible for packaging of proteins?

Golgi complex

15.

Which procedure would utilize the instrument shown above?

Hemorrhoidectomy

16.

What types of treatment does a patient authorize when signing a general consent form?

All routine treatments or procedures

17.

Which medication can be used as a topical jelly during cystoscopy procedures?

Xylocaine

18.

What is a primary postoperative complication of carotid endarterectomy?

Stroke

19.

What procedure would you use Ferris Smith forceps for

TAH (Hysterectomy)

20.

When is it acceptable to open surgical dressing sponges?

After the final count

21.

What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterilized rigid instrument container is opened and condensation is observed?

Don't use, return to Sterile Processing Department

22.

Which method of sterilization requires an aeration cycle?

EtO

23.

Elevated IOP in a glaucoma patient is a result of excess what?

Aqueous humor

24.

Where should the grounding pad be placed on a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has a right hip prosthesis?

Left anterior thigh

25.

The instrument above is used during what procedure?

Vaginal hysterectomy

26.

The Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery for?

Vaginal hysterectomy

27.

The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the what?

Subclavian

28.

Lesions in which part of the brain may affect balance and coordination?

Cerebellum

29.

What utilizes the process of cavitation?

Ultrasonic cleaner

30.

What is the name for a dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius?

Colles'

31.

What is this instrument

Ferguson Gallstone scoop

32.

During which procedure would a Ferguson Gallstone scoop be used for

Cholecystectomy

33.

Which ligament is transected during surgery for De Quervain's disease?

Dorsal carpal

34.

In order to minimize mucosal irritation during urinary catheterization, the tip of the catheter is dipped in what?

K-Y jelly

35.

How often is a medication prescribed as QID to be taken per day?

4 times

36.

What type of external dressing would be used to eliminate dead space?

Pressure

37.

In the prone position, patients are placed on chest rolls to prevent what?

Compromised ventilation

38.

What positions would be used for an LAVH?

Lithotomy

39.

A left subcostal incision would be used to expose which what?

Spleen

40.

Intraoperatively, lidocaine with epinephrine may be contraindicated in patients who are:

Hypertensive

41.

What approach is used for the removal of a small acoustic neuroma that is located in the internal auditory canal?

Middle fossa

42.

What must be obtained from a patient undergoing surgical procedures, fertility treatments, chemotherapy or experimental treatment?

Special written consent

43.

What drug is used to treat hypotension and shock?

Levophed

44.

The agent used to expand blood plasma volume is what?

Dextran

45.

What does the term chole/ refer to?

Bile

46.

When preparing instruments for sterilization, what is not correct?

Lining the tray with a nonwoven disposable wrapper

47.

What is an initial incision for abdominoplasty?

Low transverse

48.

When performing a rhinoplasty, the exostosis in the nose is removed with what instrument?

Chisel

49.

Which type of sterilization requires the use of the Bowie-Dick test?

Prevaccum steam

50.

What is the first federal act to establish patient privacy standards?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

51.

What should the surgical technologist wear when transporting a patient with tuberculosis from PACU to the isolation patient room?

Respirator

52.

How is the informed consent signed if a patient is illiterate?

Patient marks an 'x'

53.

What agents should not be used to disinfect endoscopes?

Isopropyl alcohol

54.

What is used to expose the meatus during urethral catheterization?

Non-dominant hand

55.

What is the second phase of wound healing?

Proliferation

56.

What muscle is commonly used for TRAM reconstruction in a mammoplasty?

Rectus abdominis

57.

The patient is never positioned until who gives permission?

Anesthesia provider gives permission

58.

What term refers to cell "drinking"?

Pinocytosis

59.

What does hypertension mean?

High blood pressure

60.

Which type of fire extinguisher should be available when using a laser?

Halon

61.

What is the major side effect of thrombolytics?

Hemorrhage

62.

If a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the surgical technologist take?

Circulator pulls off glove; surgical technologist is regloved by another sterile team member

63.

What type of suture technique is used to invert the stump of the appendix during an appendectomy?

Purse-string

64.

What is the proper procedure for removing a laparotomy drape?

ST holds dressing in place; rolls drape head to feet

65.

Gerota's fascia is located where?

Around the kidney

66.

What activity can aggravate the symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia?

Chewing

67.

What is the purpose of maintaining 20% to 60% relative humidity in the OR?

Decrease static electricity

68.

What surgical instrument is used to thread the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF?

Tap

69.

What pathology would be treated by transphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure

Pituitary neoplasm

70.

The muscle that causes strabismus is the what?

medial rectus

71.

What is the minimum required number of people to transfer a patient from the OR table to the stretcher?

4

72.

When used as a skin prep, what should be allowed to thoroughly dry if electrocautery will be used?

Alcohol and tinctures

73.

Healthcare-acquired infections (HAI) are most commonly associated with

Use of urinary catheters

74.

What is the technical term for robotic arms?

Manipulator

75.

Which procedures would the surgeon check for anastomatic leaks by injecting air into the rectum, looking for bubbles in the fluid-filled peritoneal cavity?

Low anterior resection

76.

What are varicosities of the rectum and anus?

Hemorrhoids

77.

Vitamins A, D, E and K are absorbed in the what?

Intestine

78.

The preoperative exsanguination of an extremity prior to inflating a tourniquet is accomplished with what?

Esmarch

79.

Which vessel is harvested for use during a CABG?

Internal mammary artery

80.

What retractor would be used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning?

Bennett

81.

The surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens is called a what?

Vasovasostomy

82.

Which type of laser is used to remove polymethyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty?

Carbon dioxide

83.

Sound waves travel through the external auditory canal and strike the what?

Tympanic membrane

84.

In large abdominal wounds that require frequent dressing changes, which will minimize the skin break-down?

Montgomery straps

85.

Which positioning devices would be used for an LAVH?

Allen stirrups

86.

The term mentoplasty refers to surgery of the what?

Chin

87.

What situation could cause a patient's signature on a surgical informed consent to be challenged in court?

Patient received preoperative medications

88.

What is the importance of humidity when using EtO sterilization?

Hydrate spores and bacteria

89.

What is the purpose of polymethyl methacrylate during a cranioplasty?

Filling cranial defects

90.

The appropriate location when placing the grounding pad is over a what?

Fleshy area

91.

Which catheter is used for an angioplasty?

Fogarty

92.

A hernia that presents through Hesselbach's triangle is a/an what?

Direct

93.

The medial malleleolus is part of which bone?

Tibia

94.

What is performed prior to implantation of a Dacron knit polyester graft?

Preclotting

95.

Which structure articulates with the head of the femur?

Acetabulum

96.

An abnormal bending backward of the uterus is called what?

Retroflexion

97.

What type of clip is a Raney?

Scalp

98.

The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?

Vascular

99.

Which of these drugs is a miotic?

Pilocarpine

100.

What is a violation of Standard Precautions during postoperative case management?

Retrieve reusable trocar from sharps container

101.

Which type of monitoring equipment is a noninvasive assessment of oxygen saturation of arterial blood?

Pulse oximetry

102.

How are femoral shaft fractures in an adult repaired?

Intramedullary nailing

103.

What instrument would be used to dilate the male urethra?

Van Buren

104.

To determine the process for preparing surgical instruments for use on tissue and within a body cavity, they are classified as what?

Critical

105.

The Harrington retractor allows for gentle elevation of which anatomical structure?

Liver

106.

What is the term for the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with chromosome cells?

Meiosis

107.

What does the term dys- mean?

Difficult

108.

After the patient is extubated, which device is often used to maintain the airway around the relaxed tongue?

Oropharyngeal airway

109.

What accelerates the coagulation cascade?

Topical thrombin

110.

Which breast procedure describes a mastectomy?

Surgical removal

111.

What is done to the common bile duct during a choledochojejunostomy?

Anastomosed

112.

What procedures would a tourniquet be unnecessary?

Hip arthroplasty

113.

What anatomical sites would be prepped last when performing a skin prep for a colostomy reversal procedure?

Stoma

114.

What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?

Endoscopic carpal tunnel release

115.

What is the proper procedure for turning the sterile gown?

Hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown

116.

What does the term 'os' mean?

Opening

117.

What is not a function of the trachea

Amplify speech

118.

Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of floating spots before the eyes?

Retina detachment

119.

One of the most effective germicidals for cold sterilization is what?

2% glutaraldehyde

120.

From which laminectomy instrument would intervertebral disc fragments be cleaned?

Pituitary

121.

What type of suture is used for vascular reanastomosis?

Nonabsorbable monofilament

122.

What is the name of the suction tip shown above?

Frazier

123.

What molecule is broken down when body cells require energy?

ATP

124.

What represents a saddle joint?

Thumb and trapezium

125.

During an EtO sterilization cycle, humidity is maintained at what?

20-80%

126.

An emergency drug given to stabilize ventricular fibrillation is what?

Isoproterenol

127.

Creating a positive-pressure air supply for ear OR will do what?

Minimize airborne bacteria entering the room

128.

Which is an acceptable antiseptic solution for a skin prep?

Povidine-Iodine

129.

During a total hip arthroplasty, which instrument is used after intramedullary reaming to reshape the proximal femoral canal?

Rasp

130.

What assesses the electrical activity of the nervous system?

Electroencephalogram

131.

The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the what?

Nephron

132.

What is an intermediate-level disinfectant?

Isopropryl alcohol

133.

Which vein of an infant patient is a central venous catheter inserted?

External jugular

134.

After the patient leaves the OR, the reusable items should be taken to the decontamination room how?

Inside a closed case cart

135.

A clamp used for occluding a peripheral vessel called a

DeBakey

136.

During a total hip arthroplasty, which type of device prevents polymethyl methacrylate from filling the medullary canal distal to the prosthesis?

Restrictor

137.

What is the proper technique when applying a grounding pad?

Avoid placing pad on buttocks

138.

Which sutures are packaged in alcohol to maintain pliability

Natural absorbable

139.

What procedure should be followed for securing consent for surgery for an unconscious patient requiring emergency surgery whose family members or guardian cannot be contacted?

Two consulting physicians agree

140.

What gynecologic procedure includes removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum?

Pelvic exenteration

141.

Isopropyl alcohol is bactericidal, which means it:

Kills bacteria

142.

Use of a one-step applicator with little or no pressure on skin would be indicated in which conditions?

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

143.

A postoperative anesthesia complication when extubating a patient is what?

Laryngospasm

144.

The process by which glucose is stored as glycogen is what?

Glycogenesis

145.

The large, leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a "trap door" over the larynx is the what?

Epiglottis

146.

Use of Van Buren sounds might be necessary for urethral catheterization in patients with

Urethral stricture

147.

The four fluid-filled spaces of the brain are called what?

Ventricles

148.

For which surgical procedure would bupivacaine with epinephrine be contraindicated?

Trigger finger release

149.

What term describes an individual who harbors a pathogen but displays no signs or symptoms?

Carrier

150.

Which procedures is performed before completing an ileal conduit?

Cystectomy

151.

Which is the recommended postoperative handling of reusable instruments used on a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

Place in biohazard bag and destroy

152.

What type of procedure is performed to treat tumors of the pituitary gland?

Transphenoidal hypophysectomy

153.

What would be an inappropriate manner for the handling of surgical specimens?

Frozen sections are sent to pathology on a Raytec sponge

154.

What instruments would be used during a suprapubic prostatectomy

Bladder retractor

155.

A tumescent solution is used in what procedures

Suction lipectomy

156.

What is a type of non-retaining catheter?

Whistle

157.

The walls of the vagina are lined with what?

Mucosa

158.

Which drug counteracts metabolic acidosis?

Sodium bicarbonate

159.

What wound classification would be assigned to a compound fracture?

Contaminated

160.

What type of dye is used intravenously to verify patency of the fallopian tubes during a pelvic procedure?

Methylene blue

161.

Pneumoperitoneum is utilized during a laparoscopy to do what?

Create a safe working space

162.

What is the required pressure for a steam sterilizer set at a temperature of 250degrees Fahrenheit?

15-17

163.

What is the most commonly used thermal method of hemostasis in cranial neurosurgery?

Bipolar electrosurgery

164.

A wrapped instrument set that will be run in the steam prevacuum sterilizer at 270 degrees must be sterilized for a minimum of how long?

4 minutes

165.

A patient that has sudden onset of shortness of breath in the PACU may indicate what?

Pulmonary embolism

166.

What sutures is a nonabsorbable monofilament frequently used in vascular procedures?

Polypropylene

167.

What defines anaerobic?

Without oxygen

168.

What nerve in the lower leg must be protected from pressure when placing the patient in the lithotomy position?

Peroneal

169.

Exophthalmos due to Grave's disease is associated with which gland?

Thyroid

170.

Where should the Foley indwelling catheter drainage bag be positioned after insertion of the catheter?

Lower than the level of the bladder

171.

The sutures of the adult skull are examples of what?

Synarthrosis

172.

A ventilation system that provides a unidirectional positive-pressure air flow at a high air exchange rate in the OR is what?

Laminar air flow

173.

Catabolism of fats produces what?

Ketone bodies

174.

What is the principle reason for performing a preoperative skin prep?

To remove transient flora and reduce resident flora

175.

What is the part of the brain that is responsible for controlling the body temperature?

Hypothalamus