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Exam 2

1.

Which microbes grow at an optimum temperature of 15 degrees Celsius?

Psychrophiles

2.

Which microbes grow in temperatures between 37 to 65 degrees Celsius?

Thermophiles

3.

Which microbes grow in at an optimum temperature range of 20 to 37 degrees Celsius?

Mesophiles

4.

What is the maximum temperature for growth of a thermophile?

65 degrees Celsius

5.

Which microbe grows in a temperature range of 20 to 45 degrees Celsius?

Mesophiles

6.

Which microbe grows in a temperature range of 0 to 20 degrees Celsius?

Psychrophiles

7.

At what pH does most bacteria grow?

6.5 to 7.5

8.

What is the optimum pH range of acidophiles?

0 to 5.5

9.

What is the optimum pH range of basophiles?

8.5 to 11.5

10.

How is it that organisms can change the culture media - making it generally more acidic and can be toxic?

Their own waste

11.

Which osmotic pressure has no net movement?

Isotonic

12.

Which osmotic pressure causes water to move into the cell and possibly cause the cell to burst?

Hypotonic

13.

Which osmotic pressure causes water to move out of the cell causing the cell to shrink (plasmolysis)?

Hypertonic

14.

What type of microbe grows in high salt conditions?

Halophiles

15.

What are the macronutrients?

C-H-O-P-N - carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, phosphate, nitrogen

16.

What are trace elements?

Inorganic elements required in small amounts - Fe, Mn, Mg, vitamins (cofactors)

17.

Which element is the backbone nutrient?

Carbon

18.

What is essential for chemoheterotrophs?

organic carbon sources

19.

What is essential for autotrophs and give an example of an autotroph?

CO2; plants

20.

Which type of microbes cannot live without oxygen?

Obligate aerobes

21.

Which type of microbes can live with or without oxygen?

Facultative anaerobes

22.

Which type of microbes cannot live with oxygen?

Obligate anaerobes

23.

Which type of microbes tolerate oxygen?

Aerotolerant anaerobes

24.

Which type of microbes need less oxygen and more carbon dioxide?

Microaerophiles

25.

Complete the equation and name the enzyme to reduce toxicity by removing peroxide (H2O2).

2 H2O2

> 2 H2O +O2; catalase

26.

Complete the equation and name the enzyme to reduce toxicity by removing peroxide.

2 H2O2

> 2 H2O + O2; peroxidase

27.

Complete the equation and name the enzyme to reduce toxicity by removing superoxide free radicals.

O2- + 2H+

> H2O2 + O2; superoxide dismutase

28.

What makes and gets rid of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)?

Peroxisome

29.

Which medium is made of known amounts of chemicals?

synthetic (defined)

30.

Which medium is made of some ingredients of unknown composition or amounts?

complex

31.

What are some examples of complex mediums?

nutrient broth or tryptic soy broth

32.

What is an example of a synthetic medium?

E. coli minimal salts medium

33.

What is agar?

complex polysaccharide

34.

What is agar used for?

As a solidifying agent for culture media in Petri plates, slants and deeps

35.

What makes agar and ideal medium for microbes?

It is generally not metabolized by microbes

36.

At what temperature does agar liquefy?

100 degrees Celsius

37.

At what temperature does agar solidify?

40 degrees Celsius

38.

Which medium encourages the growth of certain organisms while discouraging the growth of others?

Selective medium

39.

Which medium distinguishes between different groups of bacteria?

Differential medium

40.

Which type of medium contains constituents which cause an observable change (color or pH change)?

Differential medium

41.

What is an example of a selective medium?

crystal violet or basic fuschin dyes selective for Gram-

42.

Which type of medium provides basic needs?

General medium

43.

What is an example of a differential medium?

MacConkey contains lactose and neutral red, lactose fermenters appear pink; blood agar - hemolysis

44.

What is the time required for cells to divide (and thus double the population) and can be as short as 20 minutes or longer than a day?

Generation time

45.

What are the four phases of the growth curve?

Lag

Log

Stationery

Death

46.

Which phase is best for adding anything?

log phase

47.

Which phase is when the growth and death of cells is about even?

stationary phase

48.

Which phase is when the death of the cells exceeds the growth of the cells?

death phase

49.

Which phase is where the bacteria is adjusting to the environment?

lag phase

50.

What is the difference in indirect and direct methods of counting bacteria?

In direct, only live bacteria are measured; in indirect living and dead bacteria are counted

51.

What is a way to measure metabolic activity?

use glucose

52.

Which method of measurement requires the bacteria to be dried in filter paper and weighed?

dry weight

53.

Which method of method of counting bacteria requires the use of a light source, which is measured by whether the light reaches the detector when projected through the bacteria in a tube?

turbidity

54.

Completely destroys all forms of microbial life

sterilization

55.

Limited heat treatment, destroys pathogens but not all bacteria (killing C. botulinum endospores)

commercial sterilization

56.

Destroys vegetative cells on a surface by reducing the number of viable organisms in the material; removal of pathogens

disinfection

57.

Chemical treatment used to disinfect inanimate objects

disinfectant

58.

Treatment of living skin or tissue to kill microorganisms

antisepsis

59.

Physical removal of microbes (alcohol swab, soap) as in cleaning the skin prior to injections

degerming

60.

Microbial contamination

sepsis

61.

The absence of significant contamination

asepsis

62.

What prevents microbial contamination of wounds

aseptic surgery techniques

63.

Systematic cleansing of inanimate objects to reduce the microbial count to a safe level (for public health, used in restrooms, kitchens)

sanitize

64.

Kill all bacteria

bactericidal

65.

Halt the growth of bacteria for as long as the inhibitory substance is present

bacteriostatic

66.

what determines the effectiveness of antimicrobial treatments?

Number of microbes

environment (organic matter, temperature, biofilms)

time of exposure

microbial characteristics

67.

What denatures (unwinds) proteins?

heat

68.

What is the time at a given temperature in which all the microorganisms in a liquid culture will be killed?

thermal death time (TDT)

69.

What is the lowest temperature at which all microorganisms in a liquid suspension are killed in 10 minutes?

thermal death point (TDP)

70.

Steam, pressure and heat - steam alone can reach 100 degrees Celsius but under pressure (15 p.s.i.) can reach 121 degrees Celcius

autoclave

71.

Uses temperature below boiling point to kill pathogens and reduces total microorganism count (doesn't kill all, some harmless microorganisms survive), does not alter food taste

Pasteurization

72.

63 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes

classical Pasteurization

73.

72 degrees Celsius for 15 seconds

high temperature short-time

74.

140 degrees for less than one second

ultra-high temperature

75.

High temperature short-time Pasteurization

flash Pasteurization

76.

Most lethal at wavelength of 260nm; absorbed by DNA, leads to formation of thymine dimers; several methods of repair; used to sterilize air, surfaces (but cannot expose skin); nonionizing radiation

ultraviolet radiation

77.

Xrays, gamma rays, electron beams; penetrates deep into objects; can be used to steriize plastic objects, even foods (microwaves kill by heat; not especially antimicrobial)

ionizing radiation

78.

used with heat-labile samples; physically remove bacteria from liquid or air; .45 or .2 micron pore size

filtration

79.

Where does replication occur?

replication fork

80.

In most bacteria, there are two forks which are moving in opposite directions what is this called?

bidirectional replication

81.

occurs in a specific direction on the DNA (5' - 3')

synthesis

82.

What are the two strands called?

Leading - occurring in the 5'-3' direction

Lagging - cannot synthesize continuously due to direction of DNA

83.

The short pieces on the lagging strand

Okazaki fragments

84.

Which strand requires RNA primers to begin each segment?

lagging strand

85.

Which stand has gaps that are closed by DNA ligase

lagging strand

86.

Each daughter molecule contains one original strand and one newly synthesized strand is called...

semiconservative

87.

What is the sequence of translation?

U C A G down, U C A G across and U C A G going down 4 times or 1st position, 2nd position and 3rd position

88.

Which is starting codon?

AUG

89.

What are the stopping codons?

UAA UGA UAG

90.

Triplets of bases in mRNA form

codons

91.

specifies which amino acid corresponds to each codon

genetic code

92.

is transcribed to make RNA (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA)

DNA

93.

Begins when RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence

transcription

94.

Proceeds in the 5' > 3' direction

transcription

95.

Stops when it reaches the terminator sequence

transcrition

96.

Change in the genetic material

mutation

97.

May be neutral, beneficial or harmful

mutation

98.

agent that causes mutation

mutagent

99.

occur in the absence of a mutagent

spontaneous mutation

100.

Identifies potential human carcinogens by measuring mutagenesis in bacteria

Ames Test

101.

A change in the base sequence of DNA - silent if it doesn't cause a change in amino acids (often in the third position)

mutation

102.

Single base substitution

point mutation

103.

What are two types of point mutation?

missense and nonsense

104.

change in one base and results in change in amino acid

missense

105.

no length in code therefore no gene, results in a nonsense codon

nonsense

106.

insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide pairs

frameshift mutation

107.

Causes the formation of ions that can react with nucleotides and the deoxyribose-phosphate backbone

ionizing radiation (x rays, gamma rays)

108.

Causes thymine dimers

UV radiation

109.

separates thymine dimers

light repair

110.

Any bacteria picks up a "naked" DNA and it attaches to genome of new bacteria

trasnformation (recombination)

111.

Two bacteria conjugate together

conjugation

112.

DNA from one bacteria to another bacteria by virus

transduction

113.

Segments of DNA that can move from one region of DNA to another

transposons "jumping gene"