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NBE SCIENCES Study Guide Questions

1.

A process of chemically treating the dead human body to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms, to retard organic decomposition, and to restore an acceptable physical appearance is:

a. embalming

2.

The irreversible cessation of all vital functions is:

a. death

3.

Those changes occurring in the interval prior to somatic death are:

d. antemortem

4.

A sharp cutting instrument used for making incisions is the:

b. scalpel

5.

That consideration given to the dead body, prior to, during and after the embalming procedure is complete is:

c. case analysis

6.

An imaginary line drawn on the surface of the skin to represent the approximate location of some deeper underlying structure is the:

b. linear guide

7.

Injection and drainage from one location is called:

c. one point injection

8.

Chemicals which inactivate saprophytic bacteria are called:

c. preservative

9.

The movement of embalming solutions from the point of injection throughout the arterial system and into the capillaries is called:

d. distribution

10.

This embalming method consists of injecting a few ounces of arterial chemical, stopping injection, then draining for a few minutes, and then repeating the process:

a. alternate

11.

This is a term used to refer to the after-death examination of the organs and tissues of a body to determine cause of death or pathological conditions:

d. postmortem

12.

Any abnormal color appearing in or upon the human body is called:

d. discoloration

13.

A needle injector is used for this purpose:

a. mouth closure

14.

Content normally aspirated from the stomach:

a. hydrochloric acid

15.

When death has been due to pneumonia, an embalmer should expect:

c. thoracic congestion and increased blood viscosity

16.

The Formaldehyde Standard for short-term exposure to formaldehyde is:

b. 2 ppm/15 minutes

17.

Signs of death exhibited by the eyes of the deceased include:

1. clouding of the cornea and flattening of the eyeball

2. loss of luster of the conjuctiva

3. pupil dilation and non-response to light

4. discoloration of the iris

a. 1, 2, and 3

18.

Another name for pleural effusion is:

c. hydrothorax

19.

Proteolysis refers to decomposition of:

b. proteins

20.

Which of the following conditions would require special attention during thoracic cavity embalming?

1. hydrothorax

2. ascites

3. hydropericardium

4. hydroperiteneum

b. 1 and 3

21.

Discoloration resulting when formaldehyde reacts with hemoglobin in he tissues is called:

c. formaldehyde grey

22.

Severe generalized edema is known as:

a. anasarca

23.

Escape of blood serum from an intravascular to an extravascular location immediately before death is:

c. agonal edema

24.

Low index fluids used to inhibit bilirubin from turning to biliverdin are known as:

b. jaundice fluids

25.

Chemicals that create an increased capability for embalmed tissues to retain their moisture are called:

a. humectants

26.

How many ounces of formaldehyde are contained in a 16-ounce bottle of 25 index arterial fluid?

b. 4 ounces

27.

The care of the deceased to recreate natural form and color is the definition of:

c. restorative art

28.

The zygomatic process is a feature of the following bones:

c. temporal

29.

Which one of the following is a bone of the face?

d. zygomatic

30.

The large muscle which covers the top and sides of the skull from occipital bone to eyebrows:

d. occipitofrontalis

31.

A crevice in the skin accompanied by adjacent elevation:

b. furrow

32.

The vertex of the cranium and the base of the chin are examples of:

d. imaginary horizontal lines

33.

This is of value to the restorative artist associated with the three-quarter view photograph for restorative art purposes:

b. reveals the degree of the fullness of the cheeks

34.

Which one of the following is one of the basic linear forms of facial profiles?

oval, round, vertical, convex-concave

c. vertical

35.

The comparison of the two sides of the face to observe the similarities and differences is referred to as:

a. bilateral

36.

Which one of the following is a means of softening wax to alter the wax consistency for restorative art procedures?

c. mixing with cream cosmetics

37.

Which of the following are generally involved in positioning of the ear?

1. zygomatic arch

2. mandibular fossa

3. mental protuberance

4. external auditory meatus

b. 1, 2, and 4

38.

A general profile classification for the nose from the root to the tip?

c. grecian

39.

A type of prognathism:

d. maxillary

40.

The eyelids in natural repose:

a. abut, do not overlap

41.

The use of an oxidizing chemical to remove stain or discoloration is called:

d. bleaching

42.

The original scientific standard of color is:

b. the spectrum

43.

One of the pigment cosmetics necessary to match all skin colors:

d. yellow

44.

Facial restoration is required due to trauma. Accurate dimensions for facial restoration can be established by means of:

1. a photograph

2. classic proportion

3. supplemental equalities

4. mathematical calculations

b. 1, 2, and 4

45.

The width of the face is proportionally equal to the distance between the base of the nose and the:

a. normal hairline

46.

A substance that would remove nicotine stains:

d. lemon juice

47.

This anatomical structure cannot be used for accurate location of the ear:

c. supraorbital margins

48.

The hue sequence pink, rose, cherry is indicative of read that has been:

b. tinted

49.

This condition requiring restorative art is classified as traumatic:

c. laceration

50.

A characteristic of first degree burns is:

a. redness

51.

The tiny prominence on the midline of the superior mucous membrane is the:

d. medial lobe

52.

The determinative pigment of all races is:

b. melanin

53.

Complementary hues found on the color wheel in this position:

c. opposite each other

54.

The hand may be restored if missing or completely mutilated by:

a. making a plaster cast

55.

The best method of repair for a dehydrated hand is:

a. hypodermic injection of tissue builder

56.

The method of affixing hair depends upon:

c. length

57.

Major or minor restoration can be:

b. legally described as mutilation

58.

The general procedure for effective hypodermic tissue building is:

c. directing needle to the most distant part

59.

In order to begin the modeling of a mutilated or destroyed eye, one must:

c. start with the margins of the eye socket

60.

To restore a traumatized or missing forearm:

c. reattach by drilling through bones and wiring

61.

The most hazardous chemical to mix with a bleach solution is:

d. ammonia

62.

Which one of the following is one of the geometric head forms (frontal view)?

oval, convex, vertical, concave

a. oval

63.

In positioning the body, the face should be tilted approximately this many degree to the right:

c. 15

64.

A pacemaker should be removed if the body is going to be:

b. cremated

65.

A type of plastic undergarment:

a. unionalls

66.

When preparing the deceased for visual identification which of the following tasks is included:

b. setting features

67.

A religion that may require special burial garments and the deceased to be dressed by members of the church:

d. latter day saints

68.

Re-aspirating of the body may become necessary in which of the following circumstances:

b. during an extended visitation period

69.

Personal effects and clothing of the deceased are best accounted for by using a/an:

c. personal effects form

70.

A line drawn or visualized on the surface of the skin to represent the approximate location of some more deeply lying structure is the:

a. linear guide

71.

The two divisions of the skeleton are:

d. axial and appendicular

72.

the study of the circulatory system is also known as:

b. angiology

73.

The galea aponeurotica is the tendon of which one of the following muscles:

c. occipitofrontalis

74.

The artery which supplies arterial solution directly into the thumb side of the hands is the:

c. radial

75.

an artery raised to inject the upper extremity below the cubital fossa:

a. radial

76.

This muscle is found in the lower extremity:

b. sartorius

77.

These bones are located within the cranium:

b. temporal

78.

These bones are located within the bones of the face:

d. maxilla

79.

The buccinator muscle is also referred to as the:

b. trumpeters muscle

80.

The anatomical guide that lies lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle describes the:

b. ulnar artery

81.

A liquid containing a dissolved substance or substances is a(n):

d. solution

82.

When used in arterial formulations eonsine, ponceau red, and erythrosine are examples of:

a. dyes

83.

A substance that prevents infection by killing bacteria is classified as a:

d. disinfectant

84.

The number of oxygen atoms in the formula 2Al(OH)3 is:

d. 6

85.

A 40% by volume solution of formaldehyde is called:

c. formalin

86.

The chemical group that makes an alcohol molecule soluble in water and useful to the embalmer is:

b. -OH

87.

According to OSHA, the proper way to neutralize a formaldehyde spill is to:

a. add ammonia, then wipe up

88.

Formaldehyde is an ingredient of embalming fluid used to:

b. preserve tissue

89.

An amine produced during putrefaction is:

c. putrescine

90.

Formaldehyde in a powder form is also known as:

d. paraformaldehyde

91.

A substance that is capable of bringing about a reduction in a surface tension of a fluid is:

a. a surfactant

92.

Which of the following are properties of formaldehyde?

1. It is a colorless gas.

2. It is quite soluble in water

3. It combines with water to form methylene glycol

4. It is easily oxidized to form acetic acid

a. 1, 2, and 3

93.

Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form:

c. urotropin

94.

In comparing cavity fluid to arterial fluid, the cavity fluid will have:

b. no active dyes

95.

Polymerization of formaldehyde is inhibited by the addition of:

b. methyl alcohol

96.

Reodorants are used in embalming fluids as:

b. masking agents

97.

Phenol is used in embalming fluids as a:

a. preservative

98.

Sodium citrate is used in embalming fluids as a(n):

c. anticoagulant

99.

Deterioration or impairment of an organ is called:

d. degeneration

100.

Deformity, abnormal shape or structure, especially a congenital abnormality is a(n):

d. malformation

101.

Tissue reaction to injury is called:

c. inflammation

102.

A local or generalized condition in which the body tissues contain an excessive amount of tissue fluid is called:

a. edema

103.

A new and abnormal formation of tissue or growth is a(n):

b. neoplasm

104.

Increase in number of leukocytes (above 10,000 per cu. mm) in blood, and generally caused by the presence of infection and usually transient is called:

d. leukocytosis

105.

Inflammation of the lining membrane of the heart is called:

c. endocarditis

106.

Diminished amount of urine formation is called:

c. oliguria

107.

A loss of function, either partial or complete, as that resulting from a blow or fall is termed a:

c. concussion

108.

Inflammation of the testis due to trauma, metastasis, mumps, or infection elsewhere in the body is called:

a. orchitis

109.

A disease that begins before birth and is evident at the time of birth is referred to as:

d. congenital

110.

An inflammatory condition related to the nervous system is:

a. general paresis

111.

A malignant tumor derived principally from connective tissue is a:

a. sarcoma

112.

Which of the following conditions would be caused by a thrombus as evidence during embalming?

1. diminished distribution

2. edema

3. intravascular resistane

. atrophy

b. 1 and 3

113.

Bacteria typically reproduce by a process called:

d. binary fission

114.

A substance that induces the formation of antibodies that interact specifically with it is a(n):

a. antigen

115.

A minute organism not visible with an ordinary light microscope is a:

a. virus

116.

The causative organism in amebic dysentery:

c. entamoeba histolytica

117.

Viruses are unaffected by the action of:

b. antibiotics

118.

An organism that feeds on dead organic matter only is a:

d. strict saprophyte

119.

Rickettsia rickettsii is:

1. a tick-borne disease

2. a flea-borne disease

3. ROcky Mountain Spotted Fever

4. inclusion conjunctivitis

b. 1 and 3

120.

Which of the following are true of malignant neoplasms?

1. resembles the tissue of origin

2. grows by infiltration

3. causes tissue damage

4. grows by expansion

c. 2 and 3

121.

Pneumococci usually leaves the body through the:

d. nose and mouth

122.

A factor that indicates the use of a MORE dilute arterial solution is

emaciation

123.

In a case involving death from uremia,

the ammonia reacts with formaldehyde.

124.

Rigor mortis and algor mortis are similar in that both are

postmortem conditions

125.

How many ounces of 32-index fluid are needed to make 2 gallons of a 2% fluid dilution?

16

126.

The settling of the blood to dependent portions of the body is called

hypostasis

127.

The direction of eyebrow hair growth is laterally

upward and outward

128.

The width of the nose at its base is equal to the width of the

eye

129.

Which of the following sutures would best be employed for an abdominal puncture wound?

purse string

130.

In posing the eyes, the eyelids should meet at the

inferior third of the orbit

131.

Hypodermic tissue building may be performed as a postembalming treatment for

emaciation

132.

Bacteria that can grow in the absence or presence of free oxygen are known as

facultative

133.

Which superficial dermatomycosis increases when associated with AIDS?

candidiasis

134.

An important factor in any consideration of the mode of action of antimicrobial compounds is

selective toxicity

135.

Pathogenic microbes are most virulent

when first emitted from the body

136.

Wearing protective clothing and exercising Universal Precautions while removing the deceased from the place of death:

I. provides an effective barrier to portals of entry.
II. eliminates the virulence of pathogens.
III. reduces the number of microorganisms present.
IV. is required by OSHA’s bloodborne pathogen rule.

I and IV only

137.

Which of the following is the first in the organs to decompose?

lining of trachea

138.

A benign neoplasm found in blood vessels is a

hemangioma.

139.

Inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart is called

pericarditis

140.

Which of the following frequently results from long-term, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?

atherosclerosis

141.

Which of the following conditions would be caused by a thrombus as evidenced during embalming?

I. diminished distribution
II. edema
III. intravascular resistance
IV. atrophy

I and III only

142.

Extremely hard water should NOT be used in diluting embalming fluid because it

results in blood coagulation.

143.

Chemicals that have the capability of displacing unpleasant odors are

deodorants

144.

Which of the following is characteristic of a jaundice fluid?

low formaldehyde content

145.

To facilitate the penetration of preservatives during surface embalming, the surface gels may contain

sodium lauryl sulfate.

146.

The recommended initial 3% dilution of a 20-Index standard arterial chemical used to embalm an edematous body would be which of the following?

19 oz of arterial to 109 oz of water

147.

Which of the following lists the vessels in order going from the aorta towards the upper extremity?

I. axillary
II. brachiocephalic
III. brachial
IV. subclavian

II, IV, I, III

brachiocephalic, subclavian, axillary, brachial

148.

The external iliac artery lies along the medial border of which of the following muscles?

psoas major

149.

In relation to the lungs, the heart is

medial

150.

Blood flow to the arm and hand will reach the following arteries in what order?

I. brachial
II. axillary
III. radial
IV. deep palmar arch

II, I, III, IV

axillary, brachial, radial, palmer's arch

151.

When using the 9-region method for cavity embalming, the cecum is located in which of the following regions?

right inguinal