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Chapter 6 Artifacts notes

1.

Artifact

anything that is not properly indicative of the structures or events

2.

Benefits to artifacts

shadowing
enhancement

- tell the difference between solid and fluid
- characterize masses

3.

Negative attributes of artifacts

improper location
wrong size
wrong shape
wrong acoustical properties
absent
present
absuring

4.

Artifacts can be due to improper equipment settings

receiver gain
compensation settings
pre/post processing
range ambiguity

5.

Artifacts can be due to ultrasound pysics

ring down
enhancement
edge shadowing
shadowing
reverberation
mirroring

6.

Artifacts occur from assumptions

straight line
along the beam axis
amplitude related to the object struck
speed of sound in soft tissue

7.

Doppler artifacts

incorrect spectral flow
aliasing
range ambiguity
mirror imaging
speckle

8.

Slice thickness artifact

when 3D is flattened to convert to 2D external echoes show up in the image

9.

Cause of slice thickness artifact

beam is not razor thin

10.

AKA slice thickness artifact

section thickness
elevational resolution
partial volume artifact

11.

What transducers are prone to slice thickness artifacts?

linear array

due to poor elevational resolution

12.

why are machines good at axial resolution?

axial resolution does not change with depth

13.

what artifacts is similar to multipath?

mirror

14.

What causes multipath?

returning echoes do not return in a direct line

15.

Multipath

gives wrong depth

16.

cause of acoustic speckle

small amplitudes of sound waves interfering with each other

17.

Acoustic speckle

liver

specular reflections

incorrect texture

18.

How to improve acoustic speckle?

THI

19.

What are the problems associated with acoustic speckle?

if too bad you will not be able to see (fat encompassing)

liver - pathological degrees of fatty filtration

20.

Reverberation

bouncy ball

multiple echos (strong reflectors) that appear on the screen

multiple bounces between two or more surfaces

always equal distance

normal declining intensity

21.

Ring down artifact

ring down occurs with gas filled loops of bowel

tends to occur with dirty shadowing

22.

Comet trails

squeezed out reverberation

reflectors close

23.

mirror image

and improper location caused by a change in propagation speed

caused by an adjacent strong reflector

24.

What frequently causes mirror image?

diaphragm

25.

Spectral mirroring

when spectral doppler appears in both sides of the baseline

26.

what is a common cause of spectral doppler?

receiver gain too high

27.

How do you fix spectral mirroring?

change angle
turn down receiver gain
change to higher frequency

28.

What type of transducer produces side lobes?

single element

29.

What type of transducer produces grating lobes?

array transducers

30.

What causes lobes?

weak beams that might otherwise be ignored hit a strong reflector.

the reflected echoes become misplaced.

31.

How do you get rid of lobes?

subdicing the element

using dynamic apodization

32.

apodization

weakening of the outside elements

listening is decreased on the side

33.

How do speed errors occur?

system works on the assumption that sound will make a round trip through soft tissue in 13 μs/cm

34.

Where is the object placed if the speed is faster than 13 μs/cm?

closer

35.

Where is the object placed if the speed is slower than 13 μs/cm?

farther

36.

Split off artifact

object in front of another object causes the sound to travel faster or slower only on a portion of the second object. Part of the object usually the diaphragm is placed incorrectly and the object appears cut

37.

step off artifact

aka split off artifact

38.

cut artifact

aka split off artifact

39.

What causes Range ambiguity?

caused by deep echoes from a previous pulse

40.

what is range ambiguity?

object is placed closer and near the scan plane

41.

How can you correct range ambiguity?

Change frequency

change depth

change PRF

most systems will adjust PRF

42.

What is shadowing

shadows distal to strong attenuator

43.

What causes shadowing?

strong reflector bouncing all sound back imediately

strong absorber - no echoes left to return

44.

What causes edge shadowing?

reflections bouncing away when hitting a curved object - none return

45.

Dirty shadowing

usually occurs with bowels

shadowing when internal echoes are present

46.

What is enhancement

hyperechoic areas distal to a a weak attenuator

cysts

47.

What causes enhancement

an unexpected increase in amplitude

48.

focal enhancement

increased enhancement at the focus

49.

What can you do to correct focal enhancement?

spacial compounding

50.

what is thru transmission?

aka enhancement

51.

Aliasing

peaks cut off and place on bottom

speeding ticket

blood travels faster than the nyquist limit

52.

What can cause aliasing?

insufficient spatial sampling

insufficient temporal sampling

53.

What can correct aliasing?

raise PRF - chance of range ambiguity

increase doppler shift

shift baseline - cosmetic

switch to continuous wave

54.

What is the nyquist limit?

1/2 PRF

55.

PRF

pulses per second

56.

Artifact cause

axial resolution

pulse length

57.

Artifact cause

lateral resolution

pulse width

58.

Artifact cause

section thickness

pulse width

59.

Artifact cause

speckle

interference

60.

Artifact cause

reverberation

multiple reflections

61.

Artifact cause

refraction

refraction

62.

Artifact cause

multipath

multiple reflections

63.

Artifact cause

mirror image

multiple reflections

64.

Artifact cause

side lobes

side lobes

65.

Artifact cause

grating lobes

grating lobes

66.

Artifact cause

comet trail

reverberation

67.

Artifact cause

ring down

resonance

68.

Artifact cause

speed error

speed error

69.

Artifact cause

range ambiguity

high PRF

70.

Artifact cause

shadowing

high attenuation

71.

Artifact cause

enhancement

low attenuation

72.

Artifact cause

edge shadowing

refraction

73.

Artifact cause

focal enhancement

focusing

74.

Artifact cause

aliasing

low PRF

75.

Artifact cause

spectral mirroring

high doppler gain

76.

Which testing is the most challenging?

Doppler

77.

What part of the system is most likely to break down?

transducer

electric shock

78.

Why do we perform performance testing?

to prevent degradation of image

79.

What do acoustic output testers evaluate?

beam former and transducer acting together as a source of ultrasound

80.

what do flow testers evaluate?

Doppler

81.

What do detail testers evaluate?

lateral and axial resolution

82.

What so output testers evaluate?

sound output

83.

What is the goal of system testers?

detect gradual changes in system performance

84.

Who does the responsibility of quality assurance rest?

sonographer

85.

How often should equipment be tested?

one a month

86.

Perfecting these methods is _____ but must be done & must be ______.

difficult

repeatable

87.

What do AIUM test objects test for?

slice thickness

beam width

detail resolution\depth accuaracy

measurement accuracy

dead zone

88.

What is the main problem with AIUM test objects?

no attenuation properties

89.

What is the AIUM test object usually filled with?

water

but sometimes no water

90.

What is the main advantage of the AIUM test object

price

91.

What does the tissue/cyst phantum test for?

detail resolution

dynamic range

time gain compensation

contrast resolution

92.

What does the cyst phantom contain

columns of simulated cysts

93.

How do you fix lateral smearing?

decrease depth (increases frame rate - improves temporal resolution)

94.

Describe the constructions of the tissue phantum

rubber face & sides

plexiglass base

cosists of cystic, nylon other materials

95.

What is the test phantom filled with?

gel - 1.54

rubber - 1.45

96.

How would you test the dead zone?

97.

How do you evaluate cysts

98.

What does the cyst evaluation show?

size and depth variation

99.

How would you evaluate axial resolution?

100.

What does this test for?

axial resolution

smallest distance two pins can be seen as two separate pins

101.

How would you evaluate vertical registration?

102.

What does this test for?

vertical registration / range accuracy

ability to display echoes at the proper depth or top line

103.

How would you evaluate Horizontal registration?

104.

What does this test for?

Horizontal registration

the ability to position echoes in the their correct position along a line that is perpendicular to the ultrasound beam

105.

How would you evaluate lateral resolution?

106.

What does this test for?

lateral resolution

minimum distance two pins can be seen as two separate pins at a specific depth

107.

How would you evaluate grey scale?

108.

What does this test for?

grayscale / contrast resolution

the ability to discriminate between 2 different objects that have different shades of grey

109.

What is the difference between these two test for contrast resolution?

the first one has size variation

the second one has depth variation

110.

Minimum sensitivity

start by making TGC flat then increase gain from minimum value

the point the echo appears on screen is minimum sensitivity

111.

Normal sensitivity

is the point in which all the pins on an AIUM test object are displayed

112.

Sensitivity

is the range that echoes are barely visible to fully sensitivity

113.

lateral resolution

the minimum distance that two rods are displayed as two separate images at a specific depth

114.

Focal zone

the depth at which the intensity is the highest and beam is the narrowest

this may be found using beam profiler or hydrophone

115.

Dynamic range / greyscale

change in gain should result in a change in greyscale

116.

vertical registration / range accuracy

the machines ability to display echoes at the proper depth

117.

depth calibration

the accuracy of B mode, m mode and A mode on displaying the depth of reflectors

118.

horisontal calibration

the machines ability to position echoes in the correct postiion perpendicular to the U/S beam

119.

longitudinal resolution

smallest distance at which two pins are displayed as two separate echoes in their position parallel to the beam

120.

What do the Doppler performance tools evaluate?

the effective position of the Doppler beam (penetration)

accuracy of measured flow

accuracy volume and flow speed

121.

What do we use for Doppler testing?

Blood tissue phantom

Doppler testing object

122.

What is a Blood tissue phantom

Doppler testing the mimicks blood

  • sephadex in water
  • polystyrene microspheres in water/glycerol
  • water + machine cutting oil
  • starch suspensions
123.

What is a Doppler testing object?

Doppler test object uses controlled movement of strings

  • moving solid object
  • usually a string ultrasound
    • pulsatile motions
    • reverse motion
124.

What are the disadvantages of the Doppler string phantom?

  1. over estimates peak velocities
  2. causes artifactual spectral broadening
125.

What does a Blood tissue phantom contain?

an image face

medium

a flow conduit

pump

blood mimick

reservoir

126.

How does a Blood tissue phantom work?

complex

tube connects to a pump

pumps an echogenic fluid through out a known velocity simulates a stenosis.

127.

What is a microprobe?

small transducer on a hollow needle

128.

What is a hydrophone?

large piezoelectric membrane with electrodes on both sides

129.

What are microprobe and hydrophone used for?

Measure intensity

produce a waveform on an oscilloscope

130.

What do microprobe and hydrophone use as a piezoelectric material?

PVDF

131.

How do microprobe and hydrophone work?

receive sound from all directions measure pressure at a given point within the beam in response to the varying pressure

the hydrophone produces a varying voltage

132.

What is the voltage produced by a hydrophone displayed on?

oscilloscope

133.

What does an oscilloscope display?

bandwidth

134.

What do hydrophones measure?

frequency

PRF

duty factor

pressure amplitude

wavelength

SPL

intensity

135.

Which type of U/S produces the greatest acoustic output?

Pulsed Spectral Doppler

Color Doppler

M mode

B mode

136.

Intensity and output indexes have already been copulated using a ______.

hydrophone

137.

What is the #1 assumption of risk?

U/S is energy and any energy applied to human cells can cause change

138.

What is the rule of U/S?

risk benefit ratio

any possible benefit must outweigh possible risks

  • whenever possible
    • increase benefit
    • decrease risk
139.

How do we increase benefit?

Better equipment

  • choose best greatest depth higher resolution - output gain will not need to be increased
  • harmonic imaging
  • appropriate transducer

Better operator

  • knowledgable
    • formal
    • informal learning
  • experience
140.

How do we decrease risk?

decrease output/exposure

  • use only when indicated
  • minimize length of exam

decrease bioeffects

  • lower exposure intensity
  • decrease length of exam
  • use low output imaging methods
141.

Do you need a Doctors orders for an ultrasound exam?

Yes

medical device regulates by the FDA

142.

What are the two types of mechanical bioeffects?

cavitation

radiation

143.

What is radiation?

the amount of force that a beam exerts on an absorber or reflector

144.

What are the two types of bioeffects?

heating - attenuation of U/S is primary by heat

cavitation - motion of microbubbles

145.

What is heating primarily due to?

absorption

146.

Why does absorption cause heating?

absorption involves conversion of U/S to heat

147.

U/S produce a temp. rise as it propagates through tissue

no data
148.

What happens to heat when intensity goes up?

rises

149.

What happens to heat when frequency goes up?

rises

150.

What can Rayleighs scattering cause?

Thermal injury

151.

Where are temperature elevations more likely to occur?

tissue-bone interface

152.

What area is of great concern to thermal injury?

soft tissue adjacent to bone in a fetus

153.

What is SPTA associated with?

tissue heating

154.

What exam can be used without fear?

any exam that causes elevation in temperature of less than 2 degrees Celcius

155.

What exam may cause harm in a fetus?

an exam that causes an elevation of temperature of greater than 41 degrees Celcius

156.

What does Rayleigh scattering cause?

RBC to scatter

157.

What is Rayleigh scattering?

when the wavelength of the incident sound beam is smaller than the size of the RBC

158.

Which causes higher Temperature elevation Pulsed wave or Continuous wave?

CW causes higher temperature elevation

159.

Which causes higher Temperature elevation Focused or unfocused?

unfocused causes higher temperature elevation

* focused has a narrow beam and heat is easily dispersed

160.

What is cavitation?

the production and behavior of bubbles in a liquid medium

161.

Where would a sound wave may cause cavitation?

Nucleation sites

tissue with gas bubbles

162.

What are the two types of cavitation?

stable cavitation

transient cavitation

163.

What is stable cavitation?

expand and contract

bubbles that oscillate in diameter with the passing pressure of a sound wave

bubbles don't burst

causes shear stress - cutting force

164.

What does shear force cause?

microstreaming

165.

What is microstreaming?

rapid rotational flow that occurs in intact blood vessels

166.

What is shear stress?

cutting force

167.

What is transient cavitation?

bubbles expand and collapse violently

bubbles burst

168.

What is another name for transient cavitation?

Collapse / inertial cavitation

169.

What does transient cavitation cause?

destructive effects

shockwaves

light emissions

high temperature

170.

What is Thermal index?

heat production index -

deals with bioeffects caused by heating

171.

If a machine can exceed thermal or mechanical indexes what must be?

acoustic output displayed

172.

What is Mechanical index

Motion production index -

deals with bioeffects caused by cavitation

173.

What is the thermal index measured in?

degrees celcius

174.

Which display is preferred SPTA or Thermal index?

Thermal index - more accurate

175.

What should SPTA be below?

720 mw/cm2

176.

TIS

Thermal index soft tissue

177.

TIB

Thermal index bone

178.

TIC

Thermal index cranial

179.

TI of 2 or less =

expected heating of 2 degrees or less

180.

Mechanical index formula

MI = derated peak rarefractional pressure / sqrt (U/S center frequency

181.

What is threshold for MI?

.3 or less

182.

What is normal body temperature?

37 degrees C

183.

What is the max body temp rise?

39 degrees C

184.

C to F

37°C x 9/5 + 32 = 98.6°F

185.

F to C

(98.6°F - 32) x 1.8 = 37°C

(98.6°F - 32) x 5/9 = 37°C