Which of the following is NOT one of the formed elements?
erythrocytes
platelets
leukocytes
plasma

Correct Answer:
plasma

The formed elements are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. Plasma is the fluid portion of blood.

Which of the following statements about blood is FALSE?
It is slightly acidic, with a pH of 6.5.
It helps stabilize body temperature.
It is used in transportation of respiratory gases.
It defends against toxins and pathogens

It is slightly acidic, with a pH of 6.5.

Where are most plasma proteins produced?
spleen
liver
kidney
lungs

Correct Answer:
liver

Ninety percent of plasma proteins are produced in the liver.

Which category of plasma proteins includes the antibodies?
fibrinogen
globulins
albumin
hormones

Correct Answer:
globulins

The globulins are the plasma proteins that include the antibodies.

Which of the plasma proteins functions in blood clotting?
albumin
globulins
fibrinogen
antibodies

Correct Answer:
fibrinogen

Fibrinogen is a plasma protein that functions in blood clotting.

Which part of hemoglobin binds oxygen?
alpha chain
heme
beta chain
transferrin

Correct Answer:
heme

Oxygen is carried in hemoglobin by binding to the iron in heme.

What is the specific term for the production of red blood cells?
thrombopoiesis
erythropoiesis
hemopoiesis
leukopoiesis

Correct Answer:
erythropoiesis

Where are red blood cells produced in an adult?

red bone marrow

Which of the following is NOT a surface antigen that is used in determining blood type?
Rh
C
B
A

C

If a person has type A and Rh surface antigens on the blood cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma, what is that person's blood type?
A-positive
B-negative
A-negative
B-positive

Correct Answer:
A-positive

A person with type A and Rh surface antigens on their blood cells and anti-B antibodies in their plasma would have A-positive blood.

What type of blood would cause a cross-reaction when given to a person with type A-positive blood?
type A-positive
type O-positive
type B-positive
type O-negative

type B-positive

What is the term for the characteristic of white blood cells whereby they are attracted to a specific chemical stimulus?
polymorphism
positive chemotaxis
leukopenia
phagocytosis

Correct Answer:
positive chemotaxis

The term for the characteristic of white blood cells whereby they are attracted to a specific chemical stimulus is positive chemotaxis.

Which type of white blood cell circulates in the blood for about 24 hours before entering the tissues and differentiating into a macrophage?
lymphocyte
monocyte
neutrophil
basophil

monocyte

Which type of white blood cell includes the B and T cells that are responsible for humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

Correct Answer:
lymphocyte

Review "The various types of white blood cells contribute to the body's defenses."

Which of the following types of white blood cells are involved in fighting parasitic infections, such as flukes and roundworms?
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocytes

Correct Answer:
eosinophils

Eosinophils are white blood cells involved in fighting parasitic infections.

Platelets for formed from large cells called __________.
natural killer cells
neutrophils
macrophages
megakaryocytes

megakaryocytes

An abnormally low platelet count is called __________.
thrombocytosis
thrombocytopenia
leucopenia
anemia

thrombocytopenia

In which phase of hemostasis does local contraction of the injured blood vessel occur?
fibrinolysis
coagulation phase
vascular phase
platelet phase

vascular phase

In which phase of hemostasis is fibrin deposited, creating a solid blood clot?
vascular phase
coagulation phase
fibrinolysis
platelet phase

coagulation phase

Which of the following affect almost every aspect of the clotting process?
sodium ions and vitamin D
calcium ions and vitamin C
potassium ions and vitamin B12
calcium ions and vitamin K

calcium ions and vitamin K

Blood __________.
carries hormones and antibodies in its circulation
contains red cells, white cells, and platelets
maintains the ability to stop its flow at a point of injury
is more viscous than water because of its combination of formed and dissolved elements
All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What are the major components of whole blood?
hormones, enzymes, and organic wastes
plasma and formed elements
albumin and immunoglobulins
red and white blood cells

plasma and formed elements

Which type of healthy human would typically have 4 to 5 liters of blood?
adult female
newborn child
adult male
male child, 5 years old

adult female

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
regulation of the pH and electrolyte composition of interstitial fluids throughout the body
coordination of body system responses
defense against toxins and pathogens
restriction of fluid losses through damaged vessels or at other injury sites
transportation of dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes

coordination of body system responses

Which of the following is NOT a reason why venipuncture is usually the preferred method for obtaining a blood sample?
Walls of veins are thicker than arteries.
Superficial veins are easy to locate.
Blood pressure in the venous system is relatively low.
The puncture wound produced by this method seals quickly.

Walls of veins are thicker than arteries.

What is the plasma protein that plays an important role in protection against foreign proteins and pathogens?
pepsinogen
immunoglobulin
albumin
fibrinogen

immunoglobulin

What is the plasma protein that functions in blood clotting?
albumin
fibrinogen
transport globulin
immunoglobulin

fibrinogen

Which of the following is NOT a function of albumin?
transporting fatty acids
transporting thyroid hormones
transporting iron
maintaining osmotic pressure

transporting iron

Which blood cells are the most abundant?
monocytes
platelets
neutrophils
erythrocytes

erythrocytes

A hemoglobin molecule consists of __________ chains of polypeptides, and ___________ heme units, which each contain the element ___________.
two; four; iron
four; four; iron
one; two; sodium
three; six; calcium

four; four; iron

The bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is __________ than that of fetal hemoglobin and oxygen.
weaker than
stronger than
equal to
much stronger than

weaker than

The binding of a heme unit's iron ion to an oxygen ion __________.
is a reversible binding
forms oxyhemoglobin
will be broken when oxygen reaches systemic tissues, so that oxygen can enter body cells
All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The lifespan of a typical RBC is about __________.
one week
one month
four months
one year

four months

Which of the following occurs during the recycling of a red blood cell?
Most cells undergo hemolysis and are excreted in the kidneys as cell fragments.
Iron and amino acids are recycled to be used in erythropoiesis, while unusable products are excreted into the small intestine in bile.
Heme units are broken down, and iron and amino acids are sent to the liver for excretion.
None of the listed responses is correct.

Iron and amino acids are recycled to be used in erythropoiesis, while unusable products are excreted into the small intestine in bile.

In adults, erythropoiesis occurs in __________.
the liver
red bone marrow
yellow bone marrow
None of the listed responses is correct.

red bone marrow

Reticulocytes account for about __________ percent of the erythrocyte population in the blood.
10
5
1
zero

1

A normal hematocrit is in the range of __________.
20–45
37–54
45–62
54–73

37–54

Normal hemoglobin concentrations are in the range of __________ g/dL.
12–18
1–9
20–34
7–25

12–18

It is an illegal practice for Olympic competitors to receive doses of which hormone, which stimulates the production of red blood cells?
thyroxine
erythropoietin
calcitonin
renin

erythropoietin

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is INCORRECT?
Aged red blood cells are destroyed in the spleen.
Red blood cells contain hemoglobin.
Red blood cells are biconcave discs.
There are approximately 10,000 red blood cells in a microliter (µL) of blood.
Red blood cells form rouleaux structures as they flow through narrow vessels.

There are approximately 10,000 red blood cells in a microliter (µL) of blood.

Which of the following statements concerning hemoglobin is FALSE?
Each hemoglobin molecule contains four heme groups.
Hemoglobin consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains.
Heme groups contain the mineral iron.
Most of the hemoglobin in red blood cells is in the form of carbaminohemoglobin.

Most of the hemoglobin in red blood cells is in the form of carbaminohemoglobin.

What is the most common blood type among Americans?
type B
type AB
type O
type A

type O

Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-__________ woman bears the second child of an Rh-__________ man.
positive; negative
negative; positive
negative; negative
positive; positive

negative; positive

If Misty is type A and needs to receive transfusions of blood during a surgery, which blood type(s) could she receive?
A
B
AB
O
A and AB
A and O

A and O

There are __________ major blood types and __________ different surface antigens.
four; two
two; three
four; three
three; three

four; three

An individual with type AB blood has __________ antigens and __________ antibodies.
A and B; no
no; A and B
A; B
B; A

A and B; no

Which blood type can be safely transfused into a person with Type O blood, without a cross-reaction?
type AB blood given to a person with type A blood
type A blood given to a person with type B blood
type B blood given to a person with type A blood
t
type O blood given to a person with type O blood

type O blood given to a person with type O blood

Lymphocytes account for __________ percent of circulating white blood cells.
40–50
20–30
10–15
less than 1

20–30

Monocytes leave the circulation to become __________.
microphages
mast cells
macrophages
mast cells and microphages

macrophages

Which of the following statements concerning white blood cells is FALSE?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils become band cells before becoming mature WBCs.
Lymphocytes completing their maturation process in the thymus become T cells.
Granulocytes complete their development in bone marrow.
Monocytes begin their development in bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus, spleen, or liver to complete the maturation process.

Monocytes begin their development in bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus, spleen, or liver to complete the maturation process.

Which of the white blood cells is also known as a polymorph?
basophil
monocyte
lymphocyte
neutrophil

neutrophil

During an infection, the white blood cell count may rise, a condition known as __________.
lymphopoiesis
leukocytosis
leukopenia
leukemia

leukocytosis

Bleeding along the digestive tract and within the skin is symptomatic of __________.
thrombocytopenia
thrombocytopoiesis
hemostasis
thrombocytosis

thrombocytopenia

Which of the following is NOT a function of platelets?
formation of a solid clot
transport of chemicals important to the clotting process
formation of a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels
active contraction after clot formation has occurred

formation of a solid clot

Which disease state would be characterized by a concentration of up to 1,000,000 platelets/µL in the plasma?
hematuria
leukemia
thrombocytosis
thrombocytopenia

thrombocytosis

The process of hemostasis includes which of the following?
vascular phase
platelet phase
coagulation phase
All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The platelet phase includes which of the following?
platelet adhesion
platelet plug formation
platelet aggregation
All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Along with calcium ions, which vitamin is involved in almost every aspect of blood coagulation?
B12
K
E
A

K

Which of the following factors does NOT restrict the coagulation process?
thromboxane A2
alpha-2-macroglobulin
heparin
antithrombin III
prostacyclin

thromboxane A2

Syneresis refers to the process of __________.
clot formation
clot retraction
clot elimination
clot dissolution

clot retraction

What are the major components of the cardiovascular system?
lymph, plasma, and hemoglobin
veins, arteries, and capillaries
red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
blood, heart, and blood vessels

blood, heart, and blood vessels

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood?
regulation of pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
transportation of gases, nutrients, hormones, and wastes
defense against pathogens
All of the listed responses are functions of the blood.

All of the listed responses are functions of the blood.

The formed elements of the blood consist of __________.
electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen
red and white blood cells and platelets
antibodies, metalloproteins, and lipoproteins

red and white blood cells and platelets

Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma?
dissolved proteins
organic wastes
antibodies
elastic fibers

elastic fibers

What are the "patrol agents" in the blood that defend the body against toxins and pathogens?
hormones and enzymes
red blood cells and platelets
white blood cells and antibodies
albumins and globulins

white blood cells and antibodies

To check the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs, blood may be required via __________.
arterial puncture
venipuncture
puncturing the tip of a finger
Any of the listed responses would be correct.

arterial puncture

Blood temperature is roughly _____°C, and the blood pH averages _____.
38°C; 7.4
0°C; 6.8
98°C; 7.8
32°C; 7.0

38°C; 7.4

Which type of plasma protein serves as a carrier for the hormones T3 and T4?
fibrinogens
albumins
antibodies
apolipoproteins

albumins

In addition to water and proteins, what else is part of plasma?
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen
None of the listed responses is correct.

electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes

Circulating mature RBCs lack __________.
mitochondria
nuclei
ribosomes
All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The primary function of a mature red blood cell is which of the following?
defense against toxins and pathogens
delivery of enzymes to target tissues
transport of respiratory gases
All of the listed responses are correct.

The primary function of a mature red blood cell is which of the following?

Which part of the hemoglobin molecule directly interacts with oxygen?
globin
the porphyrin
the iron ion
the sodium ion

the iron ion

Coloration of urinary and digestive wastes is the result of the presence of which products from the breakdown of red blood cells?
carbon dioxide
urobilins and stercobilins
iron
All of the listed responses are correct.

urobilins and stercobilins

The iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the protein–iron complexes __________.
transferrin and porphyrin
ferritin and hemosiderin
biliverdin and bilirubin
urobilin and stercobilin

ferritin and hemosiderin

During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to __________.
urobilin
biliverdin
transferrin
ferritin

biliverdin

What is the primary site of erythropoiesis in the adult?
heart
bone marrow
kidney
liver

bone marrow

Erythropoietin appears in the plasma when peripheral tissues, especially the kidneys, are exposed to __________.
low oxygen concentrations
excessive amounts of radiation
high urine volumes
extremes of temperature

low oxygen concentrations

Agglutinogens are contained (on, in) the __________, whereas the agglutinins are found (on, in) the __________.
cell membrane of the RBC; plasma
mitochondria; nucleus of the RBC
plasma; cell membrane of the RBC
nucleus of the RBC; mitochondria

cell membrane of the RBC; plasma

If you have type A blood, your plasma holds circulating __________ that will attack __________ erythrocytes.
anti-A agglutinins; type A
anti-B agglutinins; type B
anti-A agglutinins; type B
anti-A agglutinogens; type A

anti-B agglutinins; type B

Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that becomes a tissue macrophage after approximately 24 hours in circulation?
lymphocyte
neutrophil
monocyte
basophil
eosinophil

monocyte

Which type of granular leukocyte can engulf up to two dozen bacteria and also produces a respiratory burst that creates harsh chemical agents such as hydrogen peroxide?
neutrophil
basophil
eosinophil
lymphocyte

neutrophil

Megakaryocytes are specialized cells of the bone marrow responsible for __________.
specific immune responses
engulfing invading bacteria
production of scar tissue in an injured area
formation of platelets

formation of platelets

The rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation is regulated by __________.
multi-CSF
interleukin-6
thrombopoietin
All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning T cells and B cells?
B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens.
B and T cells are involved in the specific immune response.
B cells and T cells are both types of lymphocytes.
T cells complete their maturation process in the thymus.

B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens.

The process of hemostasis includes five phases. What is the correct order of the phases as they occur after injury?
vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)
coagulation, vascular, platelet, clot destruction (fibrinolysis), clot retraction
vascular, coagulation, platelet, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)
platelet, vascular, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)

vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)

Because the concentration of dissolved gases is different between the plasma and the tissue fluid __________.
both O2 and CO2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid
O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction
CO2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and O2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction
None of the listed responses is correct.

O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction

If blood comprises 7 percent of the body weight in kilograms, how many liters of blood would there be in an individual who weighs 85 kg?
5.25
5.95
6.25
6.95

5.95

How is it that liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood?
The proteins synthesized by the liver are filtered out of the blood by the kidneys.
The liver is the primary source of plasma proteins.
The liver synthesizes immunoglobulins and protein hormones.
The liver serves as a filter for plasma proteins and pathogens.

The liver is the primary source of plasma proteins.

When plasma O2 concentrations are falling, the rising plasma CO2 binds to the __________ of the hemoglobin molecule.
alpha and beta chains
heme
porphyrin
None of the listed responses is correct.

alpha and beta chains

Hemoglobin molecules released into the bloodstream by the breakdown of RBCs by hemolysis will be excreted in the __________.
kidney
small and large intestine
skin
tears

kidney

Signs of iron deficiency anemia include __________.
increase in hematocrit, hemoglobin, and O2-carrying capacity
decrease in hematocrit, hemoglobin content, and O2-carrying capacity
increase in hematocrit, decrease in hemoglobin, and decrease in O2-carrying capacity
decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin, and increase in O2-carrying capacity

decrease in hematocrit, hemoglobin content, and O2-carrying capacity

On average, 1 microliter of blood contains __________ erythrocytes.
1013
260 million
25 million
5.2 million

5.2 million

The process in which packed RBCs that were previously removed are reintroduced before an athletic event is called __________.
blood doping
EPO doping
a cross-reaction
None of the listed responses is correct.

blood doping

Protein synthesis in a mature RBC occurs primarily in __________.
the nucleus
ribosomes
mitochondria
Mature red blood cells cannot synthesize proteins.

Mature red blood cells cannot synthesize proteins.

If agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, what is the result?
The patient becomes comatose.
A cross-reaction occurs.
No agglutination occurs.
The patient dies.

No agglutination occurs.

What is the precursor of all blood cells in the human body?
myeloblast
hemocytoblast
megakaryocyte
None of the listed responses is correct.

hemocytoblast

Reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature __________.
lymphocytes
leukocytes
platelets
erythrocytes

erythrocytes

In which pregnancy is an Rh-positive mom and an Rh-positive child at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis?
no pregnancy
all pregnancies
second or later pregnancies
first pregnancy

no pregnancy

In the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive child, why are there usually NO symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis?
Blood between mother and child does not mix until birth.
Antibodies from the mother's blood cannot cross over to the child.
The immune system of first child develops faster than that of the second or later children.
None of the listed responses is correct..

Blood between mother and child does not mix until birth.

Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
The newborn's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and cause the newborn's RBCs to degenerate.
The mother's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and destroy fetal red blood cells.
The mother's agglutinogens destroy her own RBCs, causing deoxygenation of the newborn.
All of the listed responses are correct.

The mother's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and destroy fetal red blood cells.

The number of eosinophils increases dramatically during __________.
an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection
tissue degeneration or cellular deterioration
an injury to a tissue or a bacterial infection
All of the listed responses are correct.

an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection

A typical microliter of blood contains __________ leukocytes.
1000–2000
3000–5000
5000–10,000
10,000–12,000

5000–10,000

Under "normal" conditions, neutrophils comprise __________ of the circulatory white blood cells.
10–20 percent
20–40 percent
50–70 percent
85–95 percent

50–70 percent

Which of the following is a notable feature of leukemia?
excessive numbers of white blood cells
yellowing of the eyes and skin
crescent-shaped erythrocytes
absence of certain blood clotting factors

excessive numbers of white blood cells

Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells EXCEPT __________.
eosinophils
lymphocytes
neutrophils
basophils

lymphocytes

Clot destruction involves a process that begins with __________.
activation of the proenzyme fibrinogen, which initiates the production of fibrin
activation of prothrombin, which initiates the production of thrombin
activation of Ca2+ to produce tissue plasmin
activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin

activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin

The major effect of vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to __________.
a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system
the body becoming insensitive to situations that would necessitate the clotting mechanism
an overactive clotting system, which might necessitate thinning of the blood
All of the listed responses are correct.

a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system

A vitamin B12 deficiency results in the type of anemia known as __________.
sickle cell anemia
hemorrhagic anemia
aplastic anemia
pernicious anemia

pernicious anemia

A change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as __________.
leukemia
sickle cell anemia
leukopenia
thalassemia

sickle cell anemia

Jessica has just moved to Denver, Colorado, from Orlando, Florida. What condition is she experiencing now that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently, more red blood cells?
a change in diet, from deep-fried comfort foods to healthy organic meals
increased oxygen concentration in the atmospheric air
hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level
a decrease in the number of existing white blood cells

hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level

Correctly match the terms with the correct location of the diagram of red blood cell turnover.

A. Hemolysis
B. Biliverdin
C. Urobilins, stercobilins
D. Heme
E. Bilirubin

Correctly match the terms with the formed elements of blood.

A. Basophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Lymphocyte
D. Monocyte
E. Eosinophil
F. Platelet

Match the terms in their appropriate locations in the diagram of the coagulation phase of hemostasis.

A. Factor X
B. Ca++
C. Fibrinogen
D. Prothrombinase
E. Fibrin
F. Tissue Damage

Order of events occurring during the recycling of a red blood cell.

A. After approximately 120 days, a macrophage consumes a red blood cell.
B. Heme is broken down, iron and amino acids are sent to bone marrow, while the remainder of the cell forms biliverdin and bilirubin.
E. Bilirubin is secreted in bile.
D. Bilirubin is converted to urobilins and stercobilins in the large intestine.
C. Urobilins and stercobilins are eliminated in digestive and urinary waste.

Correctly list the following steps in clotting in the proper order:

A Blood clot formed and bleeding stopped
B Endothelial cells contract and expose underlying basal lamina to bloodstream
C Coagulation phase
D Endothelial cells release local hormones and chemical factors, causing them to become "sticky"
E Formation of a platelet plug
F Platelets attach to exposed surfaces (platelet adhesion)

B. Endothelial cells contract and expose underlying basal lamina to bloodstream
D. Endothelial cells release local hormones and chemical factors, causing them to become "sticky"
F. Platelets attach to exposed surfaces (platelet adhesion)
E. Formation of a platelet plug
C. Coagulation phase
A. Blood clot formed and bleeding stopped

Correctly list the cells in the steps of erythropoiesis in the correct order.

hemocytoblast
proerythroblast
normoblast
reticulocyte
erythrocyte

Surface antigen A and anti-B antibodies

Type A

Surface antigen B and anti-A antibodies

Type B

Surface antigens A and B, no antibodies

Type AB

No surface antigens, anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Type O

Rh surface antigen, no antibodies

Type Rh positive

Attack objects coated with antibodies

Eosinophil

Large phagocytic cells (macrophage precursors)

Monocyte

When stimulated, release histamine and heparin

Basophil

Attack and digest bacteria marked with complement

Neutrophil

Responsible for cell-mediated or humoral immunity

Lymphocyte

True/False. Carbon dioxide binds to the heme group of hemoglobin.

False. Carbon dioxide binds to the alpha and beta chains of hemoglobin.

True/False. Ferritin is responsible for transporting iron around the body.

False. Ferritin is a storage form for iron, not a transport form.

True/False. To prevent excessive platelet plug formation, prostacyclins are released during the platelet phase.

True

True/False. Rh incompatibility exists when the mother is Rh+ and the fetus is Rh%ndash;.

False. Rh incompatibility exists only when the mother is Rh– and the fetus is Rh+.

True/False. Platelets are derived from the breakdown of a large cell called a reticulocyte.

False. Platelets are derived from a large cell called a megakaryocyte.

Biliverdin is formed when ____is broken down.

heme

When an antibody meets its specific antigen, a cross-reaction occurs and the red blood cells clump together, a process known as _____.

agglutination

If Amy is on vacation in a country with poor health standards and she contracts a parasitic roundworm, which type of white blood cells would you expect to see elevated in her blood? ______

Eosinophils

Almost every aspect of the clotting process is affected by _____ ions and vitamin K.

calcium

Which enzyme digests fibrin strands in a blood clot after healing at the injury site has occurred? _____

Plasmin